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Vadukul - Captain Study Program > Training Bulletins 121 -145 > Flashcards

Training Bulletins 121 -145 Flashcards

1
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) Always be concerned whenever the combative, violent patient suddenly becomes _______ and ________.

A
  • Quiet and silent

This may indicate a compromised airway.

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2
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) Patients placed in restraints shall never be transported and placed in the ______ position.

A
  • Prone position (never)
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3
Q

TB #121 - When the patient is wearing the Tranzport Hood, what piece of equipment shall be continuously used and documented?

A
  • Pulse oximeter
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4
Q

TB #121 - When used correctly, the Tranzport Hood’s medical __________ fabric helps to contain contaminants.

A
  • Filtration fabric
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5
Q

TB #121 - How many sizes does the Tranzport Hood come in?

A
  • “One size fits all”
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6
Q

TB #121 - The Tranzport Hood is a temporary, _________ protective hood that can be deployed.

A
  • Disposable
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7
Q

TB #121 - In every instance where the Tranzport Hood is employed, who do you requested to respond to the scene?

  1. 2.
A
  • Law enforcement
  • EMS Battalion Captain
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8
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) The remarks in your medical report must include the _______ of application and that the patient was under constant supervision and being continually _________.

A
  • Time of application
  • Reassessed
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9
Q

TB #121 - For optimum protection, place the Tranzport Hood over the head of the individual with the mesh fabric covering only their ______ and the top of their head.

A
  • Eyes
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10
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) The filtration fabric shall cover the lower half of the face below the ________.

A
  • Nostrils
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11
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) Either an ______ mask, one-piece surgical mask/face shield, or ______ mask should be the primary devices used to control exposure from a patient that is spitting, sneezing, or coughing.

A
  • N95
  • O2 mask
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12
Q

TB #121 - Regarding the use of the Tranzport hood, what shall be clearly documented in the comments section of the F-902M regarding the Tranzport Hood?

A
  • Rationale for use
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13
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) To ensure proper fit, the upper elastic band separating the mesh fabric from the filtration fabric will go just above the _______.

A
  • Nose
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14
Q

TB #121 - When applying the Tranzport Hood, carefully push the _______ plastic secure-lock tab down toward the top of the head while holding the top of the mesh fabric.

A
  • White
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15
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) Patients who require physical restraint are often under the influence of illicit drugs and are at risk of sudden decompensation and __________ collapse.

A
  • Cardiovascular collapse
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16
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) The Hood should never be uncomfortable or impair the patient’s ________.

A
  • Vision
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17
Q

TB #121 - (Tranzport Hood) When patients are placed in restraints, what position shall they be transported in?

A
  • Left lateral decubitus
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18
Q

TB #122 - The “Heavy Lift Gurney” is secured inside the Rescue with a hold-down track system called a Stat Trac. Use the supplied ___________ wrench to unscrew the four bolts securing the standard gurney.

A
  • T-handle allen wrench
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19
Q

TB #122 - (Heavy Lift Gurney) The Transfer-Flat is designed to facilitate easy transfer for any size patient. The flat is 108 x 60 inches and is made of 23 oz. vinyl construction with ____ inch polyester reinforcement webbing.

A
  • 2 inch webbing
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20
Q

TB #122 - (Heavy Lift Gurney) The Transfer-Flat has _____ rigid lift handle(s) with heavy-duty handle reinforcement patches. Maximum weight capacity is ______ pounds with the weight of the flat being _____ pounds.

A
  • 12 handles
  • 1600 pounds
  • 10 pounds

The flexible material facilitates easy transfer for any size patient, is high visibility yellow in color and rolls into compact storage size with convenient carry handle.

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21
Q

TB #122 - Paramedics normally staff the “Heavy Lift Gurney” Rescue. When arriving onscene, who assumes patient care if the patient needs additional ALS support?

A
  • Onscene paramedics

In such instances, the on scene paramedics will accompany their patient to the receiving facility. If the transferred patient is a BLS patient, the “Heavy Lift Gurney” paramedics will assume patient care and the appropriate resources will meet the transporting resource at the receiving facility.

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22
Q

TB #122 - The “Heavy Lift Gurney” can carry a maximum patient load of ______ pounds in the lowest position.

A
  • 1000 pounds (lowest)
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23
Q

TB #122 - The Ferno PRO Flexx Model 93-PST is the “Heavy Lift Gurney.” The gurney has _____ position level(s) for ease of patient movement.

A
  • 5 position levels
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24
Q

TB #122 - The Stryker Transfer-Flat is used with the Heavy Lift Gurney. What color is it?

A
  • Yellow

The flexible material facilitates easy transfer for any size patient, is high visibility yellow in color and rolls into compact storage size with convenient carry handle.

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25
Q

TB #122 - (Heavy Lift Gurney) Additional Department resources should be requested when Department personnel feel that the patient exceeds the weight limit of our standard gurneys which is ______ pounds.

A
  • 400 pounds
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26
Q

TB #122 - (Heavy Lift Gurney) How many members does it take to align the gurney prior to loading in the back of the Rescue?

A
  • 2 members
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27
Q

TB #122 - The “Heavy Lift Gurney” can carry a maximum patient load of ______ pounds in the upright position.

A
  • 650 pounds (upright)
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28
Q

TB #122 - The “Heavy Lift Gurney” is equipped with a Large Body Surface (LBS) accessory. The LBS provides a wider bed surface of _____ inches. The LBS offers the maximum patient surface possible while still allowing the gurney to fit through a standard 36 inch doorway.

A
  • 33-3/4 inches
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29
Q

TB #123 - RF Radiation is emitted by radio transmitters and can be harmful in _____ dose intervals.

A
  • High dose
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30
Q

TB #123 - A “Type ___” radar antenna has a rotating external visible antenna. If the antenna is rotating, the system is active. “Only become exposed as long it takes to walk by, and walk as far away as possible”.

A
  • Type 1
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31
Q

TB #123 - Regarding radio frequency, what are the different types of radiation?

    1. 3.
A
  • Solar
  • Nuclear
  • RF Radiation

RF Radiation is emitted by radio transmitters and can be harmful in high dose intervals. The danger of RF Radiation is caused by the intense energy emitted by high power radio transmitters. It is important for members to be able to recognize Cellular, Microwave, Satellite and Radar antennas in order to work safely around them. In addition, the ability to recognize the potential danger of RF (Radio Frequency) Radiation is vitally important to member safety as well as how to minimize exposure to RF Radiation.

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32
Q

TB #123 - Radar installations in civilian buildings are uncommon. Most radar installations are in the vicinity of ________ or ________ installations, or contractors.

A
  • Airports
  • Military installations
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33
Q

TB #123 - Cellular antennas on towers pose little exposure to members because they are usually elevated approximately ____ feet above the ground.

A
  • 60 feet
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34
Q

TB #123 - A “Type ___” radar antenna has the rotating portion of the antenna in a dome making activity determination difficult. These domes can emit very large amounts of RF radiation and can be potentially life-threatening to approach them if they are active.

A
  • Type 2
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35
Q

TB #123 - There is minimal RF exposure to the member when the hand held radio is held properly with the antenna tip at least ____ inches from the _____.

A
  • 6 inches
  • Eye
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36
Q

TB #124 - The Fasplint conforms to the exact shape of the injury site and doesn’t apply any unnecessary pressure. This reduces the potential for ___________ syndrome or impairment of circulation.

A
  • Compartment Syndrome

This system allows for the joints above and below the injury to be immobilized.

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37
Q

TB #124 - The Vac-U-Splint Fasplint is constructed using laminated _______ and _______ which is impermeable to water, blood, or any other body fluid.

A
  • Nylon
  • Vinyl
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38
Q

TB #124 - The Fasplints should be cleaned with a ____% bleach solution, as per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s guidelines.

A
  • 1% bleach solution

1% solution can be used without damaging the material. They can also be cleaned with soap and water, or any commercially available disinfectant. Prior to cleaning, the valve must be locked in the closed position. After washing, towel-dry the Fasplint and then hang it to air-dry.

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39
Q

TB #124 - (Fasplint) Check patient’s pulse, motor function and sensation distal to injury site and reevaluate every _____ minute(s) after the application of the splint.

A
  • 15 minutes
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40
Q

TB #124 - When using the Fasplint, pushing the valve stem in ________ the valve.

A
  • Closes the valve
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41
Q

TB #124 - Evaluate the extremity injury before applying the Fasplint. Assess the ______ neurologic and vascular status.

A
  • Distal
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42
Q

TB #124 - How many sizes do the Fasplints come in?

A
  • 3 sizes
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43
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) By law, all personnel who enter a mining (tunneling) site must wear a _____ hour self-rescue device to provide a means for escape from a hazardous non-breathable atmosphere.

A
  • 1 hour

When a compromised atmosphere is encountered, it is required that members don the self-rescue device and immediately exit the tunnel.

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44
Q

TB #126 - The Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension (MGLEE) will add twin tunnels that are _____ miles long from Boyle Avenue to Lorena Street.

A
  • 1.8 miles
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45
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Under the construction phase, the tunnel is equipped with 2-1/2 inch NST outlets every _____ feet.

A
  • 200 feet
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46
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) US&R entry teams are comprised of an even number of personnel (buddy system), usually ____ but never less than ____ members.

A
  • Usually 6
  • Not less than 4
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47
Q

TB #126 - (The Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) The ride time from Union Station to Atlantic Station will be ____ minute(s).

A
  • 17 minutes
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48
Q

TB #126 - During the Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension (MGLEE), excavation of earth is accomplished with a Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM), which is approximately 300 feet long and can tunnel up to _____ feet a day.

A
  • 100 feet a day
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49
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) All Fire personnel may enter a tunnel with a non-compromised atmosphere with oxygen levels between ___% to ___%.

A
  • 19.5% to 23%
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50
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) The Entry Coordinator physically controls who enters the tunnel. Who does the Entry Coordinator report to?

A
  • Tunnel Division
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51
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) US&R companies carry carts for supplied air that will supply _____ firefighter(s) at a time, each with their own colored air hose.

A
  • 5 firefighters
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52
Q

TB #126 - The Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension (MGLEE) will have a tunnel depth of _____ feet below grade and it is anticipated that during the tunneling operation pockets of methane gas will be encountered.

A
  • 40 feet
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53
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) All utilities (water, electrical and compressed air) will run the entire length of the tunnel. A ____ inch water supply system provides cooling for the TBM and water for firefighting operations.

A
  • 4 inch

This system is equipped with 2-1/2 inch NST outlets every 200 feet within the tunnel and a Fire Department connection located above ground next to the hydrant at Bailey Street and Pennsylvania Avenue (southwest corner).

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54
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Who maintains the “Recorder Form” for each entry team into the tunnel?

A
  • Entry Coordinator
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55
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Which available personnel from the first alarm assignment may establish Base?

A
  • Engineers
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56
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Compromised atmospheres are the greatest risk in tunnel construction. The tunnel has intrinsically safe fans rated at _______ CFM to provide ventilation and evacuate air from the tunnel through a ____ inch vent pipe.

A
  • 100,000 CFM fans
  • 72 inch vent pipe
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57
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Members entering a compromised atmosphere are limited to initial observation or atmospheric testing only. The working time is limited to ___ minute(s) working time with a 60 minute bottle and ___ minute(s) with a 45 minute bottle.

A
  • 12 minutes = 60 minute bottle
  • 9 minutes = 45 minute bottle

This allows sufficient air reserve to exit the tunnel. Entry into a tunnel with a known compromised atmosphere beyond initial observation or atmospheric testing is limited to US&R certified members only. They must utilize two-hour Biopack re-breather apparatus and take gas readings periodically while in the tunnel.

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58
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Entry into a tunnel with a known compromised atmosphere beyond initial observation or atmospheric testing is limited to US&R certified members only. They must utilize ____ hour Biopack re-breather apparatus and take gas readings periodically while in the tunnel.

A
  • 2 hour Biopack
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59
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Each Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) has a crew of approximately _____ miner(s) with additional personnel above ground.

A
  • 12 miners

During shift change, 35 to 40 personnel may be on-site. The hours of operation will vary, predicated on noise and traffic restrictions.

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60
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Extension) In a known compromised atmoshere, entry cannot exceed a distance of ______ feet.

A
  • 500 feet
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61
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Who designates the location of the Rehabilitation Unit?

A
  • Logistics
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62
Q

TB #126 - The Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension (MGLEE) will add ____ mile(s) of light rail service. This includes _____ station(s) with two being underground.

A
  • 6 miles
  • 8 stations
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63
Q

TB #126 - (Metro Gold Line Eastside Extension) Tunnel Division will ensure that all emergency operations are discontinued and the tunnel evacuated should the tunnel atmosphere meet or exceed ____% Lower Explosive Limit (LEL).

A
  • 20% LEL
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64
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Which document shall be completed everytime after cleaning but before inspecting the undercarriage? (This also includes Pump Test)

  • F-_____
A
  • F-978A
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65
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) The COLA maximum cut-out pressure is ____ PSI.

A
  • 130 PSI

Normal cut-out pressure - 110 to 120 PSI

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66
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What form is the “Apparatus Inspection Checklist?”

  • F-_____
A
  • F-977 - “Apparatus Inspection Checklist”
  • 1 form per apparatus
  • Documents Bi-Monthly Battalion inspection of all apparatus
  • Company Commander and Battalion Commander signature required
  • Retain for 3 years in logbook
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67
Q

TB #127 - (Inspections Cycles) Aerial ladders shall be cleaned and lubricated approximately ____ week(s) prior to the annual test.

A
  • 2 weeks
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68
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) The Bi-Monthly inspection is scheduled by the ___________ during the first ______ week(s) of even months.

A
  • Battalion Commander
  • First 2 weeks
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69
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) When testing the air leakage rate for your COLA test, apply full steady pressure to the brake pedal for _______. After the initial pressure drop, air pressure must not drop more than ____ PSI for a single vehicle.

A
  • 1 minute
  • 3 PSI - single vehicle
  • 4 PSI - combination vehicle
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70
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Preparation for inspection should include a thorough preinspection based on the F-_____.

A
  • F-377 “Bi-Monthly Preventive Maintenance Record”

The intent of undercarriage inspection is to ensure that proper preventive maintenance is being performed on apparatus. By making standards known, members can focus their efforts on achieving and often exceeding them.

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71
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) When lubing a chassis on an apparatus, use Chevron “___________” chassis grease.

A
  • “Black Pearl”
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72
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What form is the “SCBA Inspection Checklist?”

  • F-_____
A
  • F-979 - “SCBA Inspection Checklist”
  • Forward copy to S&M
  • 1 form per apparatus
  • Company Commander and Battalion Commander signature required
  • Retain for 3 years in Book 55
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73
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What form is the “Heavy Apparatus Undercarriage Inspection Report?”

F-_____

A
  • F-978B - “Heavy Apparatus Undercarriage Inspection Report”
  • Heavy apparatus only
  • Used to document 4 month cleaning cycle and inspection of undercarriage
  • 1 year equals 1 undercarriage inspection
  • Inspection cycle determined by Pump or Aerial ladder test date
  • Undercarriage cleaning and inspection required every 4 months there after
  • Only Battalion Commander signature required
  • Retain original for 1 year in logbook
  • Forward copy to S&M
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74
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Where shall you retain the F-979 “SCBA Inspection Checklist?”

A
  • Book 55
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75
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Load transfer pads on newer LTI and American La France ladders must be checked for excessive wear and evenness of wear. They are located between __________ of sections.

A
  • Between main beams
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76
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What is the name of the lubrication for Fire Pumps?

A
  • Aqualube
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77
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) When testing the low pressure warning alarm for you COLA test, the warning device must activate between ____ to ____ PSI.

A
  • 55 to 75 PSI
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78
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Who schedules the Biennial Inspection?

(Previously called Annual Inspection)

A
  • BES Commander

Even Battalions in even years, odd Battalions in odd years.

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79
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Which documents shall be completed everytime after cleaning and inspecting the undercarriage? (This also includes Pump Test)

  1. F-_____
  2. F-_____
A
  • F-978A
  • F-978B
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80
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What type of engine oil is used for department apparatus? 15-___

A
  • Oil 15-40
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81
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) How many categories do Seagrave aerial ladders fall into?

A
  • 2 categories
  • Rollers - no lube on bottom of main beams
  • No rollers - should have lubricant on the bottom beams of all ladder sections except the main section
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82
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Apparatus is brought to the shops under _____ condition(s).

A
  • 5 conditions
  • Annual test
  • Scheduled repairs
  • Unscheduled (emergency) repairs
  • Routine lubrication
  • Due to accidents
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83
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) The approved product for undercarriage cleaning is available through SRS from Supply and Maintenance. It is listed in the catalog as “________, ______ type.”

A
  • “Degreaser, gunk type”

Members shall not use any equipment that creates an aerosol spray of any flammable liquids such as kerosene.

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84
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Who should provide CAV time to clean the undercarriage of an apparatus?

  1. 2.
A
  • Company Commander
  • Battalion Commander
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85
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) While performing a COLA test, the air compressor must cut-in no lower than _____ PSI.

A
  • 85 PSI

LAFD vehicles usually cut-in at approximately 100 PSI.

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86
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Most LAFD apparatus cut in at ____ PSI.

A
  • 100 PSI
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87
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Body armor purchased prior to ______ should be stored flat, and should not curl from having been rolled up.

A
  • Prior to 2005

Body armor shall not have embroidery, but should be labeled with paint or marker on the outer shell. The outer shell shall be free of tears and all stitching shall be intact.

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88
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Firefighting hoods shall be labeled and in good repair. Hoods with holes should be replaced, even if the hole is through ____ layer(s) of material.

A
  • 1 layer
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89
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Regarding the apparatus undercarriage, the officer should determine the relative importance of re-painting to protect the apparatus from deterioration and rust. Re-painting or touch-up shall be requested as a repair in _______.

A
  • SRS
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90
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What does the “C” in COLA stand for?

A
  • “C” = Cut in
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91
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What connection areas of an apparatus shall be lubed with a hand pump lube gun only?

A
  • Steering connections with rubber “boots”

Any failure of boots on TAK 4 independent suspension should be promptly reported to Supply & Maintenance for repair or replacement.

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92
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) When an apparatus needs transmission fluid, who shall add it?

A
  • Shops
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93
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) In TB #127, you will find the list of clarifier locations in Part ____ of the bulletin.

A
  • Part VI
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94
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) How many areas or steps is the F-972 “Daily Pre-Trip Inspection” divided into?

A
  • 6 areas or steps
  • General overview
  • Engine compartment
  • Cab check
  • Brakes
  • Lights
  • Walk around inspection
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95
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What is the best method of visual and tactile inspection?

A
  • Cleaning
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96
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) How many distinct parts is the apparatus inspection divided into to?

A
  • 4 parts
  • Inspection of records
  • Driver’s knowledge of apparatus
  • Driver’s knowledge when maintenance was performed
  • Physical inspection
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97
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Apparatus should be lubricated immediately after cleaning, and in no case later than the __________.

A
  • Next day
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98
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Use power lube equipment with a maximum air pressure of _____ PSI.

A
  • 60 PSI
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99
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Regarding lubrication, “In most areas, too ______ lube is far worse than too ______.”

A
  • Too little
  • Too much
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100
Q

TB #127 - (Inspections Cycles) What type of injuries can pressure washers cause?

A
  • Injection injuries (under the skin)
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101
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What form is the “Heavy Apparatus Undercarriage Inspection Checklist?”

  • F-_____
A
  • F-978A - “Heavy Apparatus Undercarriage Inspection Checklist”
  • Heavy apparatus only
  • Use to document condition of undercarriage, compartments and tools found on all heavy apparatus
  • Company Commander and Battalion Commander signature required
  • Retain for 3 years in logbook
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102
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) What form is the LAFD “Daily Pre-Trip Inspection Record?”

  • F-_____
A
  • F-972 - “Daily Pre-Trip Inspection Record”
  • Conduct as soon as practical following relief
  • Retain in logbook 1 month past last entry
  • Title 13 California Code of Regulations 1215 (13 CCR 1215)
  • Initials only
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103
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) “Pullover” type body armor (purchased in _______) shall be rolled and stored in the carrying bag provided.

A
  • Purchased in 2005

Body armor shall not have embroidery, but should be labeled with paint or marker on the outer shell. The outer shell shall be free of tears and all stitching shall be intact.

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104
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) The LTI and American La France aerial ladders should have lubrication on the _______ and ______ surfaces of all main beams except the main section.

A
  • Bottom
  • Side
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105
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) The normal cut-out pressure during the COLA test is ____ to ____ PSI.

A
  • 110 to 120 PSI

Maximum cut-out pressure - 130 PSI

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106
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) No spray painting of apparatus is allowed except by __________ personnel.

A
  • S&M

Members shall not paint the undercarriage of apparatus or any portion thereof, except as noted: Paint may be applied to bare metal, but only when needed to protect surfaces from corrosion.

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107
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Each station was required to create a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPP). Where was this plan posted?

A
  • Official bulletin board
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108
Q

TB #127 - (Inspection Cycles) Members driving in MTA’s yards shall adhere to the ____ MPH maximum speed limit, or the posted speed limit.

A
  • 8 MPH

A reflective safety vest must be worn at all times within the yard (LAFD members shall wear a brush jacket) at all times within the yard, including going to or walking out from the vehicle, except while in a vehicle.

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109
Q

TB #128 - The Ferno Model 42 Stair Chair has two ____ inch rear stationary wheels and two _____ inch low-profile guide wheels.

A
  • 4 inch (rear wheels)
  • 2 inch (front guide wheels)
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110
Q

TB #128 - (Ferno Model 42 Stair Chair) The ______ coated cover and frame assembly may be rinsed off with water, after using an anti-bacterial disinfectant and/or ____% bleach with water solution.

A
  • Vinyl coated
  • 10% bleach with water
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111
Q

TB #128 -The Ferno Model 42 Stair Chair has _____ lifting handles with non-slip handgrips enable first responders to move the patient safely and easily.

A
  • 4 lifting handles
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112
Q

TB #128 -The Ferno Model 42 Stair Chair has a maximum load capacity of _____ pounds.

A
  • 350 pounds
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113
Q

TB #128 -The Ferno Model 42 Stair Chair has two _____ foot quick release restraints to securely hold the patient in place.

A
  • 7 foot
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114
Q

TB #130 - The Akron Turbo Spray Nozzle provides _____ to _____ GPM for the “New Ladder Pipe Assembly.”

A
  • 350 to 1000 GPM
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115
Q

TB #130 - (New Ladder Pipe Assembly) The Akron Turbo Master Spray Nozzle has _____ setting(s).

A
  • 4 settings
  • 350 GPM
  • 500 GPM
  • 750 GPM
  • 1000 GPM
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116
Q

TB #130 - The New Ladder Pipe Assembly comes with a ____ inch in line shut-off and a ____ inch gate valve shut-off (AKA cluster.)

A
  • 2-1/2 inch shut-off
  • 4 inch gate valve shut-off (cluster)
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117
Q

TB #130 - (New Ladder Pipe Assembly) The stream straightener provided with the Akron 1495 is _______ than the stream straightener used with the previous issue.

A
  • Shorter

This shall be utilized with all nozzles during ladder pipe operations. This stream straightener allows members to reach the spray nozzle and has a swivel eye to attach a tag line when the ladder pipe is utilized in an unmanned operation.

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118
Q

TB #130 -The “New Ladder Pipe Assembly” shall be secured to the top _____ rung(s) on the fly section.

A
  • Top 2 rungs
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119
Q

TB #130 - (New Ladder Pipe Assembly) The LAFD has purchased the Akron Brass Company model _____ ladder pipe assembly.

A
  • Model 1495
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120
Q

TB #130 - The pressures for the “New Ladder Pipe Assembly” include pumping through the cluster, ____ feet of ____ inch hose, the ladder pipe assembly and tip, with the aerial ladder extended to ____ feet.

A
  • 100 feet
  • 3 inch
  • 70 feet

Friction loss for the supply line must be added to the pressures listed to achieve proper pump pressure.

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121
Q

TB #130 - What three smooth bore nozzle sizes are used on the “New Ladder Pipe Assembly?”

    1. 3.
A
  • 1-1/2 inch (600 GPM)
  • 1-3/4 inch (800 GPM)
  • 2 inch (1,000 GPM)

Members are prohibited from using the 2 inch tip or flowing 1,000 GPM on Seagrave aerial ladder trucks.

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122
Q

TB #130 - The Akron Brass Company model 1495 ladder pipe assembly contains new features and components designed to make ladder pipe operations safer, more efficient, and allow for up to ______ GPM flow.

A
  • 1,000 GPM
123
Q

TB #130 - (New Ladder Pipe Assembly) The Hydro-Foam Nozzle will flow _____ GPM when pumping 175 PSI to the cluster.

A
  • 660 GPM at 175 PSI
124
Q

TB #130 - Be sure the “New Ladder Pipe Assembly” is centered and securely attached to the rungs and all ____ ball lock pins are in place before flowing water.

A
  • 4 ball lock pins

Ladder straps should not be utilized to secure the Akron 1495 onto the ladder.

125
Q

TB #130 - (New Ladder Pipe Assembly) Members are prohibited from using the 2 inch tip or flowing 1,000 GPM on ________ aerial ladder trucks.

A
  • Seagrave
126
Q

TB #131 - While using the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool and the control handle is not turned for _____ second(s), the motor will slow to “idle” speed and conserve battery power. After _____ second(s) of non use the unit will shut off.

A
  • 3 seconds
  • 30 seconds
127
Q

TB #131 - For weekly and after use “checks” on the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool, turn unit on and operate control handle to open and close the tool ____ time(s).

A
  • 2 times
128
Q

TB #131 - The tips on the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool have a maximum spreading travel of _____ inches.

A
  • 10-1/2 inches
129
Q

TB #131 - How often will the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool be taken to the small engine repair shop for maintenance?

A
  • Annually

At this time the spreader/cutter arms should be disassembled, cleaned, inspected, re-lubed and reassembled. The hydraulic fluid should also be changed. Even though it is a self-contained unit, the viscosity of the fluid can begin to breakdown due to the heat produced during operation of the tool.

130
Q

TB #131 - The Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool has a maximum spreading force (back of the tips) of _______ pounds.

A
  • 11,690 pounds
131
Q

TB #131 - The Holmatro Self-Contained Resue Tool is powered by a _____ volt DC Dewalt battery pack which is attached to the top of the unit and locked into place with a stainless steel spring clip.

A
  • 24 volt
132
Q

TB #131 - In the “notch” of the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool, it has a maximum cutting force of _______ pounds.

A
  • 49,000 pounds
133
Q

TB #131 - A loose pivot bolt nut on the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool should be retightened to 75 foot pounds of torque. Who has the necessary tools to to torque the nut to the proper specifications?

  1. 2.
A
  • Small engine repair shop (S&M)
  • Heavy Rescue
134
Q

TB #131 - The battery for the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool can become damaged if it is charged below 40 degrees F and above ____ degrees F.

A
  • 105 degree F
135
Q

TB #131 - The allowable operating pressure for the Holmatro Self-Contained Recue Tool is _______ PSI.

A
  • 10,500 PSI
136
Q

TB #131 - When finished with the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool, close the spreader/cutter arms leaving __/__ inch between the tips.

A
  • 1/4 inch
137
Q

TB #131 - The Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool comes with _____ battery(s) and a _____ volt charger.

A
  • 2 batteries
  • 12 volt charger
138
Q

TB #131 - The rear of the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool has a ____ volt jumper cable point with a protective cap.

A
  • 12 volt

This accessory is not normally used by the LAFD.

139
Q

TB #131 - Batteries for the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool should be charged in a dry environment between ____ to ____ degrees F. The battery can become damaged if it is charged below 40 degrees F and above 105 degrees F.

A
  • 65 to 75 degrees F
140
Q

TB #131 - While inspecting the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool, check the pivot bolt nut by ______ to ensure tightness. A loose nut should be retightened to ____ foot pounds of torque.

A
  • Hand
  • 75 foot pounds
141
Q

TB #131 - To turn off the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool, you must depress the On/Off button and hold it down for ______ second(s).

A
  • 3 seconds
142
Q

TB #131 - The batteries for the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool have a _____ to _____ cycle life and should last over _____ year(s) if stored and charged properly.

A
  • 400 to 500 cycle life
  • 2 years
143
Q

TB #131 - The control handle on the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool is of the dual dead-man design. Which way is it rotated to increase the RPM’s which causes the spreader/cutter arms to open?

(When facing the rear of the tool)

A
  • Rotated right
144
Q

TB #131 - The ready to use weight of the Holmatro Self-Contained Rescue Tool is _____ pounds.

A
  • 33 pounds
145
Q

TB #133 - The transponder for the Fire Preemption System (FPS) is securely mounted ____ to ____ inches above the ground in the front bumper of apparatus to trip loops.

A
  • 12 to 18 inches
146
Q

TB #133 - To activate the Fire Preemption System (FPS), the apparatus must hit at least ____ loop(s) (street lights).

A
  • 2 loops
147
Q

TB #133 - When do you check the Fire Preemption System (FPS) transponder for mounting and wire status?

A
  • Monday morning
148
Q

TB #133 - The LADOT Fire Preemption System (FPS) will be based upon ______ speed limits.

A
  • Posted speed limits
149
Q

TB #133 - The LAFD in collaboration with the __________ has developed a system that automatically turns traffic lights green for emergency vehicles traveling on designated streets in the City.

A
  • Los Angeles Department Of Transportion (LADOT)
150
Q

TB #133 - An indication that the LADOT Fire Preemption System (FPS) is working properly, is that the “DON’T WALK” indicator will flash in _____ directions.

A
  • All 4 directions
151
Q

TB #134 - The Medical Alert Center (MAC) is a function of the Los Angeles County Emergency Medical Services Agency (EMSA), which tracks the bed availability and diversion status of 9-1-1 receiving hospitals ____ hour(s) a day.

A
  • 24 hours a day
152
Q

TB #134 - Once contact with MAC has been established, provide MAC with the _____ closest receiving hospitals, closest trauma center, pediatric trauma center or other specialty hospital(s).

A
  • 5 closest receiving hospitals
153
Q

TB #134 - Communication with the MAC is normally initiated by the _________ from the ______ paramedic rescue ambulance on scene.

A
  • Attendant
  • 1st Paramedic RA
154
Q

TB #134 - MAC should be contacted for any incident with _____ or more patients that are going to be transported from an incident or _____ or more total patients at an incident.

A
  • 5 or more
  • 10 or more
155
Q

TB #134 - (Communication With MAC) A key component to the efficient management of a multi-casualty incident (MCI) is the coordinated _______ of patients.

A
  • Transportation
156
Q

TB #134 - What is the preferred method of contacting MAC?

A
  • HEAR - Hospital Emergency Administrative Radio

In situations where it is not possible to reach MAC using the HEAR, a landline or cell phone should be considered as a backup. Contact should be maintained continuously throughout the incident to ensure proper patient transportation and destination.

157
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) The ______ Zone is that area wherein a direct and immediate threat exists.

A
  • Hot Zone
158
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) A team of up to 4 police officers who form at the scene of an active shooter and deploy behind Contact Teams into the Hot Zone with the goal of extracting viable patients to a Casualty Collection Point or treatment area. What team is this?

A
  • Rescue Team
159
Q

TB #135 - The shell of the ballistic helmets can be cleaned using ______ and ______ and the liner can be cleaned using _____________.

A
  • Soap and water
  • Disinfectant wipes
160
Q

TB #135 - The Hartford Consensus focuses on early hemorrhage control to improve survivability. The practical recommendations include the actions contained in the acronym _________.

A
  • THREAT
  • T - Threat suppression
  • H - Hemorrhage control
  • RE - Rapid Extraction to safety
  • A - Assessment by medical providers
  • T - Transport to definitive care
161
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, under no circumstances should firefighters enter or move through a _____ Zone to deploy ladders, hose lines, or other equipment.

A
  • Hot Zone
162
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) When two RTF’s are formed using an Engine and an RA, the recommended RTF is comprised of ______ fire department member(s) and ______ officer(s).

A
  • 3 Fire Department members
  • 3 Law Enforcement officers

One paramedic would accompany each RTF under this configuration. This would be the recommended configuration for two RTF’s.

163
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) Initial team of up to 4 police officers who form at the scene of an active shooter and deploy to the shooter’s location with the goal of initiating contact to contain or eliminate the active shooter to prevent further injury or loss of life. What team is this?

A
  • Contact Team
164
Q

TB #135 - As a minimum, a Rescue Task Force (RTF) shall have _____ fire department medical personnel and _____ force protection officer(s).

A
  • 2 FD medical personnel
  • 2 force protection officers
165
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) The ______ Zone is that area wherein a potential threat exists, but the threat may not be direct or immediate.

A
  • Warm Zone
166
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) The ______ Zone is that area where no significant danger or threat can be reasonably anticipated.

A
  • Cold Zone
167
Q

TB #135 - The LAFD has established a _____ tiered Tactical Emergency Medical Support (TEMS) program.

A
  • 3 tiered
168
Q

TB #135 - Experience has shown that the number one cause of preventable death in victims of penetrating trauma is __________.

A
  • Hemorrhage
169
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) What “Zone” will staging and treatment areas be set up in?

A
  • Cold Zone
  • Treatment Area(s) (Cold Zone)
  • Incident Command Post (Cold Zone)
  • Staging Area(s) (Cold Zone)
  • Family Assistance Center (Cold Zone)
170
Q

TB #135 - How many ALS RA’s will MFC dispatch as part of an “Active Shooter Incident Response?”

A
  • 4 ALS RA’s
171
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) RTF’s are small groups of fire department personnel together with force protection configured to treat or extract the injured from within the _____ Zone.

A
  • Warm Zone

RTFs may also take the injured to a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) within the Warm Zone prior to further movement to the treatment area.

172
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, the second arriving Battalion Chief should normally be assigned as the ___________.

A
  • Rescue Group Supervisor
173
Q

TB #135 - All LAFD members receive 4 hours of tactical awareness training enabling them to function as responders at the TEMS FRO level. What tier is this?

A
  • Tier 3 - TEMS FRO
174
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, the first arriving EMS Supervisor should normally be assigned as ___________.

A
  • Medical Communications

If this member is unnecessarily delayed, then Medical Communications should be initiated by another resource.

175
Q

TB #135 - TEMS Technicians are paramedics that have attended the same approved TEMS course as Specialists, but have not attended a SWAT course. What tier is this?

A
  • Tier 2 - TEMS Technicians
176
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) This area is outside the Hot Zone and casualties are taken to initiate treatment in the case of critical injuries, or be further extracted to treatment areas by Rescue Task Force members. What area is this?

A
  • Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
177
Q

TB #135 - The Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag (tactical bags) are stocked to treat _____ trauma patient(s), addressing the “_____ Preventable Causes of Death.”

A
  • 2 trauma patients
  • “4 Preventable Causes of Death”
178
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, the second arriving EMS Supervisor should normally be assigned as the ___________.

A
  • Medical Group Supervisor
179
Q

TB #135 - TEMS Specialists are paramedics that have attended an approved TEMS course (40 hours minimum of specialized TEMS training), and an 80-hour POST approved SWAT course. What tier is this?

A
  • Tier 1 - TEMS Specialist
180
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) A request for an Intelligence Officer will normally be filled by an Officer assigned to the ____________ Division.

A
  • Homeland Security Division (HSD)
181
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) The American College of Surgeons and the FBI developed a concept document for the purpose of increasing survivability in mass casualty shootings. This paper is known as the _________ Consensus

A
  • Hartford Consensus
182
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, the first arriving Company Officers and RA personnel should prepare personnel and secure equipment for deployment as a __________.

A
  • Rescue Task Force (RTF)
183
Q

TB #135 - Regarding ballistic helmets, who shall verify the location of storage on the apparatus and their accessibility for use?

A
  • Battalion Commanders

Company Officers shall ensure that the ballistic helmets are stored in a secure location on the apparatus in a method that allows them to be readily accessible when needed. Battalion Commanders shall verify.

184
Q

TB #135 - (Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents) This term is popular among law enforcement officers that refers to a location that hides an individual from view but that does not provide protection from small arms fire. What is this term?

A
  • Concealment
185
Q

TB #135 - On an “Active Shooter” incident response, the elements of the IAP may vary based on the situation, but key components that the fire department will be responsible for include the following:

      1. 4.
A
  • Rescue Group
  • Medical Group
  • Fire Group
  • Communications Plan
186
Q

TB #135 - How many Engines will MFC dispatch as part of an “Active Shooter Incident Response?”

A
  • 2 Engines
187
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The numbering convention used for gates around the LAX perimeter is: 100 series gates are on the ______ side of the airport, 200 series _____ side, 300 series ______ side, and 400 series on the ______ side.

A
  • 100 gates on north side
  • 200 gates on the east side
  • 300 gates on the south side
  • 400 gates on the west side
188
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) Historical data shows that when passengers exit via the aircraft emergency chutes, an ____% injury rate will occur with no hazard present. This equates to 24 injuries on a plane with 300 passengers.

A
  • 8% injury rate
189
Q

TB #136 - The LAX Airport is the _____ busiest airport in the world in total passengers, and is ranked _______ in cargo with 2.1 million tons of air cargo handled annually.

A
  • 5th busiest
  • Ranked 11th

Over 61.5 million passengers travel through LAX annually.

190
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) Fire Station 5 has been pre-designated as a fixed command post location. It will take approximately _____ hour(s) before the ITA and LAWA can complete the setup with telephone and data lines at the station.

A
  • 3 hours
191
Q

TB #136 - At LAX, there are _____ terminal(s) with more than 140 aircraft parking spaces for commercial airlines.

A
  • 9 terminals
192
Q

TB #136 - When a pilot notifies the LAX Air Traffic Control Tower of an aircraft emergency, the Tower declares an Alert ___ or Alert ___ via the “RED” Telephone Notification System.

A
  • Alert 2 or Alert 3
  • Alert 2 - landing aircraft showing warning lights or minor malfunction.
  • Alert 3 - major malfunction, crash, or crash is imminent.
193
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) There are nine terminals with more than _____ aircraft parking spaces for commercial airlines.

A
  • 140 aircraft parking spaces
194
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) In the case of a delayed landing, a telephonic notification with details of the emergency and approximate landing time is made to Fire Station ____.

A
  • Fire Station 80

The Airport Police Operations Center (APOC), Metro, and the Battalion 4 Commander are also notified.

195
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) There are approximately ______ takeoffs and landings at LAX daily.

A
  • 1800 takeoffs and landings
196
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) If there is no advanced notice and the IC requests additional resources at LAX, they will respond to one of the ____ Security Access Posts for escorted access to the AOA.

A
  • 5 Security Access Posts
197
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) Members should be aware of the differences between the everyday incident and an MCI involving aircraft landing speeds that exceed _____ knots/hr.

A
  • 150 knots/hr
198
Q

TB #136 - The majority of the time LAX enjoys an ____-shore wind resulting in _______ takeoffs and landings.

A
  • On-shore winds
  • Westerly takeoffs
199
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The perimeter around a downed aircraft will be _____ feet around the entire aircraft.

A
  • 300 feet
200
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The Airbus A380 can be configured to carry up to _____ passengers plus flight crew.

A
  • 800 passengers
201
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) What is the single most important factor declared by the pilot?

A
  • Type of emergency

Examples - flight control surface problem, smoke in cockpit or passenger cabin, warning lights visible to the pilot, cargo hold trouble lights, tire/gear problems, conditions, etc.

202
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The following are staging locations for an incident at LAX…

  • FS ____
  • FS ____
  • _____ Pads
  • _____ Pads
A
  • FS 5
  • FS 95
  • West Pads
  • South Pads

The IC will assign a Staging Manager to track resources arriving at Staging. If time allows, the IC and Medical Branch Director or Group Supervisor shall be briefed on the situation, access points, escort procedures, and AOA driving protocols.

203
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The LAX Airport consists of approximately 1500 acres with _____ runways.

A
  • 4 runways
204
Q

TB #136 - As of October 2008, LAX operations contribute $_____ million daily to the regional economy.

A
  • $167 million
205
Q

TB #136 - A Medical Supply Cache and Emergency Backboard Trailer, with ____ backboards, is stored in a hanger immediately west of Fire Station ____ and north of the USCG LAX Air Station.

A
  • 90 backboards
  • Fire Station 80
206
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) The Airbus A380 has _____ deck(s). The cargo deck is closest to the ground with _____ full length fuselage deck(s) of passenger cabin above.

A
  • 3 decks
  • 2 full length fuselage decks
207
Q

TB #136 - (Aircraft Emergencies) All Department vehicles operating on the AOA (Airport Operation Area) shall be operated by a member in possession of valid LAX security identification with the airfield ______ and ______ privilege icon.

A
  • Driving and escort privilege
208
Q

TB #136 -The LAX Airport consists of approximately ______ acres.

A
  • 1500 acres
209
Q

TB #136 - How many primary incident objectives does the fire service have during the initial stages of a low-impact aircraft crash where the potential for survivors exist?

A
  • 3 objectives
  • Exterior and interior fire extinguishment
  • Evacuation/rescue
  • Triage and treat injured patients
210
Q

TB #138 - On the plug buggy lift gate apparatus, to turn the control panel on, press the “Power On” hidden switch once. The switch is marked with white _______.

A
  • White circles

The switch is located between the Tommy gate logo and the up/down toggle switch. You should see the amber LED “Power On” light illuminate when the control is armed.

211
Q

TB #138 - (Plug Buggy Lift Gate) Electric wheelchairs are large, bulky, and can weigh between _____ to _____ pounds.

A
  • 200 to 400 pounds
212
Q

TB #138 - Where are the three plug buggies with modified lift gates housed?

    1. 3.
A
  • FS 17
  • FS 75
  • S&M
213
Q

TB #138 - (Plug Buggy Lift Gate) How many tie downs should be used in all cases to prevent damage and marring to the wheelchair?

A
  • 4 tie downs
214
Q

TB #138 - If you have any questions regarding the plug buggy lift gate apparatus, what unit do you contact?

A
  • Equipment Engineering Unit
215
Q

TB #138 - On the plug buggy lift gate apparatus, where is the lift gate power switch located?

A
  • Vehicle dash
216
Q

TB #138 - The plug buggy with the modified lift gate has a rating of ______ pounds.

A
  • 1,000 pounds
217
Q

TB #138 - On the plug buggy lift gate apparatus, the lift gate control box is located on the ______ rear of vehicle.

A
  • Right rear of vehicle
218
Q

TB #139 - (Air Management Policy) Where shall you document annual member retraining and certification?

    1. 3.
A
  • PRB
  • F-2 journal
  • F-393
219
Q

TB #139 - (Air Management Policy) How often shall Company Commanders ensure that all members participate in company based air management drills?

A
  • Quarterly
220
Q

TB #139 - (Air Management Policy) When the objective is reached or SCBA air reserve is at ____% (whichever occurs first), you must exit the buliding.

A
  • 50%

This shall be based on the member with the least amount of remaining air.

221
Q

TB #139 - The “Standard for Fire Service Respiratory Protection Training” is NFPA ______.

A
  • NFPA 1404
222
Q

TB #139 - (Air Management Policy) Air management is a practice, a philosophy and a mind-set to make all members aware as a ______ of their air supply.

A
  • Team

Being aware of the team’s air supply will insure firefighter safety and help in the risk management decision process. A skilled air management practice increases a team’s efficiency and helps define a margin of safety in many different IDLH environments and situations.

223
Q

TB #139 - (Air Management Policy) The LAFD annual member retraining and certification shall be completed annually during the month of ________ at the company level.

A
  • January
224
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) A “_______” allows expedited elevator access to upper floors by excluding access at intermediate floor locations.

A
  • “Blind shaft”

An elevator that malfunctions or stops within the blind shaft can present a difficult and time consuming forcible exit rescue concern, particularly when the blind shaft becomes exposed to smoke or products of combustion.

225
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) The “_______” position is used to place the elevator in operation on a temporary basis when the entire building has been deemed safe for normal use, but there is still enough residual smoke to actuate the detectors or the detectors are malfunctioning.

A
  • “Bypass” position

The elevator key is not removable when the switch is in the bypass position. The 2008 Elevator Code requires a similar three position “Recall” key switch with positions marked “RESET,” “OFF,” and “ON.”

226
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) What will unaccounted elevators require the Incident Commander to implement?

A
  • “Elevator Group”

They will determine the location and status of any elevator not returning to its recall location and the potential for extrication and rescue.

227
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) Phase ___, “Override Phase”, refers to the fire service controls within the elevator car itself which allows firefighters to manually control the elevator from inside the car only.

A
  • Phase II, “Override Phase”

An Emergency Service switch is provided in each elevator car with Phase II capability.

228
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) If the elevator stops above the fire after performing required checks in Phase II, what would your next action be?

A
  • Exit elevator and proceed to the nearest stairwell
229
Q

TB #140 - Elevator ascent during investigations or firefighting operations shall only be used when the reported location is above the ______ floor.

A
  • 6th floor
230
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) Elevators shall not be taken closer than _____ floor(s) below the reported fire floor or _____ floor(s) below the lowest indicated alarm floor location.

A
  • 2 floors
  • 2 floors
231
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) If determined that an elevator is going to be used for ascent, precautionary stops shall be made every _____ floor(s) in order to test and confirm that the elevator is properly operating in Phase II as designed.

A
  • 5 floors
232
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) During Phase II operations when performing required checks at each precautionary stop, what are you checking the presence of in the elevator shaft?

    1. 3.
A
  • Smoke
  • Fire
  • Water
233
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) When an engine company is the first fire suppression resource at a high-rise fire, personnel from an additional resource must be on scene and one member will be assigned and designated as the __________.

A
  • Elevator operator
234
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) How many personnel with equipment shall be permitted in the elevator at a time?

A
  • 6 personnel
235
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) How long does it take for a fire to double in size if it burns unchecked?

A
  • Every minute (doubles)
236
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) The fire attack team shall consist of a minimum of ____ member(s).

A
  • 4 members
237
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) When testing the Phase II operation, enter several floors by pushing floor indicator buttons. Press the “Reset” or “Call Cancel” button to clear the elevator control panel. Repeat this process a _______ time to ensure the call cancel feature is operating correctly.

A
  • Second time
238
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) If the circular “fire service,” “fire helmet,” or “Maltese cross jewel” indicator light on the elevator car control panel is blinking, the elevator cars in that bank should ___________.

A
  • Not be used

As a warning to firefighters of the impending elevator shutdown due to an elevator shunt switch activation, the heat detectors used for this operation will cause the visual indicator light (fire service button, fire helmet, or Maltese cross) to illuminate intermittently indicating an impending elevator shutdown. Once the shunt switch activates all operations are canceled and the elevator becomes inoperative.

239
Q

TB #140 - During an emergency, elevators can be used in buildings with split banks of elevators, if the highest floor served by the elevator shaft terminates a minimum of _____ floor(s) below the reported fire floor.

A
  • 5 floors below
240
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) When testing the elevator in Phase II, enter several floors by pushing floor indicator buttons. The buttons should light up, but the elevator doors should not close and the elevator should not move. Elevators without a door close button will proceed to the ______ chosen floor if floor button is held in a depressed position.

A
  • First chosen floor
241
Q

TB #140 - How long does it approximately take per floor to ascend stairs when firefighters are wearing full PPE’s and carrying equipment?

A
  • 1 minute per floor
242
Q

TB #140 - After the 1989 high-rise retrofit ordinance, all lobby openings for elevator doors shall be protected with ____ minute automatic-closing fire assemblies with magnetic hold-open devices.

A
  • 45 minute

Except for the main entrance level lobby, which are provided with a smoke detector located on the lobby ceiling. All lobby doors are designed to close on actuation of any fire alarm initiating device for that specific floor.

243
Q

TB #140 - Phase ___, “Recall Phase”, refers to the manual or automatic recall of elevators to the lobby or designated recall level of the building either through the operation of a “Emergency Service” key switch in the lobby or fire control room or by the activation of an elevator lobby smoke detector.

A
  • Phase I, “Recall Phase”
244
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) Who does the elevator operator report to?

A
  • Lobby Control Officer
245
Q

TB #140 - The City of LA enacted a high-rise retrofit ordinances (effective in 19___) that requires all elevators on all levels in all existing high-rise buildings open into elevator lobbies which are separated from the remainder of the building, including corridors and other exits, by walls having a fireresistive rating of not less than ____ hour(s).

A
  • 1989
  • 1 hour
246
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) What type of extinguisher shall remain in the elevator with the elevator operator?

A
  • Dry chemical
247
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) During normal, day-to-day operations, the emergency operation switch will be in the “____” position.

A
  • “OFF” position
248
Q

TB #140 - (Elevator Operations) The “Emergency Service” mode allows firefighters to take elevators out of automatic operation and place them under _________ by emergency personnel increasing the margin of safety for firefighting personnel and the building occupants.

A
  • Manual control
249
Q

TB #142 - (Storm Water Catch Basin) The City uses different screen types that have different release/unlocking mechanisms. How many different screen types is the City currently using?

A
  • 2 types
  • Type I
  • Type II
250
Q

TB #142 - (Storm Water Catch Basin) What screen type has the nameplate riveted onto the screen?

A
  • Type I
251
Q

TB #142 - (Storm Water Catch Basin) A Type I has a screen plate _________ to the screen and requires an _______ motion by a straight object to disengage the locking mechanism.

A
  • Perpendicular
  • Upward motion
252
Q

TB #142 - (Storm Water Catch Basin) A Type II has a screen plate which is ________ to the screen and requires a ________ straight push in motion to disengage the locking mechanism.

A
  • Parallel
  • Horizontal straight push

The nameplate is stenciled onto the screen.

253
Q

TB #142 - Screen covers for storm water catch basins prevent localize pooling. The screens locking mechanisms are designed to swing open when the water level reaches _____ of the screen height.

A
  • Half

This allows any water or debris in.

254
Q

TB #142 - (Storm Water Catch Basin) When attempting to open a Type I or II screen, insert a straight object such as a screwdriver __/__ up from the bottom edge of the screen.

A
  • 1/3 up
255
Q

TB #144 - On December 26, 2004, a magnitude 9.3 earthquake rocked the floor of the Indian Ocean. As a result, tsunami waves as high as 15 meters (50 feet) devastated coastal communities in 14 countries, killing nearly ________ people.

A
  • 230,000 people
256
Q

TB #144 - The West Coast/Alaska Tsunami Warning Center (WC/ATWC) is located in ______, Alaska, and the Hawaii-based Pacific Tsunami Warning Center in _______ monitors potential tsunamis.

A
  • Palmer, Alaska
  • Honolulu
257
Q

TB #144 - Who is responsible for providing immediate notification to the LAFD of all tsunami watches, warnings and advisories affecting the coastal areas of the City of Los Angeles?

A
  • Los Angeles County Fire Department (LACoFD)

MFC is the pre-determined point of contact for the LAFD.

258
Q

TB #144 - During a Level III Tsunami Mode, Fire Boats exit the harbor at “L.A. Light” at a heading of 210 degrees true north for _____ miles. This rendezvous point is within the USCG recommended tsunami evacuation guideline of _____ to _____ feet.

A
  • 3.2 miles
  • 600 to 1200 feet
259
Q

TB #144 - Since 1812, ____ tsunamis with wave heights higher than _____ feet have struck the California coast.

A
  • 16 tsunamis
  • 3 feet

Eight of these waves were destructive.

260
Q

TB #144 - In early 20___, a Council motion was made that directed the City’s Emergency Management Department (EMD) to review and update the City’s tsunami planning and preparedness efforts.

A
  • 2005
261
Q

TB #144 - A strong earthquake felt along the coastal areas of the City lasting longer than ____ second(s), should be considered a warning sign of a potential near source tsunami.

A
  • 20 seconds
262
Q

TB #144 - Normal tidal shifts in the LA Harbor can range from ____ to ____ feet, leaving Department fire boats with as little as 2 feet of clearance from the harbor floor during low tide.

A
  • 7 to 11 feet
263
Q

TB #144 - Upon receipt of a “Tsunami Warning” notification with an estimated arrival time of zero to ___ hours, MFC will immediately notify place the Department in a Level ___ Tsunami mode.

A
  • 0 to 4 hours
  • Level III Tsunami mode
264
Q

TB #144 - Tsunamis may reach speeds of _____ MPH in deep water.

A
  • 600 MPH
265
Q

TB #144 - (Tsunami Response Plan) In 2010, the State of California provided inundation mapping of Battalions ___, ___ and ___.

A
  • Battalions 4, 6, 9

These maps indicate the predicted “worst-case scenario” and were developed using a mix of near source-tsunami data (larger waves) and distant-source tsunami data (tidal surges) to give a best guess scientific estimate of coastal inundation. The maps provide detailed information such as the location of pre-determined evacuation routes, safe refuge areas, schools and medical facilities.

266
Q

TB #144 - How many types of Tsunami alerts are there?

A
  • 7 types
  • Tsunami Warning
  • Tsunami Watch
  • Tsunami Advisory
  • Tsunami Information Bulletin
  • Tsunami Information Message
  • Tsunami Cancellation
  • Tsunami Communication Test
267
Q

TB #144 - Upon receiving notification of a “Tsunami Warning” with an estimated arrival time of 4 to 8 hours, MFC will immediately place the Department in Level ___ Tsunami mode.

A
  • Level II
268
Q

TB #144 - When a “Tsunami Warning” has a earthquake magnitude greater than 7.5, a “Tsunami Warning” is issued to areas within a _____ hour tsunami travel-time zone.

A
  • 3 hour
269
Q

TB #144 - (Tsunami Response Plan) The WC/ATWC updates messages every ____ minute(s). Updated messages will be continued, expanded or restricted, upgraded or downgraded, or canceled.

A
  • 30 minutes
270
Q

TB #144 - What is the highest tsunami alert?

A
  • Tsunami Warning
271
Q

TB #144 - Tsunamis are classified into how many types?

A
  • 2 types
  • Local
  • Distant
272
Q

TB #144 - (Tsunami Response Plan) Inundation maps provided by the State of California in 2010 are provide in what three formats?

    1. 3.
A
  • 1200’ Battalion Maps
  • 800’ Fire Station First-In Maps
  • LAPD Reporting Districts (Similar to Wildland Operational Areas)
273
Q

TB #144 - A “Tsunami Warning” is issued for earthquake magnitudes between ____ to ____.

A
  • 7.1 to 7.5
274
Q

TB #144 - Any LAFD member who detects an earthquake anywhere in the City of Los Angeles shall immediately notify MFC via ______ or through the _________ at (213) 576-8920.

A
  • Radio
  • Floor Captain
275
Q

TB #144 - Upon receiving notification of a “Tsunami Warning” with an estimated arrival time of 8+ hours, MFC will immediately place the Department in Level ___ Tsunami Mode.

A
  • Level I
276
Q

TB #144 - What is the first visible indication of an approaching local source tsunami?

A
  • Recession of water
277
Q

TB #144 - A “Tsunami Warning” is issued to areas within _____ km (217.5 miles) along the coast on either side of the epicenter.

A
  • 350 km
278
Q

TB #144 - The goal of the City of Los Angeles is to achieve Federal recognition as a “Tsunami Ready Community.” To achieve this status, how many requirements must be implemented or completed?

A
  • 4 requirements
  • Planning
  • Public Outreach and Education
  • Signage
  • Alert and Notification
279
Q

TB #144 - The travel time of the locally generated tsunami, from initiation at the source to arrival at coastal communities may be within 5 to ____ minutes.

A
  • 5 to 30 minutes
280
Q

TB #144 - (Tsunami Response Plan) The WC/ATWC issues test messages at unannounced times on a _______ basis to determine delays in disseminating tsunami information.

A
  • Monthly basis
281
Q

TB #144 - What is the second highest tsunami alert?

A
  • “Tsunami Watch”
282
Q

TB #144 - The time required for a distant tsunami to reach the Hawaiian and mainland coasts will vary between 5-1/2 to ____ hours, depending upon the tsunami place of origin.

A
  • 5-1/2 to 18 hours

Tsunamis from distant sources are the most common type observed along the Pacific Coast of the United States. The Pacific states may suffer both regional and Pacific-wide tsunamis. Regional tsunamis affect smaller areas than Pacific-wide tsunamis.

283
Q

TB #144 - When the Department is in a Level III Tsunami Mode, all Fire Boats will travel out to sea to a minimum depth of ______ feet.

A
  • 1000 feet

Exit the harbor at “L.A. Light” at a heading of 210 degrees true north for 3.2 miles.

284
Q

TB #144 - How many City Departments have been identified with critical tsunami evacuation/response functions?

A
  • 9 City Departments
  • LAPD
  • LAFD
  • Emergency Management Department (EMD) - Emergency Management
  • LA Department of Transportation (LADOT) - Traffic Control
  • LA Department of Recreation and Parks - Shelter and Welfare
  • Los Angeles Animal Services - Animal Control
  • Harbor Department - Port of Los Angeles
  • Department on Disability - Disabled/Specific Needs Population
  • Department of Aging - Senior Population
285
Q

TB #145 - Most combustible metal fires produce extreme temperatures ranging from ______ to ______ degrees F.

A
  • 5,000 to 9,000 degrees F
286
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Supply and Maintenance maintains approximately _____ pounds of MET-L-X and has the ability to deliver it to the scene of the fire.

A
  • 500 pounds
287
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Alkali metals are all highly reactive and are never found in elemental forms in nature. Because of this, they are usually stored immersed in _______ oil or kerosene (paraffin oil).

A
  • Mineral oil or kerosene (paraffin oil)

Alkali metals (Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium) are water-reactive under non-fire conditions and should be placarded with the “W” under the NFPA 704 system. Applying water to Alkali metal under any circumstances will result in fire and extreme reactions. Although Alkali metals have many industrial uses, they are not commonly encountered.

288
Q

TB #145 - Metals such as titanium, magnesium, zirconium, and aluminum shall be indicated by an “___” in the fourth space of the NFPA placard.

A
  • “M”

LAFD criteria for placarding

Occupancies that exceed 500 pounds of combustible metals as per the LA Fire Code or that process or store 500 pounds or less of combustible metals that are in the form of dusts, chips, powders, turnings, or ribbons.

289
Q

TB #145 - “Purple K” is not an effective extinguishing agent for combustible metal fires. Per manufacturers’ instructions, Purple K is appropriate for “___”, “___”, and “___” fires only.

A
  • Purple K - “A”, “B”, “C” fires only

Purple K is a dry chemical extinguishing agent as opposed to a dry powder extinguishing agent. Dry chemical works by interrupting the chemical fire process, which is counter productive in extinguishing a combustible metal fire.

290
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metal Fires) How many pounds of MET-L-X product is required for every one square foot of fire?

A
  • 10 pounds
291
Q

TB #145 - Members of the LAFD working within ____ feet of a burning metal product are considered to be working in an IDLH environment.

A
  • 30 feet
292
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) The entire stock of MET-L-X maintained at Supply and Maintenance would only extinguish a _____ square foot fire.

A
  • 50 square foot
293
Q

TB #145 - If multiple hazards exist on the NFPA placard, the symbols (no more than two) shall be stacked with the most severe hazard indicated on ______ and the combustible metal symbol “M” (when applicable) always positioned at the _______.

A
  • On top (most severe)
  • Bottom (“M”)
294
Q

TB #145 - Combustible metal fires can hurl molten metal _______ of feet in the air, burning anything in its path.

A
  • Hundreds of feet
295
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Working within ____ feet of any auto fire constitutes working in an IDLH.

A
  • 30 feet
296
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) In most cases, combustible metal fires will burn quickly and begin to develop an oxide crust. Don’t disturb the crust until the metal has completely oxidized to the point of extinguishment. This may take ____ hour(s) or longer.

A
  • 24 hours
297
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) A small amount of product about the size of a ________, in the incipient stage of burning may possibly be manually separated from exposures by a fully encapsulated Firefighter through use of a shovel or similar tool.

A
  • Wastebasket
298
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Alkali metals (Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium) are water-reactive under non-fire conditions and should be placarded with the “___” under the NFPA 704 system.

A
  • “W”

Alkali metals are all highly reactive and are never found in elemental forms in nature. Because of this, they are usually stored immersed in mineral oil or kerosene (paraffin oil). Applying water to Alkali metal under any circumstances will result in fire and extreme reactions.

299
Q

TB #145 - Fires involving combustible metals are designated as a class “___” fire.

A
  • Class “D”
300
Q

TB #145 - Dry powder extinguishes combustible metal fires by ________ them.

A
  • Smothering

“Copious amounts of water in a coarse stream” can be effective on certain types of combustible metals in small quantities. Magnesium engine blocks, for example, can be eventually extinguished utilizing copious amounts of water. If a fire is burning beyond the incipient stage or is involving a large amount of product, copious amounts of water can be counter productive and can cause increased fire intensity and explosions.

301
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Where can you find the Business Plan (BP8) listed?

A
  • MDC
302
Q

TB #145 - (Combustible Metals) Per the manufacture’s recommendations, a _____ inch layer of MET-L-X is required to effectively smother a fire.

A
  • 1 inch layer
303
Q

TB #145 - What is the only approved dry powder product provided by the LAFD to extinguish combustible metal fires?

A
  • MET-L-X
304
Q

TB #145 - The Department is in the process of surveying all businesses that utilize combustible metals and will require an NFPA Placard with a “___”.

A
  • “W”

Full compliance is expected by January 2011.

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