Training Bulletins 41 - 80 Flashcards

1
Q

TB #41 - What type of extinguisher can be used to drive the snake from its hiding place?

A
  • CO2 extinguisher
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TB #41 - Rattlenakes belong to the family of _________.

A
  • Pit vipers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TB #41 - The long handled square point shovel provides ______ feet clearance between the snake and yourself.

A
  • 4 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TB #41 - (Snake incidents) Place the head in a ________ or ________ receptacle while transporting for disposal.

A
  • Metal
  • Plastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TB #41 - What are the only native poisonous snakes in the area and within the City of Los Angeles?

A
  • Rattlesnakes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TB #41 - Regarding snake bites, venom can still be injected up to ______ hour(s) after decapitation.

A
  • 1 hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TB #41 - After decapitating the snake head, bury in a hole minimum of ______ inch(s).

A
  • 24 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TB #41 - After decapitating the snake head, the remainder of the body can be wrapped in _______ or _______ to prevent odor.

A
  • Plastic
  • Foil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TB #41 - Regarding snake bite treatments, draw a __________ on the affected area and note the ________ of the bite.

A
  • Circle
  • Time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TB #42 - DWP states that the average customer loses power less than _______ minute(s) a year.

A
  • 3 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TB #42 - What type of smoke detector is best for flaming fires and also emits radiation?

A
  • Ionization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TB #42 - An ionization smoke detector radiation equals one chest x-ray over _______ year(s) of exposure.

A
  • 70 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TB #42 - What type of smoke detectors are less prone to nuisance alarms and most sensitive for smoldering fires?

A
  • Photoelectric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

TB #42 - Fire is the _______ leading cause of accidental deaths in the USA.

A
  • 3rd
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TB #42 - The coverage area for smoke detectors is ______ feet per detector.

A
  • 25 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TB #42 - Smoke detectors could be installed ______ feet away from bedroom doors and still provide protection. This will keep the detector away from heating appliances.

A
  • 12.5 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TB #44 - The rotary saw can throw hot sparks up to _____ feet.

A
  • 15 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TB #44 - How often do you check the rotary saw belts physical condition and tension?

A
  • Monthly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TB #44 - The masonry composition blade is identified with a ________ or ________ stripe.

A
  • White
  • Silver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TB #44 - The metal composition blade is used on hard metals only. What color blotter does this blade have?

A
  • Green blotter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TB #44 - Where can you obtain a training diamond blade?

A
  • Battalion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TB #44 - The rotary saw spark plug gaps are _____ inch and the Partner saw is _____ inch.

A
  • 0.025”
  • 0.020” (Partner saw)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TB #44 - The minimum blade size for a 14 inch blade is ______ inches.

A
  • 12 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TB #44 - The minimum blade size for a 12 inch blade is ______ inches.

A
  • 10 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TB #44 - Exchange a rotary saw blade when it is ______ inches in diameter. Tag with a F-175 and mark “_________.”

A
  • 9 inches
  • “Unsafe”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

TB #44 - When are you required to drain and exchange the rotary saw fuel?

A
  • Monthly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

TB #44 – What rotary saw blade would you use to cut through light sheet metals such as door cladding or aluminum sheets?

A
  • Wood cutting blade (carbide tipped)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

TB #47 - On aircraft fires, if a water supply is available such as a hydrant, use a ______ inch hose with a fog nozzle.

A
  • 2-1/2” hose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TB #47 - The best way to approach a helicopter is in the ________ position.

A
  • Crouched position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TB #47 - When spotting at an aircraft incident, position the apparatus to either the ________ or ________ of the aircraft.

A
  • Nose or tail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TB #47 - At an aircraft incident, treat all fuel spills at the crash site as though it was ________.

A
  • On fire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TB #47 - What type of fire extinguisher can be used in a helicopter engine intake to shut it down?

A
  • CO2 extinguisher
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TB #49 - PCB’s are described under “_______” on the building inventory program written sheet.

A
  • “Hazards”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TB #49 - The EPA has forbid the manufacturing of PCB’s since the year _______.

A
  • 1979
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TB #49 - PCB insulating oil is clear to _______ in color.

A
  • Amber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TB #49 - The flash point for PCB’s is ____ degrees F.

A
  • 383 degrees F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TB #49 - PCB’s decompose under fire conditions. Decomposition will occur when the fluid is heated to approximately _____ to _____ degrees F.

A
  • 662 to 725 degrees F.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

TB #49 - Electric transformers can carry ______ to ______ gallons of PCB’s.

A
  • 20 to 600 gallons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

TB #49 - If liquid or solid PCB’s are splashed into eyes, irrigate with running water for ______ minute(s).

A
  • 15 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

TB #49 - Who forbids the manufacturing of PCB’s since 1979?

A
  • EPA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TB #49 - Electric capacitors can carry ______ to ______ gallons of PCB’s.

A
  • 2 to 4 gallons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TB #49 - What is the primary use for PCB’s?

A
  • Insulating oil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

TB #49 - PCB’s are not required to have placards under DOT. They are labeled with a ___ x ___ inch yellow and black sign.

A
  • 2 x 2 inch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

TB #49 - Skin exposure to PCB’s will cause a rash known as “________.”

A
  • “Chloracne”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

TB #49 - PCB’s have a cumulative effect in the body and are retained in the _______, thymus, adrenal gland and the nervous system.

A
  • Fatty tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TB #49 - The EPA has classified the contamination levels of PCB transformers.

  • “PCB Transformers” - contains _____ ppm or higher of PCB’s.
  • “PCB - Contaminated Transformers” - Contains less than _____ ppm of PCB’s.
A
  • “PCB Tansformers” - 500 ppm
  • “PCB Contaminated Transformers” - 50 ppm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

TB #49 - Who will you contact for positive identification of PCB’s?

A
  • DWP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TB #53 - The minimum landing pad for an air ambulance is _____ x _____ feet. This may be on a rooftop or hilltop.

A
  • 25 x 25 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

TB #53 - The most desirable approach and departure angle for an air ambulance should be ______ degrees. It should not exceed _____ degrees if possible.

A
  • 20 degrees
  • 25 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TB #53 - The downwash from a helicopter can be up to _____ MPH.

A
  • 50 MPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TB #53 - The tail rotor from a helicopter is _____ times faster than the main rotor.

A
  • 9 times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

TB #53 - During an air ambulance operation, all personnel should remain _____ feet away unless assigned.

A
  • 100 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TB #53 - The skids of a helicopter may spring out up to _____ inches.

A
  • 6 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

TB #53 - The primary air ambulance is Helicopter #____.

A
  • Helicopter #1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

TB #53 - The secondary air ambulances are Helicopter #____ or #_____.

A
  • Helicopter #2 or #3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

TB #53 - What size protection hose line should be layed out while preparing for an air ambulance?

A
  • 1-1/2” hose line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

TB #53 - Normal staffing for an air ambulance is _____ pilot(s), _____ paramedic(s), ______ helitac personnel.

A
  • 2 pilots (tan suits)
  • 2 paramedics
  • 2 helitac personnel (orange suits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

TB #53 - An air ambulance should never be on the ground for longer than ____ to ____ minutes.

A
  • 2 to 3 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

TB #53 - An air ambulance can carry _____ litter patient(s) and up to ______ patients with prior notification.

A
  • 2 patients
  • 6 patients with prior notification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

TB #53 - The large helicopter has a body length of _____ feet.

A
  • 57 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

TB #53 - The main rotor diameter on the large helicopter is _____ feet.

A
  • 48 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

TB #53 - The suggested landing area size for an air ambulance is _____ x _____ feet.

A
  • 100 x 100 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

TB #54 - Where would you obtain a permit to construct a legal mezzanine?

A
  • Department of Building and Safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

TB #54 - Overloaded mezzanine conditions should be treated as immediate ____________.

A
  • Life hazards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

TB #54 - Who shall be notified if mezzanines used for storage have no sprinklers or have too much weight without adequate support?

A
  • FPB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

TB #54 - When the total area of a mezzanine floor exceeds _____ percent of the total floor area in that room, it shall be considered as an additional “story” in the building.

A
  • 33-1/3 percent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

TB #54 - There are no limits to how many mezzanines are within a room. There shall be not more than _____ level(s) of mezzanines in a room.

A
  • 2 levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

TB #54 - The height above and below a mezzanine shall not be less than ____ feet.

A
  • 7 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

TB #54 -The construction of a mezzanine shall be consistent with the building construction. The fire-resistive time period need not exceed _____ hour(s) for unenclosed mezzanines.

A
  • 1 hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

TB #54 - The open side of a mezzanine shall be unobstructed except for columns, posts and protective walls, or railings not more than _____ inches in height.

A
  • 42 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

TB #54 - (Mezzanines) The partitioning “exception” may be installed, provided the floor area of the enclosed space does not exceed ____% of the area of the mezzanine or have an occupant load exceeding ____, whichever is greater.

A
  • 10%
  • 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

TB #54 - Two exits are required on mezzanines when the occupant load is greater than _____ or when the mezzanine exceeds _______ sq feet.

A
  • 10
  • 2,000 sq feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

TB #55 - On the 4” supply hose, what type of material is used for the “warp” yarns?

A
  • Polyester = “warp” yarns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

TB #55 - On the 4” supply hose, what type of material is used for the “woof” yarns?

A
  • Nylon = “woof” yarns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

TB #55 - The extrusion process used to eliminate de-lamination found in layered hoses is called “__________.”

A
  • “Through the weave”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

TB #55 - A 50’ section of 4” supply hose weighs ______ pounds.

A
  • 49 pounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

TB #55 - 4” supply hose friction factors - 100 ft increments

  • 1 line =
  • 2 lines =
A
  • 1 line = 11
  • 2 lines = 42
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

TB #55 - The burst pressure for 4” supply hose is ______ PSI.

A
  • 750 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

TB #55 - The acceptance pressure for 4” supply hose is ______ PSI.

A
  • 500 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

TB #55 - The service test pressure for 4” supply hose is ______ PSI.

A
  • 300 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

TB #55 - The kink proof pressure for 4” supply hose is ______ PSI.

A
  • 375 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

TB #55 - If 4” supply hose has to be driven over, drive over the hose at a _____ degree angle.

A
  • 45 degree
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

TB #55 - Stencil station numbers on 4” supply hose with _____ inch stencils located _____ inch(s) from both couplings.

A
  • 1-1/2” stencils
  • 6” from couplings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

TB #55 - 4” supply hose is tested annually, new, and after repaired. Test _____ feet on one outlet for ____ minutes. When complete, journal entry and forward a F-_____.

A
  • 300 feet
  • 5 minutes
  • F-129
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

TB #55 - If trying to move 4” supply hose, grasp the line from the _______ of the curve to lift using a “hose grip.”

A
  • Outside curve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

TB #55 - When removing kinks in 4” hose, pressure will make it _________.

A
  • Worse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

TB #56 -The most common radiation accident involves _________ radioactive sources used in industrial radiography or nondestructive testing.

A
  • Sealed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

TB #56 - The US Government has authority over all radiological incidents. This authority is delegated to the State of California by agreement. This authority is further delegated from the State to ___________________.

A
  • Los Angeles County Department of Health Services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

TB #56 - Dosimeters should be checked each _____ minute(s).

A
  • 15 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

TB #56 - There are two categories of radiation. What category causes no damage?

A
  • Non-ionizing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

TB #56 - Exposure control principles are based on consideration of four radiation protection factors that alter radiation dose…

      1. 4.
A
  • Time
  • Distance
  • Shielding
  • Quantity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

TB #56 - The term “____________” refers to the uptake of radioactive materials by body cells, tissues, and target organs such as bone, liver, thyroid, or kidney.

A
  • “Incorporation”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

TB #56 - Which type of ionizing radiation will not penetrate skin?

A
  • Alpha
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

TB #56 - Standard size radioactive warning placards are ____ x ____ inches. They are required when transporting yellow-____-labeled packages.

A
  • 10” x 10”
  • Yellow-III
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

TB #56 - Which type of ionizing radiation is high speed with moderate penetration?

A
  • Beta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

TB #56 - Which type of ionizing radiation is the most penetrating and can travel many meters in the air, and centimeters in tissue?

A
  • Gamma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

TB #56 - Standard size labels for radioactive packages are ____ x ____ inches.

A
  • 4 x 4 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

TB #56 - The basic unit of measurement for radiation exposure is a ____________.

A
  • Roentgen (R)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

TB #56 - Radiation delivered for short periods of a week or less is considered ________ exposure.

A
  • Acute exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

TB #56 - Radiation over long periods over years or a lifetime is considered ________ exposure.

A
  • Chronic exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

TB #56 - When dealing with patients who have been exposed to radiation, notify the ER ASAP so they can prepare the “radiation emergecy area” (REA). This prep takes ____ to ____ minutes.

A
  • 20 to 30 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

TB #56 - The CD V-700 radiation monitor is a primary tool. It’s for background use and has a max reading of ____ mR/hr. This monitor takes _____ second(s) to warm up.

A
  • 50 mR/hr
  • 30 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

TB #56 - When using the CD V-700 radiation monitor, how close do you hold it to people when checking for exposure?

A
  • 1 inch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

TB #56 - Radiation protection action guide (PAG’s) for the general population is _____ R/hr.

A
  • 1/2 R/hr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

TB #56 - The CD V-715 radiation monitor is a high-range gamma ray tool. It is not used for background use. This tool takes ____ minute(s) to warm up.

A
  • 2 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

TB #56 - Dosimeters measure _______ radiation exposure. They are also known as pocket chambers, pocket dosimeters, and pencil dosimeters.

A
  • Gamma radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

TB #56 - Radiation protection action guide (PAG’s) for emergency workers and firefighters is _____ R/hr.

A
  • 25 R/hr
108
Q

TB #56 - The CD V-138 radiation dosimeter is used for _____ levels of radiation up to _____ mR.

A
  • Low levels
  • 200 mR
109
Q

TB #56 - What special radio does the emergency sedan have that is assigned to the Disaster Prepareness Office?

A
  • Civil defense radio
110
Q

TB #56 - Radiation protection action guide (PAG’s) for life saving activities is _____ to _____ R/hr.

A
  • 75 to 100 R/hr
111
Q

TB #56 - No deaths have occurred for radiation body exposure under ______ R/hr.

A
  • 200 R/hr
112
Q

TB #56 - There are two categories of radiation. What category causes body damage?

A
  • Ionizing
113
Q

TB #56 - The CD V-742 radiation dosimeter is used for ______ levels of radiation up to ______ R.

A
  • High
  • 200 R
114
Q

TB #57 - What agency is responsible for the “Emergency Broadcast” during evacuations?

A
  • LA County Sheriffs
115
Q

TB #57 - LA Unified Schools and RTD need an estimate of the number of evacuees. They can have buses at collection points in _____ minute(s).

A
  • 45 minutes
116
Q

TB #57 - Who is responsible for establishing and announcing the boundaries of evacuation areas?

A
  • Incident Commander
117
Q

TB #57 - Past experience in evacuations nationwide indicates that approximately _____% of all persons being evacuated as the result of an emergency incident used their private automobiles.

A
  • 65%
118
Q

TB #57 - During evacuations, the most important consideration is ________.

A
  • Safety
119
Q

TB #57 - At evacuation centers, specific functions, such as feeding, clothing, and other personal services will most likely be provided by the _________ or the _________.

A
  • American Red Cross
  • Salvation Army
120
Q

TB #57 - What department has the primary authority for coordinating evacuation centers?

A
  • Department of Recreation and Parks
121
Q

TB #57 - Regarding evacuations, all LAUSD high schools have a kitchen and a _____ day food supply.

A
  • 3 day
122
Q

TB #57 - What are the three types of evacuations?

    1. 3.
A
  1. Shelter in place
  2. Voluntary evacuation
  3. Mandatory evacuation
123
Q

TB #58 - What percentage of learning is achieved through sight?

A
  • 85%
124
Q

TB #58 - For an oral presentation, the 3 hour retention percentage is _____%, and 3 day retention is _____%.

A
  • 3 hour - 70%
  • 3 day - 10%
125
Q

TB #58 - For a demonstration alone, the 3 hour retention percentage is _____%, and 3 day retention is _____%.

A
  • 3 hour - 72%
  • 3 day - 20%
126
Q

TB #58 - For an oral and demonstration, the 3 hour retention percentage is _____%, and 3 day retention is _____%.

A
  • 3 hour - 85%
  • 3 day - 50%
127
Q

TB #58 - The average span of learning is ____ to ____ minutes uninterrupted.

A
  • 45 to 50 minutes
128
Q

TB #58 - Instructors will spend _____ hour(s) of organizing and planning for every _____ hour(s) of instruction.

A
  • 2 hours (organizing)
  • 1 hour (of instructing)
129
Q

TB #58 - Learning is often enhanced by the progressive “_________” method.

A
  • “Step by step” method
130
Q

TB #59 - Currently, in the County of Los Angeles, there are only two approved and acceptable forms of painful stimuli that can be used in the prehospital setting. These methods are…

  1. 2.
A
  • Inter-digital pressure
  • Slight pressure on the nail bed
131
Q

TB #59 - The easiest and perhaps safest way to elicit a painful response in an altered patient is to exert pressure on _______.

A
  • Nerves
132
Q

TB #60 - Methanol-air mixtures containing more than _____% volume do not flash because these mixtures are too rich to burn.

A
  • 36%
133
Q

TB #60 - The flash point of methanol is _____ degrees F.

A
  • 52 degrees F
134
Q

TB #60 - Regarding methanol, what body part is at the greatest danger and risk if exposed?

A
  • The eyes
135
Q

TB #60 - How many times greater are methanol fuels tanks versus the size on gas vehicles?

A
  • Twice
136
Q

TB #60 - RTD buses use two _____ pound Halon extinguishers.

A
  • 20 pound
137
Q

TB #60 - The vapor density of methanol is ______ times the denisty of air.

A
  • 1.11 times
138
Q

TB #60 - On RTD buses, the first Halon extinguisher activates with a sensor, and the second sensor deploys _____ second(s) later.

A
  • 15 seconds
139
Q

TB #60 - Methanol is not gasohol. Gasohol is gasoline that contains ____% to ____% methanol or ethanol.

A
  • 1%
  • 10%
140
Q

TB #60 - Methanol is flammable even when it is mixed with _____ part(s) water to _____ part(s) methanol.

A
  • 5 parts water
  • 1 part methanol
141
Q

TB #60 - Methonal is in the _______ chemical family.

A
  • Alcohol
142
Q

TB #60 - At ordinary room temperatures, the evaporation of methanol creates a potentially explosive methanol-air mixture when the methanol content reaches _____% volume.

A
  • 6%
143
Q

TB #61 - Most industrial scrubbers are found on _______.

A
  • Roofs
144
Q

TB #61 - What is the importance of recognizing a “scrubber system?”

  • It informs personnel of __________.
A
  • It informs personnel of a potential Haz/Mat in progress
145
Q

TB #62 - The measurements for a single layer high rise hose pack are ____” x ____” (tall x wide)

A
  • 40” x 22” (tall x wide)
146
Q

TB #62 - The measurements for a double layer high rise hose pack are ____” x ____” (tall x wide)

A
  • 32” x 16” (tall x wide)
147
Q

TB #62 - The high rise hose pack pig tail assembly consists of….

  • ____ ft section - 2-1/2” hose pig tail
  • ____ ladder strap(s)
  • 2-1/2” _____ degree elbow
  • ____” to ____” gated wye
  • Lightweight folding spanner
A
  • 8 ft section - 2-1/2” hose pig tail
  • 2 ladder straps
  • 2-1/2”, 60 degree elbow
  • 2-1/2” to 1-1/2” gated wye
  • Lightweight folding spanner
148
Q

TB #62 - The annual service test for 2” high rise hose is _____ PSI.

A
  • 300 PSI
149
Q

TB #62 - The single layer high rise hose pack is _____ inch(s) taller than the double layer.

A
  • 8 inches
150
Q

TB #62 - When assembling the 2” high rise hose pack, start by placing the female coupling of the first section _____ inch(s) below the gauge of the SCBA bottle.

A
  • 10 inches
151
Q

TB #62 - When assembling the 2” high rise hose pack, place a ladder strap on each side _____ inch(s) above the bottom of the pack.

A
  • 8 inches
152
Q

TB #62 - The primary objective for the first fire attack company is to get _____ hose line(s) into operation.

A
  • 1 hose line
153
Q

TB #62 - A high rise hose pack consists of:

  • ____ section(s) of 50 ft - 2” hose
  • ____ ladder strap(s)
  • ____” to ____” reducer
  • ____ GPM nozzle
A
  • 2 sections of 50 ft - 2” hose
  • 5 ladder straps
  • 2-1/2” to 1-1/2” reducer
  • 200 GPM nozzle
154
Q

TB #62 - There are three types of water systems based upon the year the building was built. You may find 2-1/2” hose cabinets in stairwells above the _____ floor.

A
  • 4th floor
155
Q

TB #62 - 2” high rise hose can be bent within _____ inch(s) before it will kink.

A
  • 12 inches
156
Q

TB #62 - Orifice plates don’t regulate pressure, they only restrict flow. Failure to remove the orifice plate will limit you to _____ GPM at _____ PSI residual pressure.

A
  • 200 GPM
  • 50 PSI
157
Q

TB #62 - Complete 2” high rise hose packs weigh _____ pounds compared to the old 2-1/2” hose which weighed 64 pounds.

A
  • 38 pounds
158
Q

TB #62 - Buildings built between 1960 to 1974 will have what type of standpipe system?

A
  • Combination (Class III)
159
Q

TB #62 - After removing an orifice plate, how many turns do you open the gate valve?

A
  • 1-1/2 turns
160
Q

TB #62 - On new construction, you may find orifice plates on the top ____ to ____ floors where the water system falls below _____ PSI.

A
  • 6 to 8 top floors
  • 150 PSI
161
Q

TB #62 - The pigail from the high rise hose pack weighs _____ pounds.

A
  • 10 pounds
162
Q

TB #62 - PRV’s are used in Combined Standpipe Sprinkler Systems when the pressure exceeds _____ PSI.

A
  • 150 PSI
163
Q

TB #63 - In high rise buildings over ______ stories or the system pressure at the FDC is over ______ PSI, another apparatus shall spot to the hydrant/4-way and pump half the system pressure to the apparatus supplying the FDC’s.

A
  • 20 stories
  • 250 PSI
164
Q

TB #63 - What member is responsible for supplying the water system at a high rise incident?

  1. 2.
A
  • 1st arriving 200 Series Engineer or
  • 2nd arriving Engine Engineer (if 2 single Engines arrive at same time)
165
Q

TB #63 - When pumping into high rise buildings, the 2-1/2” standpipe supply hose shall be strapped in 3 places when pumping over _____ PSI.

A
  • 300 PSI
166
Q

TB #63 - If there is a fire in a high rise, pump into the system ______ PSI below the system pressure as shown on FDC sign or on the calculated estimate.

A
  • 100 PSI below system pressure

This will allow the building fire pump to perform its designed function of supplying the system.

167
Q

TB #65 - LAFD uses the “Six Battery System” for heavy apparatus. How many batteries are used to start the diesel apparatus?

A
  • 5 batteries
168
Q

TB #65 - All apparatus have been installed with a “low voltage warning system.” An audible warning device activates anytime the batteries fall below ______ volt(s).

A
  • 12.2 volts
169
Q

TB #69 - The measurements for the K-12 Maxi-Force airbag is 7/8” x ____” x ____.”

A
  • 7/8” x 15” x 15”
170
Q

TB #69 - The K-12 Maxi-Force airbag is capable of a _____ inch lift.

A
  • 8 inch
171
Q

TB #69 - To test the Maxi-Force airbag for leaks, inflate the airbag to ____ PSI and place into water or soap solution. If it leaks, forward to _______.

A
  • 30 PSI
  • S&M
172
Q

TB #69 - Both the K-12 and K-22 Maxiforce airbags are pressure tested at ______ PSI.

A
  • 236 PSI
173
Q

TB #69 - Small cuts in the Maxi-Force airbags are repaired with ________. Large cuts will be tagged with a F-175 and sent to S&M.

A
  • Rubber cement
174
Q

TB #69 - (Maxi-Force) Set the high pressure regulator ____ to ____ PSI to provide a working pressure of ____ PSI at the dual safety relief control valve.

A
  • 125 to 135 PSI
  • 118 PSI
175
Q

TB #69 - The K-12 Maxi-Force airbag has a burst pressure of _____ PSI.

A
  • 700 PSI
176
Q

TB #69 - The large Maxi-Force airbags are rated at _____ ton(s).

A
  • 22 tons
177
Q

TB #69 - The measurements for the K-22 Maxi-Force airbag is 7/8” x ____” x ____”

A
  • 7/8” x 20” x 20”
178
Q

TB #69 - The Maxi-Force lifting bags are constructed of neoprene rubber compounds encasing ________ cords.

A
  • Kevlar
179
Q

TB #69 - The K-22 Maxi-Force airbag is capable of a _____ inch lift.

A
  • 10 inch lift
180
Q

TB #69 - The burst pressure for the K-22 Maxi-Force airbag is ______ PSI.

A
  • 600 PSI
181
Q

TB #69 - The Maxi-Force airbags are rated up to _____ inch(s) of lifting capability.

A
  • 1 inch
182
Q

TB #69 - Do not use Maxi-Force airbags on any object hotter than _____ degrees.

A
  • 220 degrees
183
Q

TB #69 - Minimum cribbing is….

  • (4) ___” x ___” x 2’
  • (2) ___” x ___” plywood
  • ( ) wedges
A
  • (4) 4” x 6” x 2’
  • (2) 24” x 24” plywood
  • (4) wedges
184
Q

TB #69 - Don’t inflate the Maxi-Force airbags greater than ____ PSI without a load.

A
  • 30 PSI
185
Q

TB #69 - The Maxi-Force airbag hoses are red, yellow, green, and blue. They are ____ feet long and have a working pressure of _____ PSI.

A
  • 16 feet
  • 250 PSI
186
Q

TB #69 - (Maxi-Force) When attaching the high pressure regulator to the SCBA bottle, the last _____ turn should be accomplished by turning both.

A
  • Last 1/4 turn
187
Q

TB #69 - The small Maxi-Force air bag is rated at ______ ton(s).

A
  • 12 tons
188
Q

TB #71 - After a major disaster, neighborhoods may need to rely on themselves during the first ____ to ____ hours.

A
  • 24 to 72 hours
189
Q

TB #71 - After a major disaster, light rescue may be performed by spontanteous volunteers. It is estimated that ____% to ____% are rescued during this phase. Evidence indicates it may be as high as ____% as reported in a 1980 Italy earthquake.

A
  • 80% to 90%
  • 97%
190
Q

TB #71 - Volunteers trained by the fire department are part of what team?

A
  • CERT - Communtiy Emergency Response Team
191
Q

TB #71 - The first phase of any major disaster event is characterized by the emergence of “__________.”

A
  • “Spontaneous volunteers”
192
Q

TB #71 - A volunteer who appears at the scene of a disaster, not as part of any organized response effort, and whose skill level is unknown is called a _________.

A
  • Convergent volunteer
193
Q

TB #71 - The CERT training program consists of classes that are ______ hour(s) long. These class sessions are spread over _____ week(s).

A
  • 2-1/2 hour
  • 7 weeks
194
Q

TB #71 - A volunteer who is part of an organized effort and has been trained to a specified level (i.e., a member of the City’s CERT) is called an _________.

A
  • Organized volunteer
195
Q

TB #71 - The IC will be aware of the ICS provisions for a “Volunteer Coordinator.” What packet is this found in?

A
  • Evacuation ICS packet
196
Q

TB #71 - According to TB #71, there are _____ types of volunteers.

A
  • 2 types
197
Q

TB #71 - Upon the completion of the CERT training course, members will be “Registered _______________.” This gives an additional umbrella of insurance provided through the State Workers Compensation Insurance Fund.

A
  • “Registered Disaster Service Workers”
198
Q

TB #71 - What type of rescue is characterized by the rescue of injured, but not trapped, or the rescue from lightly damaged structures where entrapment is caused by the building contents?

A
  • Light rescue
199
Q

TB #71 - Every City facility housing _____ or more City employees shall have a Building Emergency Coordinator (BEC).

A
  • 10 or more
200
Q

TB #71 - History shows from other disasters that firefighters should be able to coordinate ____ to ____ civilians, and perform some tasks or assignments.

A
  • 5 to 8 civilians
201
Q

TB #72 - The V-Vac will easily allow _____ inch particles to pass through the tip.

A
  • 1/2 inch (12 mm)
202
Q

TB #72 - (V-Vac) The pharynx (throat) is a _____ inch tubular passage.

A
  • 5 inch
203
Q

TB #72 - The shelf life for the V-Vac is _____ year(s).

A
  • 5 years
204
Q

TB #72 - The V-Vac weighs less than _____ pound(s) and has a disposable cartridge of _____ ml.

A
  • 1 pound
  • 425 ml
205
Q

TB #72 - The V-Vac has three adjustable stroke stops:

  • Front (nozzle end) - ______ mm Hg
  • Middle - ______ mm Hg
  • Rear - ______ mm Hg
A
  • Front - 250 mm Hg
  • Middle - 185 mm Hg
  • Rear - 120 mm Hg
206
Q

TB #72 - When using the V-Vac, use slow steady strokes of ___ to ___ seconds in length. The longest stroke position will draw _____ ml of fluid into cartridge.

A
  • 1 to 2 seconds
  • 150 ml
207
Q

TB #73 - For personnel safety on dangerous calls, it is bettter to use stairs instead of elevators. If the elevators must be used, what floor should you exit?

A
  • Floor below incident
208
Q

TB #73 - If an assailant has a knife, you should move ________ away from them to escape.

A
  • Move laterally
209
Q

TB #73 - Considering safety for personnel, what is considered the safest room in a house?

A
  • Living rooms
210
Q

TB #73 - Which room in a house are guns most likely to be stored?

A
  • Bedrooms
211
Q

TB #73 - On the scene of an emergency while approuching a house, consider listening at the door and not knocking for _____ second(s).

A
  • 10 seconds
212
Q

TB #73 - When a hostile condition develops and attempting to leave the scene may incite hostility, consider using preplanned “__________.”

A
  • “Words of warning”
213
Q

TB #73 - According to personnel safety measures, when knocking on a door and you are told to enter, you should ask ___________.

A
  • Ask them to come to the door
214
Q

TB #74 - The key element when using the 1” hose line for search and rescue is effective ___________.

A
  • Radio communications
215
Q

TB #74 - For RIC operations, rescue teams will have _____ member(s).

A
  • 3 members

DISCREPANCY

TB #76 - 2 members

216
Q

TB #74 - While using a 1 inch hose for RIC operations, a 5/8” shut off butt only, no tip, will deliver _____ GPM.

A
  • 65 GPM
217
Q

TB #74 - For RIC operations, there is a _____ team minimum.

A
  • 2 team minimum
218
Q

TB #74 - If there are multiple entry points, RIC teams will be numbered according to the entry points (Team 1, 2, 3). Back up teams will be given a ________ designation.

A
  • Letter designation (Team 1a, 2a, 3a)
219
Q

TB #74 - When using a 1 inch hose for RIC operations, load the hose and pump _____ to _____ PSI.

A
  • 200 - 250 PSI
220
Q

TB #75 - During an explosion, gases can travel at ______ MPH or ______ feet per second.

A
  • 13,000 MPH
  • 29,900 ft per second
221
Q

TB #75 - After a major explosion, additional requested companies should stage ____ mile(s) from the explosion site.

A
  • 1/4 mile
222
Q

TB #75 - When responding to a bomb incident or investigation, a perimeter of ______ feet should be established. No communication devices (radios, cell phones) shall be used within _____ feet.

A
  • 1000 feet
  • 200 feet
223
Q

TB #75 - An IED may be powered with what size battery?

A
  • 9 volt
224
Q

TB #75 - The FBI Bomb Data Center estimates that ____% of all terrorist incidents include explosives and incendiary agents.

A
  • 70%
225
Q

TB #75 - If a suspicious device is located, a perimeter of at least _____ feet will be established. No one, including LAFD personnel, should be allowed in this area.

A
  • 300 feet
226
Q

TB #75 - An explosion is a sudden and rapid escape of gases from a confined space, accompanied by high heat, loud noise and violent shockwave. Gases can exert ______ tons sq inch.

A
  • 700 tons sq inch
227
Q

TB #75 - How many feet away should a Command Post and Medical Group be established on bomb incidents?

A
  • 1000 feet
228
Q

TB #75 - The fire department’s authority to close an area and order an evacuation is found in the Penal Code and ________.

A
  • Fire Code
229
Q

TB #76 - Minimum staffing standards are found in NFPA ______.

A
  • NFPA 1710
230
Q

TB #76 - NFPA ______ - Emergency Incident Management System

A
  • NFPA 1561
231
Q

TB #76 - NFPA ______ - Organization & Deployment of Fire Suppression

A
  • NFPA 1710
232
Q

TB #76 - The Apparatus Roster System (magnetic name tags) would fall under NFPA _______.

A
  • NFPA 1500
233
Q

TB #76 - After the first on scene officer has established command of the incident, how far away will subsequent arriving resources stage?

A
  • 1 block away
234
Q

TB #76 - When shall Department IC’s designate at least one RIC team?

A
  • Upon the arrival of additional resources above the original structure assignment
235
Q

TB #76 - NFPA 1710 recommends that Truck Company staffing levels are ____ member(s).

A
  • Truck = 5 members
236
Q

TB #76 - During a Light Force operation, as soon as command is transferred to a Chief Officer, the Light Force officer will assist __________ until released or reassigned.

A
  • Assist the Incident Commander
237
Q

TB #76 - On a high rise incident, the fire attack team will be a minimum of ______ member(s).

A
  • 4 members
238
Q

TB #76 - The first five minutes of an incident are more important than the next _____ hour(s).

A
  • Next 5 hours
239
Q

TB #76 - What symbol does the IC use on the F-666 when they receive verification of the resource assignment?

A
  • Circle
240
Q

TB #76 - How many of a two member back up team outside the IDLH may be engaged in other duties?

A
  • 1 member
241
Q

TB #76 - Who shall ensure magnetic nametags are updated?

A
  • Officers
242
Q

TB #76 - RIC teams will consist of a least ____ member(s).

A
  • 2 members

DISCREPANCY

TB #74 - states 3 members

243
Q

TB #76 - On the F-666, the IC will draw a “____” over the previous responsible resource when there is a re-assignment.

A
  • “X”
244
Q

TB #76 - NFPA _______ - Occupational Safety & Health Program

A
  • NFPA 1500
245
Q

TB #76 - NFPA ______ provides for one individual to assume the role of IC from the start of operations.

A
  • NFPA 1561
246
Q

TB #77 - For live fire training, only hand lines of _____ GPM or larger are allowed.

A
  • 100 GPM
247
Q

TB #77 - For field personnel, live fire training approval is obtained from ________.

A
  • BES
248
Q

TB #77 - When getting approval for recruit training sessions for live fire training, this must be obtained from the Assistant Bureau Commander, Bureau of __________.

A
  • Bureau of Human Resources
249
Q

TB #77 - For live fire training, only Class “___” materials, such as pine excelsior, wooden pallets, straw, paper, and other ordinary combustibles shall be used as fuel.

A
  • Class “A”
250
Q

TB #77 - During live fire training, the crew or company size cannot exceed ______ member(s). This also includes the officer/instructor.

A
  • 5 members
251
Q

TB #77 - “Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions” is NFPA _______.

A
  • NFPA 1403
252
Q

TB #77 -The Primary instructor designated by the Department to be “Instructor-in-Charge” during live fire training is the _________.

A
  • Training Officer
253
Q

TB #77 - Training center burn structures shall be visually inspected for damage prior to live fire training evolutions. The structural integrity of the building should be evaluated and documented at least _______ or more.

A
  • Annually
254
Q

TB #77 - Prior to conducting live fire training in a vacant structure, the owner must provide the Training Officer with a demolition permit issued by __________.

A
  • Department of Building and Safety
255
Q

TB #77 - When planning for live fire training, what section do you coordinate your planning activities with?

A
  • In-Service Training Section
256
Q

TB #78 - The affects of pepper spray last approximately ____ minute(s).

A
  • 5 minutes
257
Q

TB #78 - First aid for exposure to “Oleo Resin Capsicum” (Pepper Spray) is checking vital signs, flush with water, and application of cool ________.

A
  • Cool wet pads
258
Q

TB #78 - Oleo Resin Capsicum is pepper spray. It is referred to as “OC” and is a derivative from _________.

A
  • Cayenne pepper
259
Q

TB #78 - The straight stream range for pepper spray is _____ feet.

A
  • 25 feet
260
Q

TB #78 - The mist or fog pattern range for pepper spray is ___ ft x ___ ft.

A
  • 6 ft x 3 ft
261
Q

TB #80 - The nylon utility strap is ____ feet long and ____ inch(s) wide.

A
  • 12 feet long
  • 1 inch wide
262
Q

TB #80 - The nylon utlility strap is rated at _______ pound(s).

A
  • 4000 pounds
263
Q

TB #80 - The “Overhand follow through” knot is also known as the ________.

A
  • Water knot
264
Q

TB #80 - The “Ring hitch” knot is also known as a _________.

A
  • Larks foot
265
Q

TB #80 - To make a hose harness using the nylon utility strap, place a “ring hitch” ____ to ____ feet behind the nozzle. Then place a “half-hitch” approximately ____ to ____ inches on the nozzle side of the “ring-hitch” knot.

A
  • 5 to 6 feet
  • 2 to 3 inches
266
Q

TB #80 - What do you wash the nylon utility strap with?


  1. 2.
A
  • Dish soap
  • Warm water