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Vadukul - Captain Study Program > Training Bulletins 147 - 169 > Flashcards

Training Bulletins 147 - 169 Flashcards

1
Q

TB #147 - How many different colors does the Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) come in?

A
  • 3 colors
  • Orange - EMS/Fire
  • Black- Law Enforcement/Military
  • Blue - for training purposes only
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2
Q

TB #147 - When applying the Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT), ensure bleeding has stopped and ______ pulses are absent after the application.

A
  • Distal pulses

Never apply over a joint.

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3
Q

TB #147 - The Combat Application Tourniquet (C-A-T) is a small, lightweight _____ handed tourniquet that completely occludes arterial blood flow in an extremity.

A
  • One handed
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4
Q

TB #147 - The Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) comes in three colors. Describe what the colors represent…

  • Orange - ______
  • Black - _______
  • Blue - _______
A
  • Orange - EMS/Fire
  • Black - Law Enforcement/Military
  • Blue - for training purposes
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5
Q

TB #147 - After applying the Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT), in how many minute(s) shall you reassess the patient?

A
  • 5 minutes
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6
Q

TB #147 - If bleeding is uncontrolled with one Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT), then a second tourniquet may be applied _______ to the first tourniquet.

A
  • Proximal

In this scenario, do not remove the first tourniquet.

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7
Q

TB #147 - The application of tourniquets (CAT) can result in severe pain. You should consider the administration of what two items?

  1. 2.
A
  • Morphine
  • Fluid administration
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8
Q

TB #147 - Before applying the Combat Tourniquet (CAT), what should you attempt first before application?

A
  • Direct pressure
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9
Q

TB #147 - (Combat Application Tourniquet) Using an ink pen, where do you document the time on the tourniquet when it was applied?

A
  • On the Windlass Strap
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10
Q

TB #147 - Once the Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) is applied, it should not be loosened or removed without ________ approval.

A
  • Physician approval
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11
Q

TB #149 - (Residential Sprinkler Systems) Where do nationwide statistics show that most fires, injuries and deaths occur at?

A
  • Home
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12
Q

TB #149 - Where are the shut-off/control valves for residential sprinkler systems usually located?

  1. 2.
A
  • Garage
  • Side of the house

Residential sprinklers are not subject to Chief’s Regulation No.4 testing and would only be inspected when construction is complete.

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13
Q

TB #149 - The water demand for two residential sprinklers heads must be able to flow for a period of ____ minute(s).

A
  • 10 minutes

This is required by the LA Department of Building and Safety (LADBS).

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14
Q

TB #149 - As of January 1, 20___, the State of California is requiring the installation of residential fire sprinklers in all new one and two family dwellings and manufactured homes.

A
  • 2011
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15
Q

TB #149 - Who requires identification signs on residential sprinkler systems?

A
  • LA Department of Building and Safety (LADBS)

The minimum size of sign and lettering is not regulated. The identification signs are inspected only at the time of the final inspection, therefore might be missing, faded or covered by foliage. If difficulty locating the shut-off valve occurs, shut the water off at the street.

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16
Q

TB #149 - Residential fire sprinkler systems protect against fire generated from a _______ ignition source, with the objective of containing the fire to the room of origin.

A
  • Single ignition source
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17
Q

TB #149 - (Residential Sprinkler Systems) The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) report that approximately ______ civilians perish annually from fire, with nearly __/__ of those deaths occurring at home.

A
  • 3,000 (fire deaths annually)
  • 2/3 (at home)
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18
Q

TB #149 - Residential sprinkler heads are more heat sensitive than traditional heads and therefore activate at earlier stages of the fire. Head temperatures range from ____ to ____ degrees and cover a minimum area of ____ x ____ foot area.

A
  • 135 to 175 degrees F
  • 12 x 12 feet

Extended coverage heads can cover a 20 x 20 foot area.

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19
Q

TB #149 - (Residential Sprinkler Systems) The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) states a home fire can reach deadly proportions in as little as _____ minute(s).

A
  • 3 minutes

A home fire can reach deadly proportions in as little as 3 minutes, with 7 to 10 minutes passing before first responders arrive.

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20
Q

TB #149 - What department plan checks and approves the installation of residiential sprinkler systems?

A
  • LA Department of Building and Safety (LADBS)

The Plumbing/Mechanical Engineering Division of the Los Angeles Department of Building and Safety (LADBS) plan checks and approves the installation of residential sprinklers. All components of the home systems are to be Underwriter Laboratory (UL) or Factory Mutual (FM) listed while the contractors performing the installation need to be licensed and manufacturer certified.

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21
Q

TB #149 - Residential spinkler system pipes include black pipe, copper pipe, chlorinated polyvinylchloride (CPVC), polybutylene (PB), schedule ____ steel or thin walled steel.

A
  • Schedule 40
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22
Q

TB #149 - A home fire can reach deadly proportions in as little as three minutes, with ____ to ____ minutes passing before first responders arrive.

A
  • 7 to 10 minutes
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23
Q

TB #149 - After the January 1st, 2011 requirement for residential sprinklers, this mandate uses the NFPA ____ standard that includes new construction of garages, patios extending ____ feet from the house and unattached structures greater than ______ square feet.

A
  • NFPA 13D
  • 4 feet
  • 200 square feet

Sprinklers are only required in livable areas of homes; attics or other combustible sealed spaces are exempt. The provisions of this standard do not apply to facilities or structures that existed or were approved for construction prior to January 1, 2011.

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24
Q

TB #149 - As of January 1, 2011, the State of California is requiring the installation of residential fire sprinklers in all new one and two family dwellings and __________.

A
  • Manufactured homes
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25
Q

TB #149 - Most new residential sprinkler systems in the City use chlorinated polyvinylchloride (CPVC) due to cost, fabrication time, fire resistiveness, connectability to domestic water and less friction loss. What color is this lightweight, rigid plastic pipe?

A
  • Orange
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26
Q

TB #149 - Residential sprinkler piping is installed in the attic and has the ceiling acting as a barrier between the room of origin and piping layout. A greater vulnerability to heat is that of the piping ______ and straps.

A
  • Hangers and straps

If these components are exposed, they may loosen/expand and cause the pipe to sag or drop, reducing the effectiveness of the system. Remember, residential heads are installed in livable spaces only and not in attics.

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27
Q

TB #149 - Special extended coverage residential sprinklers can cover up to a ___ x ___ foot area.

A
  • 20 x 20 feet

Residential sprinkler heads are more heat sensitive than traditional heads, designed to activate between 135 to 175 degrees. Residential heads typically cover a 12 x 12 foot area. Special extended coverage sprinklers can cover up a 20 x 20 foot area.

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28
Q

TB #150 -The Drager X-am 5000 displays in parts per _________.

A
  • Parts per million (PPM)
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29
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X gas meter must not be used if the ____ symbol is displayed in the upper ______ corner of the screen.

A
  • “X” symbol
  • Upper right corner
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30
Q

TB #150 - After turning on the Drager X, the time until the bump test interval elapses is displayed in _____.

A
  • Days
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31
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) During weekly checks, use a _________ if wiping the meter is necessary.

A
  • Damp sponge
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32
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X-am 5000 is a ______ monitor meaning it does not have a mechanical pump to draw in air samples.

A
  • Passive

The meter samples air that passes directly over the gas entry ports. It is extremely important to move the meter high, low, left and right as you monitor an unknown atmosphere due to the differences in vapor densities.

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33
Q

TB #150 - To replace batteries on the Drager X, remove the ___ mm Allen head bolt on the power pack and slide the pack away from the unit. After the batteries are replaced, it will take up to ____ minute(s) for the device to warm-up.

A
  • 2mm Allen head bolt
  • 30 minutes
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34
Q

TB #150 - The combustible gas sensor on the Drager X meter is calibrated to _________.

A
  • Methane

It will detect all explosive hydrocarbon atmospheres such as pentane, butane, propane etc. and will display those readings in the display for methane.

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35
Q

TB #150 - The X-am 5000 is set to alarm at ___% of the LEL for the A1 alarm, and alarm at ___% of the LEL for the A2 alarm.

A
  • A1 alarm - 10% LEL
  • A2 alarm - 20% LEL
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36
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Main alarms (A2) are indicated by _______ intermittent activation of the audible, visual and vibration alarms.

A
  • Double
  • A2 and the measured value will alternate in the display.
  • Main alarms are self-latching and cannot be acknowledged or cancelled.
  • After leaving the area and the concentration drops below the A2 alarm threshold, pressing the OK key will switch off the alarm messages.
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37
Q

TB #150 - Before using the Drager X at an incident, you must clear the ______ values and perform a __________ calibration.

A
  • Peak values
  • Fresh air calibration
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38
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) All sensors are included in the fresh air calibration, with the O2 sensor set at ____% and all other sensors set to 0.

A
  • 20.9%
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39
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) The fresh air calibration is used to improve the ________ accuracy of this meter.

A
  • Zero point

Calibrate the device to fresh air, free of measured gases or other interfering gases. All sensors are included in the fresh air calibration, with the O2 sensor set at 20.9% and all other sensors set to 0. Sensors which have not warmed up or which are faulty will prevent the fresh air calibration and the unit will display the message 159 with the symbol (!) signifying a warning message.

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40
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) When the battery pre-alarm (A1) is activated, the __/__ full battery symbol will flash on the right side of the display. The battery will still last approximately ____ minute(s).

A
  • 1/3 full
  • 20 minutes
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41
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) After calling the information mode and viewing peak values, the device will return to measuring mode if no key if pressed within ____ second(s).

A
  • 10 seconds
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42
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) To switch off the device, press and hold ___ and ___ key until countdown begins (3, 2, 1).

A
  • “OK” key
  • ” + “ key
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43
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Hydrogen has a flammability range of ___% to ___%.

A
  • 4% to 75% (Hydrogen flammability range)
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44
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) While performing a fresh air calibration, sensors which have not warmed up or which are faulty will prevent the fresh air calibration and the unit will display the message ______ with the symbol (!) signifying a warning message.

A
  • 159
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45
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Acetylene has a flammability range of ___% to ___%.

A
  • 2.5% to 100% (Acetylene flammability range)
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46
Q

TB #150 - The combustible gas sensor on the Drager X may display incorrect readings in oxygen poor atmospheres with less than ____% oxygen.

A
  • 10%
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47
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) If a Haz/Mat Squad technician cannot fix your broken meter, who is responsible for sending it to S&M?

A
  • Station of origin

If a meter cannot be fixed, the technician will return it to the station of origin with documentation explaining the problem. At that time, the station of origin will be responsible for sending the meter in for repair and responsible for inventory tracking.

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48
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X-am 5000 has a fifth ______ sensor for explosive vapors.

A
  • Catalytic sensor

The Drager Sensor CatEX 125 (combustible gas sensor) is a transducer for measuring partial pressure of flammable gases or vapors in the atmosphere. It functions according to the heat- ofreaction principle. The ambient air to be monitored diffuses through a sintered metal disc into the sensor where the flammable gases or vapors are burned catalytically at a heateddetector element, called the Pellistor.

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49
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X meter readings will be reported to the Incident Commander through the ____________.

A
  • Haz/Mat Group Supervisor
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50
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X manufacturer does not guarantee this device to be intrinsically safe in oxygen enriched atmospheres greater than _____% oxygen.

A
  • 23.5%

Immediately leave any area with an oxygen reading greater than 23.5%, there is a danger of EXPLOSION!

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51
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) For weekly checks, turn on the device and check the battery icon. Replace the batteries if less than __/__ full.

A
  • 3/4 full
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52
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Pre-alarms (A1) are indicated by ________ intermittent activation of the audible, visual and vibration alarms.

A
  • Single
  • A1 and the measured value will alternate in the display.
  • The pre-alarm will reset itself if concentration drops below the alarm threshold.
  • Press the OK key to acknowledge the pre-alarm; only the audible and vibration alarms are switched off, the visual alarm will continue to flash.
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53
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) When the battery main alarm (A2) is activated, the empty battery symbol will flash on the right side of the display and the device will switch off in _____ second(s).

A
  • 10 seconds
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54
Q

TB #150 - To turn on the Drager X, press and hold the _____ key for approximately ____ second(s) until the countdown 3, 2, 1 shown in the display has expired.

A
  • OK key
  • 3 seconds
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55
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Field testing has shown that the ___ - AA battery(s) last no more than ____ to ____ weeks.

A
  • 2 - AA batteries
  • 2 to 3 weeks
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56
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) The flammability range of methane is between ___% to ___%.

A
  • 5% to 15% (Methane flammability range)

The 5% represents the lower explosive limit (LEL), the point at which there is enough methane vapors in the atmosphere to ignite, and 15% representing the upper explosive limit (UEL), the point at which additional methane would over saturate the atmosphere and be too rich to burn.

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57
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) The recommended calibration interval for all chemical sensors by Haz/Mat Squad personnel is ____ day(s).

A
  • 180 days
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58
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) Gas-specific calibrations are performed by Haz/Mat Squad personnel every ____ month(s) and anytime the meter’s start-up self test indicates a sensor problem.

A
  • 6 months

Fresh air calibrations are performed in the field by emergency responders.

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59
Q

TB #150 - The X-am 5000 is intrinsically safe, resistant to electromagnetic interference, ______, dust, impact and vibrations.

A
  • Water

Also, calibrating this meter is relatively easy. Both fresh air and gas-specific calibrations are extremely important for this meter. Before and after every use, the meter needs to be exposed to fresh air; the meter also needs to be exposed to known concentrations of specific poisonous gases periodically so the meter can maintain its calibration.

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60
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X combustible gas indicator (CGI’s) is not intended for use in chemical atmospheres with wide flammability ranges such as _______ or _______.

A
  • Hydrogen or acetylene

Hydrogen has a flammability range of 4%-75% and acetylene has a flammability range of 2.5%-100%. Because these chemicals have such wide flammability ranges you could potentially already be in an explosive environment the moment your meter detects the presence of a flammable atmosphere. If you suspect the presence of a gas with a very wide flammability range and your CGI is getting readings for methane you must immediately vacate that environment and immediately request LAFD Hazmat Resources.

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61
Q

TB #150 - The Drager X-am 5000 combustible gas meter (CGI) is a ____ sensor gas monitor and alarm device designed for personnel monitoring and confined space applications.

A
  • 5 sensor
  • CO - carbon monoxide
  • O2 - oxygen
  • H2S - hydrogen sulfide
  • HCN - hydrogen cyanide
  • Explosive vapors
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62
Q

TB #150 - (Drager X) While in measuring mode, press the OK key for approximately ____ second(s) for the peak values to be displayed.

A
  • 2 seconds
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63
Q

TB #151 - The directions for the Smokey Pack assembly states to lie out the 100 foot section of 1 inch hose and fold in half, with the male on top, placed _____ inches behind female coupling.

A
  • 24 inches
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64
Q

TB #151 - The lateral on the progressive hose lay is attached to the trunk line with a ____ inch gated wye through a ____ to ____ inch reducer.

A
  • 1-1/2 inch gated wye
  • 1-1/2 to 1 inch reducer
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65
Q

TB #151 - The disadvantage of the progressive hose lay is the higher friction loss due to the increased number of fittings which is approximately ___ to ___ PSI each.

A
  • 5 to 10 PSI each

The Progressive Hose Lay has several advantages over the Simple Hose Lay. First, it provides for a continuous attack on a fire without being forced to shut down the hose to progress up the flanks. Also, it is safer for the direct attack method as it provides a larger safety margin, having charged 1 inch lateral lines left in place for the event of a flare up along the line. Only the 1 inch attack line is advanced charged, increasing deployment speed and decreasing work load.

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66
Q

TB #151 - The 1-1/2 inch nozzle for the Smokey Pack is a __/__ dual gallonage nozzle.

A
  • 18/80 dual gallonage nozzle

1 nozzle per Company

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67
Q

TB #151 - In addition to the four complete Smokey Packs and one Starter Kit, each Company will also receive one compliment of hose consisting of _____ feet each of 1 inch and 1-1/2 inch lightweight hose.

A
  • 1 inch - 400 feet
  • 1-1/2 inch - 400 feet
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68
Q

TB #151 - The test pressures below are for both 1 inch and 1-1/2 inch orange, lightweight hose for the Smokey Pack.

  • Service test - _____ PSI
  • Proof test - _____ PSI
  • Burst test - _____ PSI
A
  • Service test - 300 PSI
  • Proof test - 600 PSI
  • Burst test - 900 PSI
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69
Q

TB #151 - An advantage of a progressive hose lay is it uses a continuous application of water while extending the lay, and allows for a series of lateral junctions at _____ foot intervals.

A
  • 100 foot intervals
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70
Q

TB #151 - A Company given the task of establishing a progressive hose lay is expected to, at a minimum, be able to put in ___ drop(s).

A
  • 3 drops
  • 300 feet of 1-1/2 inch trunk line
  • 100 feet of 1 inch lateral line installed every 100 feet at each drop using lightweight hose
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71
Q

TB #151 - The trunk line on a progressive hose lay will be a minimum size of ____ inch.

A
  • 1-1/2 inch (trunk line minimum)
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72
Q

TB #151 - (Progressive Hose Lay) A company compliment will consist of _____ complete Smokey Packs and one Starter Roll. Each pack weighs approximately _____ pounds.

A
  • 4 Smokey Packs
  • 26 pounds
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73
Q

TB #151 - When establishing a simple hose lay at a brush fire, the use of ____ or ____ inch double jacketed attack lines from the transverse bed of the Engine may be used in the development of this hose lay.

A
  • 1 or 1-1/2 inch
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74
Q

TB #151 - (Progressive Hose Lay) The 1 inch Forestry adapters are National Standard Thread (NST) to National Pipe Thread (NPT) and NPT to NST. What colors are these adaptors painted for indentification?

A
  • White

2 adaptors are included in the Smokey Pack.

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75
Q

TB #151 - During the assembly of the Smokey Pack, continue to feed the hose into the backpack, tightly flaking it in a zigzag fashion. While loading, secure the hose every ____ to ____ feet until the 1 inch line is completely loaded.

A
  • 8 to 10 feet
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76
Q

TB #151 - (Progressive Hose Lay) The methodology to anchor, ______ and ______ in coordination with helicopter support and structure protection remains the desired operational objective.

A
  • Anchor, flank, pinch
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77
Q

TB #151 - Each lateral on a progressive hose lay will have a ____ inch line with a ____ inch nozzle. (__/__ dual gallonage)

A
  • 1 inch line
  • 1 inch nozzle (10/40 dual gallonage)
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78
Q

TB #151 - The weights below are for a 50 foot section coupled of the orange, lightweight hose for the Smokey Pack.

  • 1 inch - ____ pounds
  • 1-1/2 inch - ____ pounds
A
  • 1 inch - 5 pounds
  • 1-1/2 inch - 7 pounds
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79
Q

TB #151 - What are the two methods for deploying hose?

  1. 2.
A
  • Simple
  • Progressive

The Simple Hose Lay relies on a continuous line being advanced around the fire from the Engine to the nozzle with no junctions in between. This hose lay is easily installed and can vary in length as needed. The Simple Hose Lay has the advantage of minimal friction loss due to minimal fittings. The disadvantage is that the water flow must be stopped before it can be extended when adding additional hose. There also are no provisions for safety should the fire flare up behind the lead nozzle operator. Also, a Simple Hose Lay is more difficult to use in the mop-up phase as you must either reverse the installation process or pull large amounts of hose.

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80
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) If you find a suspicious device on scene, what method will you use to notify MFC?

A
  • Department cell phone

Notify MFC of the suspicious device via the Department cell phone and request LAPD Bomb Squad, a Hazardous Materials Squad and the Joint Hazard Assessment Team (JHAT).

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81
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) The extraction device is often a section of ____ inch pipe, approximately ____ feet long.

A
  • 1-3/4 inch pipe
  • 1-1/2 feet long
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82
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) Regarding the extraction device, the resin collects at the bottom of the extractor which is usually lined with a ________ or some other suitable screen.

A
  • Coffee filter
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83
Q

TB #152 - (Honey Butane Oil) Who shall you contact if you have any questions regarding the responses to BHO incidents?

  1. 2.
A
  • LAFD Joint Hazard Assessment Team (JHAT)
  • HMTF personnel
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84
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) Butane and some other gas/solvents with similar low boiling properties will emulsify the cannabis oil into a solvate, pulling out an ______ colored “honey oil” while leaving vegetative oils, waxes, chlorophyll, etc. behind in the plant matter.

A
  • Amber color
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85
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) If a BHO operation is found as a result of a fire or explosion, what additional resource shall be requested from MFC?

A
  • “A” Unit
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86
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) The method used for extracting hash oil has its basis in an industrial extraction method known as _________ Extraction.

A
  • Supercritical Fuild Extraction
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87
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) Butane is more than ____ times heavier than air.

A
  • 2 times

This gas moves to low lying areas on the floor which often are near pilot lights, electrical outlets, discarded cigarette butts, etc.

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88
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) The extracted THC can vary from ___% to ___% concentration in the prepared hash oil. Other sources claim that concentrations of up to 70% are possible.

A
  • 6% to 30%
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89
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) The collected resin is removed and heated to evaporate the remaining solvent and to “______” the end product.

A
  • “Purify”
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90
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) BHO extraction is a crime, and persons will be guilty of a _______ under California Health and Safety Code 11379.6(a).

A
  • Felony

BHO extraction is covered under California Health and Safety Code 11379.6(a) which states in part that, “every person who compounds, converts, produces, derives, processes, or prepares, either directly or indirectly by chemical extraction or independently by means of chemical synthesis, any controlled substance…” is guilty of a felony.

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91
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) Butane has an explosive range of ____% to ____% in air which means it can reach its lower explosive limit (LEL) in even relatively low concentrations.

A
  • 1.8% to 8.4%

Butane is a colorless, odorless gas and has a high potential for ignition and explosion when used in the presence of an ignition source in enclosed spaces without adequate ventilation.

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92
Q

TB #152 - (Butane Honey Oil) Extraction devices are similar in appearance to a Pipe Bomb. One of the end caps will have a single small hole drilled in the center. The other end will usually have ____ or ____ holes drilled and clustered in the center (like a pepper shaker). This is the drainage end of the pipe.

A
  • 5 or 6 holes
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93
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) While completing your structure assessment checklist, make sure the structure has a minimum clearance of _____ feet.

A
  • 100 feet

The steeper the slope, the more clearance required.

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94
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) When using the tactical action “Prep and go,” what structure triage category would these properties fall into?

A
  • Threatened Non-Defensible
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95
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Structure protection should start with a determination of the ______ strategy.

A
  • Exit strategy
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96
Q

TB #155 - Nearly every WUI fire includes responses from a variety of wildland and municipal fire agencies resulting in the need for _____ text and _______ terminology among emergency responders.

A
  • Clear text
  • Common terminology
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97
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) When using the tactical action “Prep and defend,” what structure triage category would these properties fall into?

A
  • Threatened Defensible
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98
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Select the appropriate structure triage category based on the forecasted fire behavior, the surrounding area ______ and any ________ space.

A
  • Area terrain
  • Defensible space
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99
Q

TB #155 - These actions apply to all aspects of wildland firefighting from the incident strategy to the individual line assignments and structure protection. How many levels of engagement are in firefighting?

A
  • 5 levels (DRAW-D)
  • D - Defend
  • R - Reinforce
  • A - Advance
  • W - Withdraw
  • D - Delay
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100
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) General guidelines for structure protection state ____ Engine(s) per structure, one additional Engine for every ____ structure(s) to be used as “backup” and for patrol.

A
  • 1 Engine per structure
  • Every 4 structures (additional Engine)
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101
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) A Safety Zone and a TRA are present and construction features or defensible space make it unlikely that the structure will ignite during initial fire front contact. What structure triage category is this?

A
  • Not-Threatened
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102
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The goal of the tactical action “___________” is to search for victims, effect perimeter control, extinguish spot fires around structures, control hot spots and reduce ember production.

A
  • “Fire Front Following”

“Fire Front Following” is a follow up tactic employed when Check and Go, Prep and Go, or Bump and Run tactics are initially used.

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103
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Regarding water use guidelines, how many gallons of water reserve should you have in your tank?

A
  • 100 gallons
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104
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) What wildland environment are these statements describing?

  • A condition where structures abut the wildland
  • There is a clear line of demarcation between the structures and the wild land fuels along roads or back fences
  • Usually identified as housing tracts or developments adjacent to a wildland area
  • There is a greater potential for house to house ignition
A
  • Interface
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105
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The greatest challenge for the wildland firefighter is making an accurate _________ forecast in advance of the fires arrival.

A
  • Fire behavior forecast
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106
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Reagarding structure protection, structures that are close together, ____ feet or less, one engine may be adequate to protect two structures.

A
  • 50 feet or less
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107
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) What wildland environment are these statements describing?

  • A condition where structures are scattered throughout a wildland area
  • There is no clear line of demarcation; the wildland fuels are continuous outside of and within the developed area
  • Each structure must be assessed independently
  • Usually more complex to triage
  • Usually more complex to defend
  • Usually requires a higher ratio of engines to structures
A
  • Intermix
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108
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) When preparing the structure, for roof access, place the owner’s ladder at a corner of the structure on the side with the ______ fire threat and ______ from the power drop.

A
  • Least fire threat
  • Away from the power drop
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109
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) During wildland firefighting operations, maintain a ____ feet distance from transmission lines.

A
  • 35 feet
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110
Q

TB #155 - Successful WUI firefighting operations are accomplished by selecting sound strategies supported by effective ______ actions that keep firefighters safe, protect the public and minimize property loss.

A
  • Effective tactical actions
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111
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The tactical action “_________” is where resources typically move ahead of the fire front in the spotting zone to extinguish spot fires and hot spots, and to defend as many structures as possible.

A
  • “Bump and run”

Bump and Run is a defensive tactic when fire front impact in the WUI is imminent and there are not enough resources to effectively take perimeter control action. It is an offensive tactic when resources are steering the head of the fire to a desirable end point.

Fire line supervisors and strike team/task force leaders must realize that Bump and Run places resources in front of the advancing fire front and that extreme caution should be exercised.

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112
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The first and foremost intent during structure defense is to keep _______ and the ______ safe.

A
  • Firefighters
  • Public
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113
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) A preplanned area of sufficient size and suitable location that is expected to protect fire personnel from known hazards without using fire shelters. What is this term?

A
  • Safety Zone
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114
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) How many tactical actions are available to structure defense resources?

A
  • 7 tactical actions
  • Check and go
  • Prep and go
  • Prep and defend
  • Fire front following
  • Bump and run
  • Anchor and hold
  • Tactical patrol
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115
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) A Safety Zone and a TRA are present and construction features, lack of defensible space, or other challenges requires firefighters to implement structure defense tactics during fire front contact. What structure triage category is this?

A
  • Threatened Defensible
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116
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Firefighters must anticipate the unexpected and build agility (Tactical Maneuver) into their plan with contingency planning. The lexicon for contingency planning is ________.

A
  • P.A.C.E.

Implement P.A.C.E. prior to engaging in any structure protection action.

  • P - Primary plan (offense)
  • A - Alternate plan (offense)
  • C - Contingency plan (defense)
  • E - Emergency plan (defense)
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117
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) A preplanned area where firefighters can immediately take refuge for temporary shelter and short-term relief without using a fire shelter in the event that emergency egress to an established Safety Zone is compromised. What is this term?

A
  • Temporary Refuge Area (TRA)

Although Safety Zones and viable escape routes shall always be identified in the WUI environment, they may not be immediately available should the fire behavior increase unexpectedly. Often a Temporary Refuge Area (TRA) is more accessible in the WUI environment. Examples - lee side of structure, inside of structure, large lawn or parking area, cab of apparatus.

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118
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Either there is no Safety Zone or TRA present and/or the structure has challenges that do not allow firefighters to safely commit to stay and protect the structure during fire front contact. What structure triage category is this?

A
  • Threatened Non-Defensible
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119
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The structure defense strategy should reflect a “_______” plan that is broad in scope and provides direction for accomplishing the incident objectives.

A
  • “General” plan

The IC or Operations Section Chief (when assigned) is responsible for establishing the strategy.

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120
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The tactical action “________” utilizes control lines and large water streams from fixed water supplies in an attempt to stop fire spread. The goal is to extinguish structure fires, protect exposures, and reduce ember production.

A
  • “Anchor and hold”

Anchor and hold can be referred to as taking a stand to stop the progression of the fire. Ground resources, such as engine crews and fire crews should staff hose lines and be prepared to extinguish hot spots, fire perimeter, and structures.

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121
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The development of all strategies and tactics should utilize the __________ process to insure firefighter safety.

A
  • Risk management process
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122
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) What should Safety Zones be designated and identified upon?

A
  • Forecasted fire behavior
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123
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Regarding structure defense tactics, the key point is to never get locked into a _______ plan of action.

A
  • Single plan of action

Recognizing that there is always the potential for error in our fire behavior forecast means that we must compensate for the uncertainties by having alternative actions (tactical maneuver) built into the plan.

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124
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) When making decisions on structure defense, you must consider the overall ________ where the structures are located.

A
  • Environment
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125
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) What is the first priority in every fire management activity?

  1. 2.
A
  • Firefighter safety
  • Public safety
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126
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The tactical action “_________” is where the key element is mobility and continuous monitoring of an assigned area.

A
  • “Tactical patrol”
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127
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) The structure defense strategy must take into consideration the numbers and types of resources necessary to accomplish the incident objectives and the ______ time it will take to have them in position.

A
  • Reflex time

A strategy that requires a large number of resources to execute the plan will fail if the needed resources cannot arrive in a timely fashion.

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128
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) While performing structure protection, do not base your decision to remain at a structure and/or the safety of your personnel on the use of _______.

A
  • SCBA’s
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129
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) While completing your structure assessment checklist, check to see if the road access grade is greater than ____%.

A
  • 15%
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130
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) When using the tactical action “Check and go,” what structure triage category would these properties fall into?

A
  • Threatened Non-Defensible
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131
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Where the structure defense strategy gives firefighters a general plan, _______ are the specific actions firefighters will take to accomplish the incident objectives.

A
  • Tactics = specific actions
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132
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Implies movement or purposeful reaction to change, builds agility into a tactical plan by allowing resources to work and move around in a hazardous environment without injury, while remaining effective. What is this describing?

A
  • Tactical maneuver

Tactical maneuver is most effective when potential changes to the primary plan have been identified and firefighter’s reactions to those changes are planned out.

Firefighters must be prepared to utilize tactical maneuver when changing from structure defense mode (defensive) to suppression mode (offensive) when fire behavior allows. It is imperative to take advantage of situations that allow for firefighters to take perimeter control actions and suppress the fire.

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133
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) For a structure defense size-up, evaluate the location of the structure and surrounding area with the _______ fire behavior inmind.

A
  • Forecasted
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134
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Incident containment strategies specifically address and integrate protection of defendable _______ property and wildland _______.

A
  • Improved property
  • Wildland values
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135
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) Spot fires or low ground fires can be fought with hose lines if heavy smoke or flame is not within ____ feet of the power lines.

A
  • 100 feet
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136
Q

TB #155 - (WUI) How many basic “structure environments” are there in the wildland?

A
  • 2 environments
  • Interface - a condition where structures abut the wildland.
  • Intermix - a condition where structures are scattered throughout a wildland area.
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137
Q

TB #156 - There are over _______ hillside structures in the City, including platform homes, multi-story pre-fabricated homes, custom homes, apartments and commercial buildings.

A
  • 400,000
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138
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) If fire attack companies are opening doors on the sub-level simultaneously, the mixture of cool air and super-heated gasses from one level to the next can create _______ conditions on the floors above.

A
  • Flashover conditions
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139
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) Floor systems have the potential to collapse under fire conditions, even when the subfloor may appear solid. Using a sounding tool to check floor integrity can be a false indicator of the stability of the actual entire floor system. What is an alternative method to sounding for checking potential fire below you on a hillside home?

A
  • Cut an indicator hole with an axe or similar tool
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140
Q

TB #156 - One of the most important tactical watch outs in a multi-story hillside home is the ability to perform a ______.

A
  • 360

A 360 is a term used to provide reconnaissance. The process is imperative and involves the first arriving Officer to remove themselves from the apparatus and obtain as much information about the home as possible by visualizing all sides of the property. Once the Officer has obtained situational awareness, that Officer can direct their company more appropriately on how to attack the fire and provide direction to incoming companies on the proposed strategy.

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141
Q

TB #156 - How many general categories are there of hillside homes?

A
  • 3 categories
  • Descending hillside
  • Ascending hillside
  • Cantilever
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142
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) Whenever _____ resource(s) are assigned to the same geographic area or function at an incident, one of the officers shall be placed in command of that geographic area or function (Division/Group Supervisor).

A
  • 2 resources

Hillside homes present a challenge organizationally - even more so when they are located on a descending hillside.

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143
Q

TB #156 - Occupancies that are built on a _______ slope are the most dangerous because of the possibility that entry from the grade level into the structure could possibly place firefighters above the fire when the fire originates on a lower floor.

A
  • Descending slope
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144
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) Regardless of a cantilever construction or a descending hillside home, the organization is the same. Any occupancy having a floor at street or grade level would become the first floor or ______ 1. The next level below grade would become ______ 1 and sequentially below that floor would become ______ 2.

A
  • Division 1
  • Sub-level 1
  • Sub-level 2

It is the practice of the Los Angeles Fire Department that any sub-level Division may be communicated it its abbreviated form as Sub 1 or Sub 2 to assist with clear text radio communications.

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145
Q

TB #156 - The hillside home training bulletin has been developed as a result of multiple….

  1. 2.
A
  • Line of Duty Deaths (LODD)
  • Near miss incidents

Data from multiple sources has been collected to formulate strategy, tactics and tactical watch outs for fires in hillside homes.

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146
Q

TB #156 - One of our biggest challenges with fires in hillside homes is gaining access to ______ floors from grade level.

A
  • Lower floors
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147
Q

TB #156 - On a hillside home fire, a complete 360 may not be possible, however, identifying a ________ at or below the fire is the highest priority.

A
  • Portal of entry
148
Q

TB #156 - Cantilever hillside homes were originally built in the early _____’s. Also known as _____ homes, they were built on steep vacant hillside lots perched precariously on land that was formerly considered unbuildable.

A
  • 1900’s
  • Stilt homes

These homes were one story and typically utilized wood construction and heavy timber wood supports tied to the original foundation.

149
Q

TB #156 - If the initial fire attack team enters through the front door of a descending hillside home and the second arriving company accesses the home from any sub-level, the results can be catastrophic. This simple course of action can create a flashover in less than _________.

A
  • Less than a minute

This creates a life threatening situation for any company above the fire floor. If a fire exists on any sub-level, the simple act of opening the front door at street level can immediately create an accelerated flow path to the first floor. Combined with introduction of increased flow pressure from the sub-level and an unenclosed stairwell, the mixture of superheated gasses and oxygen ignite.

150
Q

TB #156 - Later generation stilt homes were built on a concrete or wood foundation and utilized steel poles to support the entire home which could cantilever out as much as _____ feet over the hillside.

A
  • 75 feet

Portals of entry for these types of occupancies are usually from the street side through the front door or garage area. Modern architecture of cantilever homes utilizes concrete, steel, corrugated metal, and fiberglass - and may have multiple floors hanging over the hillside. The support of these homes is typically concrete pilasters buried into the hillside. Regardless, the portals of entry generally remain the same - through the front of the structure. When a fire is located on sub level floors, it can create one of the most dangerous environments in structural firefighting.

151
Q

TB #156 - When engaging in fire attack on a descending hillside home, fire attack, backup fire attack, and all other interior resources shall utilize a _______ portal of entry until water has been applied on the seat of fire.

A
  • Common portal of entry
152
Q

TB #156 - ________ hillside homes are built on the upslope side of the roadway.

A
  • Ascending hillside homes

Unlike the descending hillside home, access to the first floor does not present the same hazards unless entry is made from an upper floor. Often they are cut into the hillside depending on the percentage of slope. On larger properties with shallow slopes, you may find long driveways leading up to a flat pad. Steeper slopes may contain block retaining walls outlining the first floor.

153
Q

TB #156 - ________ hillside homes can normally be handled with similar firefighting strategies and tactics utilized for a traditional single or multi-family dwelling.

A
  • Ascending hillside homes
154
Q

TB #156 - On hillside home incidents, it is imperative that every attempt is made to conduct a _______ survey to determine the fire extent and floor of origin.

A
  • 360 degree survey

Clearly communicate this information to other resources before initiating interior firefighting operations.

155
Q

TB #156 - It is the LAFD practice that any hillside home that has one or more floors below grade with access shall be attacked, whenever possible, from a portal of entry at or _____ the origin of the fire.

A
  • At or below the origin
156
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) ___________ define those standard activities that are performed by the Incident Commander to establish the tactical priorities and incident objectives.

A
  • Standards of Command

Utilizing the LAFD Standards of Command as a strategic guidance template will assist officers in safely and effectively managing a structure fire in a hillside home.

157
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) What is the frequent obstacle that hillside homes present, which prevents the Incident Commander from getting up to date situational awareness?

A
  • Difficult access

Dependent upon when the initial Captain II, or Battalion Command Team arrives on scene, they may very well be blocked from having any view of the involved structure. The Incident Commander has a variety of options to overcome this obstacle and ensure safe and effective fire ground operations.

158
Q

TB #156 - If the hillside home building features make it impossible to attack the fire at or below the lowest level of fire involvement, concerned officers should consider “_________” with limited and focused application of water streams from the exterior, directly through windows with visible fire showing.

A
  • “Softening the target”

The focused application of a straight hose stream will significantly reduce interior temperatures and is intended to lessen the potential for flashover. This tactic of applying a water stream from the exterior shall only be utilized prior to companies initiating interior operations.

159
Q

TB #156 - A hillside home on the ascending side would follow normal terminology. The first floor at street or grade level would become ______ 1. The next level above the first floor would become ______ 2, etc.

A
  • Division 1
  • Division 2

It is possible to have numbered Divisions and lettered Divisions coexist at the same incident. Exposures (in hillside homes) would likely be handled as lettered divisions. Usually, they would consist of Bravo, Charlie and Delta Divisions as geographical areas surrounding the involved occupancies.

160
Q

TB #156 - Multi-story cantilever hillside homes that have no doorway access from sub-levels require an ___________ assessment of how long the fire has been burning.

A
  • Operational risk assessment

The fire attack team shall provide a risk versus gain tactical analysis of an offensive fire attack from a floor above the fire vs. a defensive attack with water through an opening (such as a window) from the exterior at the identified fire floor. If an offensive attack is considered as the only means, then it is imperative that a backup fire attack team has a hose line in place before descending the interior stairwell.

161
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) Exposures in hillside homes would likely be handled as ________ divisions.

A
  • Lettered Divisions (Exposures)

It is possible to have numbered Divisions and lettered Divisions coexist at the same incident. Exposures, usually, would consist of Bravo, Charlie and Delta Divisions as geographical areas surrounding the involved occupancies.

162
Q

TB #156 - In hillside homes, if heated fire gasses are not released, they will accumulate and begin to bank down and spread laterally through the process called __________.

A
  • Mushrooming

This can be seen in hillside homes as the hotter air travels quickly up through the unenclosed stairwell. Proper ventilation will reduce this mushrooming effect, which will in turn reduce the rate that fire can spread over an area. It is crucial that fire attack and ventilation be coordinated, as premature ventilation can create an undesired flow path with potentially catastrophic consequences.

163
Q

TB #156 - (Hillside Homes) In an effort to ensure an appropriate risk profile, strategy, tactics, deployment, and organization is developed, the Incident Commander may remain at a fixed command post location and assign an initial arriving Captain, or the second arriving Battalion Commander as the ____________ Chief.

A
  • Operations Section Chief

Another option is to pass Incident Command to an in coming Battalion Command Team and deploy as the Operations Section Chief to supervise and validate tactical operations. This option can only occur if the Battalion Command Team is on scene. The Incident Commander remains responsible for the functions of command, other than the management of tactical operations.

164
Q

TB #156 - Regarding hillside homes, the changes in construction styles and methods have permitted larger homes to maximize use of the entire square footage of the property, sometimes called “_________.”

A
  • “Mansionization”
165
Q

TB #156 - What is the key to safe, effective and successful navigation of hillside home structure fires?

  • Consistent ______________
  • Continual __________
A
  • Consistent standard operating procedures (SOP’s)
  • Continual education
166
Q

TB #156 - An additional consideration for hillside home incidents would be ____ or ____ additional tactical channels for staging or miscellaneous groups established later in the incident.

A
  • 1 or 2 additional tactical channels

Clear text communication includes conditions and needs and shall be limited to information that affects the outcome or tactical direction of the incident.

167
Q

TB #156 - On a hillside home, if the fire is below grade and the only entry to establish fire attack is from the first floor, then a contingency plan of providing _______ ventilation needs to be considered.

A
  • Horizontal ventilation

A ventilation hole over the interior stairwell should only be initiated after the fire attack team has descended the stairwell to the fire floor and communicated the progress of the attack. This is one of the most significant tactical decisions in a descending hillside home event. The impact of creating an accelerated flow path resembling a chimney, to a fire attack team advancing down an interior stairwell, could be devastating.

168
Q

TB #157 - (Evacuation Aid Bag) Who restocks the Quick Clot Combat Gauze and the Combat Application Tourniquets?

A
  • EMS Battalion Captains

Restock shall be done through monthly station Supply Requisition System (SRS), with the exception of Quick Clot Combat Gauze and the Combat Application Tourniquets. Once distributed, re-stock will be done via the EMS Battalion Captains. EMS Battalion Captains shall review incident ePCR for appropriate use of this item prior to restock.

169
Q

TB #157 - When restocking the Trauma Treatment Evacuation Aid Bag, how are most items replaced?

A
  • Monthly station SRS order

The exception is the Quick Clot Combat Gauze and the Combat Application Tourniquets.

170
Q

TB #157 - The ALS equipment for the Evacuation Aid Bag will be contained within a _________ ALS roll, which is located in the _______ compartment.

A
  • Removable ALS roll
  • Lower compartment
171
Q

TB #157 - (Evacuation Aid Bag) What are the four preventable causes of death?

      1. 4.
A
  • Massive hemorrhage
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Airway obstruction
  • Hypothermia
172
Q

TB #157 - The BLS equipment for the Evacuation Aid Bag is located in the _______ compartment, which opens completely.

A
  • Upper compartment
173
Q

TB #157 - How many CAT tourniquets are carried in the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag?

A
  • 4 tourniquets (2 on each side exterior)
174
Q

TB #157 - The weight of the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid bag without content is ___ pounds, weight in BLS configuration ___ pounds and ALS configuration is ___ pounds.

A
  • 3 pounds - no contents
  • 13.5 pounds - BLS configuration
  • 17 pounds - ALS configuration
175
Q

TB #157 - (Evacauation Aid Bag) The Littmann Stethoscope is an ________ item and shall remain within the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag.

A
  • Inventory item

Carried in the (D) diagnostic compartment.

176
Q

TB #157 - (Evacuation Aid Bag) Explain each letter for the MARCH algorithm…

  • M - _______
  • A - _______
  • R - _______
  • C - _______
  • H - _______
A
  • M - Massive hemorrhage
  • A - Airway
  • R - Respiration
  • C - Circulation
  • H - Hypothermia
177
Q

TB #157 - The intent of the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag is to bring critical ________ equipment to the patient in one compact backpack.

A
  • Lifesaving equipment
178
Q

TB #157 - The Evacuation Aid Bag is specifically designed to treat __________ during Active Shooter/Multi-Casualty Incidents (AS/MCI).

A
  • Trauma injuries

It could also be used for earthquakes, lost/injured hikers, cliff rescues or any situation where trauma injuries are the primary concern for the patient. This backpack is a viable option to the LAFD standard issued trauma box due to its portability and ease of use.

179
Q

TB #157 - How many triage tags are carried in the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag?

A
  • 10 triage tags

Stored in the (E) compartment.

180
Q

TB #157 - The Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag, is made of ______ Denier DuPont Cordura ______ with a water-resistant ________ coating.

A
  • 1000 Denier DuPont Cordura Nylon
  • Urethane coating
181
Q

TB #157 - (Evacuation Aid Bag) SAM splints are one size, malleable splints that can easily be used to stabilize injured/fractured extremities. How many are carried in the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag?

A
  • 2 SAM splints

SAM splints are carried on the back side of the bag.

182
Q

TB #157 - The Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag comes with a heavy duty, self-repairing _________ zipper.

A
  • Nylon coil zipper
183
Q

TB #157 - (Evacuation Aid Bag) In 20___, the Department joined with regional work groups to develop policies and procedures to treat patients in various tactical environments.

A
  • 2014
184
Q

TB #157 - The Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag is capable of treating ____ patient(s) addressing the _____ preventable causes of death, utilizing the ______ algorithm.

A
  • 2 patients
  • 4 preventable causes of death
  • MARCH algorithm
185
Q

TB #157 - The dimensions for the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag are ___ H x ___ W x ___ D inches

A
  • 20 H x 13 W x 3 D inches
186
Q

TB #157 - If the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag is soiled, ______ clean with a mild detergent such as _______ liquid and warm water.

A
  • Hand clean
  • Dishwashing liquid

Allow bag to dry completely in a well-ventilated, shaded area to prevent mildew, prior to placing back into operation.

187
Q

TB #158 - After applying the QuickClot Combat Gauze, if bleeding continues after ____ minute(s) of direct pressure, consider application of a second hemostatic dressing.

A
  • 5 minutes

Remove initial Combat Gauze and re-pack wound with a new/sterile Combat Gauze.

188
Q

TB #158 - On the EPCR, document the use of the QuickClot hemostatic dressing under the ________ section.

A
  • Treatment section
189
Q

TB #158 - Who will replace the QuickClot Combat Gauze hemostatic dressings?

A
  • EMS Battalion Captains

The replacement hemostatic dressings will be issued by the EMS Battalion Captains, to ensure inventory control and proper use.

190
Q

TB #158 - Who will provide the initial training for the QuickClot Combat Gauze?

A
  • Tactical EMS (TEMS) Specialist

They will present a classroom session and skills verification.

191
Q

TB #158 - The QuikClot Combat Gauze is impregnated with ______, an inert, naturally occurring substance that works by interacting with a protein found in the blood, which promotes acceleration of the body’s existing clotting capabilities.

A
  • Kaolin

It also helps foster platelet adhesion at the wound site for clot formation without producing heat.

192
Q

TB #158 - When using the QuickClot Combat Gauze, open the package utilizing a tear point and remove gauze. Why do you keep the package after opening?

A
  • Provides hospital staff with product removal instructions
193
Q

TB #158 - Who can you contact for ongoing training and support regarding the QuickClot Combat Gauze?

A
  • EMS Training Unit
194
Q

TB #158 - QuikClot Combat Gauze LE is sterile gauze ____ inches wide x ____ yard(s) in length and is in a ___-fold format to facilitate wound packing.

A
  • 3 inches wide x 4 yards
  • Z-fold format

It is flexible and absorbent, conforms readily to the injury site and will not break down or fall apart under pressure. It comes sealed in a vacuum-packed, plastic pouch with tear points for rapid opening. The distinct packaging will facilitate differentiation from the standard 4 x 4 or roll gauze.

195
Q

TB #158 - Apply the QuickClot Combat Gauze packing into the wound by gently inserting gauze, ___ to ___ folds at a time, into the wound opening until the wound cavity is filled ensuring that contact is made at the site of the bleeding blood vessel.

A
  • 1 to 2 folds

Excess gauze should be used for application over the site of the packed wound.

196
Q

TB #158 - (QuickClot Combat Gauze) Where can you view the video presentation of QuikClot products?

A
  • Z-Medica website
197
Q

TB #158 - The initial distribution for the QuickClot Combat Gauze will be _____ QuikClot Combat Gauze to each BLS and ALS resource.

A
  • 2 QuickClot Combat Gauze
198
Q

TB #158 - After applying the QuickClot Combat Gauze, apply direct pressure on top of the packed wound and hold for _____ minute(s) or until bleeding stops.

A
  • 3 minutes
199
Q

TB #158 - Hemostatic dressings are designed for the control of traumatic _________ external hemorrhage, which is unable to be managed by direct pressure and/or tourniquet application.

A
  • Exsanguinating
200
Q

TB #158 - After applying the QuickClot Combat Gauze, reassess the patient’s status at least every ____ minute(s).

A
  • 5 minutes
201
Q

TB #158 - Where is the QuickClot Combat Gauze placed and stored?

A
  • Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag

The products shall be placed inside the Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag, in the B/C (bleeding/circulation) compartment, as described in Training Bulletin #157.

202
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) What is the preferred source of electricity for powering the two blowers for the Air Rescue Cushion?

A
  • The Truck’s on-board generator
203
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) Currently, there are ____ 70-foot and ____ 100-foot Air Rescue Cushions.

A
  • 8 - 70 foot
  • 4 - 100 foot
  • Light Force 2 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 26 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 27 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 37 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 60 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 64 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 85 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 94 - 70 feet
  • Light Force 10 - 100 feet
  • Light Force 20 - 100 feet
  • Light Force 88 - 100 feet
  • Light Force 95 - 100 feet
204
Q

TB #159 - How many different suicide jumper dispatch assignments are there?

A
  • 2 assignments
  • Standard Assignment
  • 1 BC
  • 1 Light Force/Air Cusion
  • 1 Light Force
  • 2 Engines
  • 1 EMS Captain
  • 1 PM RA
  • Harbor Assignment
  • Add a Fireboat to the Standard Assignment
205
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) If the person threatening suicide is located in a building above ground and no police officers are at the person’s location, send a Fire Company to the location and establish an _________.

A
  • Inner perimeter

Attempt to remove and keep all civilians out of the area and await the arrival of law enforcement personnel. Ensure that these members have communication with a fire department member outside the building who has a direct visual on the subject. If the subject retreats from his or her location back inside the building, it may be necessary for fire personnel to exit the building and wait for law enforcement.

206
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) If there are parked cars obstructing the best location to deploy the Air Rescue Cushion, attempt to locate the owners. Who will move the vehicles?

  1. 2.
A
  • Firefighters or
  • Police Officers
207
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) Crisis Negotiators are an element within the LAPD ________, and also includes a staff psychologist from their Behavioral Sciences Services.

A
  • LAPD SWAT team
208
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) The Air Rescue Cushion will fully inflate in less than ____ seconds and re-inflate in ____ seconds.

A
  • 60 seconds
  • 20 seconds (re-inflate)
209
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) Assign at least one SWAT officer to the _________ Group to ensure effective communication between the tactical component, Crisis Negotiators, firefighters and officers who may be located above ground with the subject.

A
  • Air Cushion Group
210
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) Ensure that a Rescue Ambulance is assigned to the ________ Group to potentially treat the suspect if he or she jumps.

A
  • Air Cushion Group
211
Q

TB #159 - Suicide jumper incidents are typically law enforcement driven since dealing with a suicidal individual. They normally will end in an arrest or detention pursuant to 5150 of the ______ and _______ Code if no crime has been committed.

A
  • Welfare and Institutions Code
212
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) For complex suicide jumper incidents that involve a significant commitment of LAFD resources, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) shall be developed. The fire department will be responsible for the following…

      1. 4.
A
  • Rescue Group
  • Air Cushion Group
  • Communications Plan
  • Other Condiderations (Tactical Medics, Intelligence Officer, etc.)
213
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) If it is determined that a person is in an elevated or dangerous location and is possibly intending to harm themselves, then it will be important to validate their _______.

A
  • Intent

This may be accomplished simply by visualizing their actions without the necessity to engage in dialogue. There are obvious indicators that a person may be threatening to commit suicide. For example, they may have verbalized their intentions, removed clothing, or manifested other irrational behaviors indicative of emotional distress or psychological impairment. If these obvious indicators are present, time may be of the essence to set up a coordinated response.

214
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) If the subject is taken into custody at his or her location, who will perform the patient assessment and coordinate transport if needed?

A
  • Rescue Group
215
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) When a person has indicated their intent to harm themselves, avoid underestimating the danger or threat based solely on the person’s ________.

A
  • Location

A person on the roof of a one-story structure, in the window of a two-story building, atop a power pole, or adjacent to a cliff, may still be capable of causing serious injury or death to themselves or others, including rescuers.

216
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) It may be unavoidable and FD personnel will have to dialogue with the suicidal individual. Try to determine the “main theme.” ____ or ____ major themes will usually predominate.

A
  • 1 or 2 major themes

Subjects may have directed anger at someone and want that person to pay for whatever they feel was done to them or they see life as hopeless. You can deal more directly with the problem if you know which of these themes predominate. If one approach doesn’t work, try another. If your attempt doesn’t work or seems to aggravate the situation, quickly back off. It is amazing what will solve the problem and what won’t.

217
Q

TB #159 - (Suicide Jumper) If law enforcement is not yet onscene, request the response of LAPD, including __________ Unit personnel.

A
  • LAPD, Mental Evaluation Unit personnel
218
Q

TB #160 - The Americo Non-Contact Thermometer uses a ____ volt battery that is located in the battery compartment on the ______ of the unit.

A
  • 9 volt
  • Front of the unit

The battery cover remains attached by a hinge at the base of the handgrip.

219
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) Before first use or after changing the battery, wait ___ to ___ minutes for the device to warm up.

A
  • 5 to 10 minutes
220
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) Whenever a temperature is taken, it shall be documented on the EPCR in the ______ section in the temperature field. The temperature field will accept up to ____ digit(s).

A
  • Vitals section
  • 4 digits

Temperatures should be entered in Fahrenheit.

221
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) When you press the trigger button, the temperature will be displayed in ____ second(s).

A
  • A 1/2 second
222
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) The advantages of this thermometer is that the infrared arterial temperature is measured using the device pointed towards the center of the ________.

A
  • Forehead

This method of measuring temperature is more precise than tympanic thermometry and better tolerated than rectal thermometry in adults and children.

223
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) When the LCD displays a “___” sign, the battery is depleted and needs to be replaced.

A
  • ” +”
224
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) The device should be wiped clean with a cloth moistened with an ________ solution and then wiped dry.

A
  • Anti-microbial
225
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) Can rechargeable batteries be used in the TIA NC-9900?

A
  • Never
226
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) If the temperature displays “LO”, measurements may have been taken too rapidly. You should wait at least ____ to ____ seconds between measurements.

A
  • 15 to 60 seconds
227
Q

TB #160 - If a patient has a fever, how many warning beep(s) will the Americo Non-Contact thermometer emit?

A
  • 3 beeps
228
Q

TB #160 -The Americo Non-Contact Thermometer (TIA NC -9900) has ________ technology and will allow temperatures to be taken at a distance of approximately ____ to ____ inches from the forehead.

A
  • Infrared technology
  • 2 to 6 inches (5-15cm)

Precise, instantaneous and without patient contact, a non-touch thermometer is the most suitable thermometer for no risk temperature measurement. The TIA NC-9900 thermometer is designed to operate regardless of the room temperature.

229
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) If the LCD display shows “HI”, this indicates that the temperature reading is above the normal measurement range.

  • Above ____°F in BODY mode
  • Above ____°F in SURFACE mode
A
  • Above 109°F in BODY mode
  • Above 140°F in SURFACE mode
230
Q

TB #160 - How many temperature measurements can the Americo Non-Contact Thermometer recall?

A
  • 32 measurements
231
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) The default value indicating a fever is _____ degrees F.

A
  • 100.5 degrees F

The fever 3 alarm beep will sound.

232
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) The glass may be cleaned with a cotton swab moistened with ___________.

A
  • Rubbing alcohol
233
Q

TB #160 - (Americo Non-Contact Thermometer) If the LCD display shows “LO”, the temperature reading is below ____ degrees F.

A
  • 90 degrees F
234
Q

TB #161 - Every ______ morning, LADWP provides the Life Support Device Discount Program (LSDP) database to the Department via placement of the database file on a secure server established by LADWP.

A
  • Tuesday morning

The Department accesses and downloads the file every Tuesday morning. That same afternoon, the file is automatically deleted from the secure server.

235
Q

TB #161 - To assist the LAFD with Electricity Dependent Resident Locations, the Los Angeles Department of Water and Power (LADWP) has agreed to share, on an ongoing, pre-event, proactive basis, the address locations of their customers enrolled in their ________ Device Discount Program.

A
  • Life Support Device Discount Program (LSDP)
236
Q

TB #161 - LADWP’s Life Support Device Discount Program (LSDP) has a database that currently includes over _____ customers names and locations.

A
  • 4,500
237
Q

TB #161 - In 20__, an IT solution was implemented how the LAFD/LADWP share information regarding Electricity Dependent Resident Locations.

A
  • 2014
238
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The 46 inch water supply system is equipped with 2-1/2 inch NST outlets every ____ feet within the tunnel.

A
  • 200 feet
239
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The tunnel is equipped with a hard-wired phone every _____ to _____ feet in the tunnel, as well as on the TBM, at the cross-passages and the portals.

A
  • 800 to 1,000 feet
240
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The Fire Department will respond to ______ portal entry(s) during the construction of the MRCTC Project.

A
  • 3 portal entries
  • 1st Street and Central Avenue
  • 2nd Street and Broadway Street
  • 2nd Street and Hope Street
241
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Entry into a tunnel with a known compromised atmosphere beyond initial observation or atmospheric testing is limited to US&R certified members only. They must utilize the _______ re-breather apparatus and take gas readings periodically while in the tunnel.

A
  • Drager re-breather
242
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Compromised atmospheres are the greatest risk in tunnel construction. There are intrinsically safe fans, _______ CFM, that provide ventilation and evacuation air from the tunnel through a ____ inch vent pipe.

A
  • 100,000 CFM
  • 66 inch vent pipe

As the air is evacuated, fresh air enters the tunnel through the main portal. The contractor has the ability to reverse the direction of the airflow if required during an emergency.

243
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The third arriving company will operate in the portal adjacent to the tunnel and is responsible for __________.

A
  • Technical Support

Technical Support Team is augmented with US&R certified staffing from the first arriving US&R Task Force.

244
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Cal/OSHA requires that tunneling contractors provide rescue team personnel that meet specified training requirements if more than ____ worker(s) will be operating in a Tunnel or Shaft.

A
  • 10 workers

The Fire Department has agreed to be that rescue team as we can meet the requirement of having a rescue team on site within 30 minutes.

245
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) These tunnels are required to be constructed with a pressurized-face TBM and will have an excavated diameter of approximately ____ feet, and a widely variable depth of cover.

A
  • 22 feet
246
Q

TB #162 - The Metro Regional Connector Transit Corridor Project (MRCTC Project) will add _____ new underground stations.

A
  • 3 new underground stations
247
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) When the first arriving US&R Certified Company arrives, the officer establishes __________ in the portal, adjacent to the tunnel.

A
  • Tunnel Division

The remainder of the company will prepare for tunnel entry operations.

248
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) There is a ______ volt AC supply in the tunnel that is transformed down to ____ volts.

A
  • 13,200 volt AC
  • 480 volts

The main panel is located in the portal at the Mangrove site. Do not turn off system, confer with the Site Engineer.

249
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) US&R certified entry teams are comprised of an even number of personnel (buddy system), usually ____ but never less than ____ members.

A
  • 6 (usual size team)
  • 4 (never less than)
250
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Perimeter Control will ensure that no unauthorized persons are allowed to enter the incident site. Who is this function normally assigned to?

A
  • Law enforcement personnel
251
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The Entry Coordinator will operate in the Portal, directly adjacent to the tunnel. Who does the Entry Coordinator report to?

A
  • Tunnel Division
252
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) All Fire personnel, provided they wear an SCBA and a Self-Rescuer respirator, may enter a tunnel with a non-compromised atmosphere if….

  • Oxygen levels between 19.5 to ____%
  • CO levels no greater than ____ ppm
  • H2S no greater than ____ ppm
  • NO2 no greater than ____ ppm
  • CO2 levels no greater than 5% LEL no greater than ____%
A
  • Oxygen levels between 19.5 to 23%
  • CO levels no greater than 25 ppm
  • H2S no greater than 10 ppm
  • NO2 no greater than 5 ppm
  • CO2 levels no greater than 5% LEL no greater than 10%
253
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Tunnel construction and excavation began in September 2014 with an expected completion date of 20___.

A
  • 2020
254
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The life of the project budget for the Metro Rail Connector Construction Phase is $______ billion.

A
  • $1.366 billion
255
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Entry portals that the fire department will respond to are ____ to ____ feet deep.

A
  • 45 to 90 deep

The tunnels are equipped with extinguishing systems, fire detection devices, and emergency lighting. Access into the portals is by OSHA compliant stairway-encased ladders and/or a construction elevator.

256
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Cal/OSHA requires that tunneling contractors provide a rescue team for over 10 workers. LAFD has agreed to be that rescue team as we can meet the requirement of having a rescue team on site within ____ minute(s).

A
  • 30 minutes
257
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Staging will operate above ground in close proximity to the Portal opening. Who does Staging report to?

A
  • Operations
258
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The Tunnel Utility will be assigned to Fire Station ____. The Tunnel Utility is a Fire Department Rescue Ambulance with ____ complete Drager BG 4 re-breathers, cyalume glow sticks, flashlights and other pertinent tools and equipment to support the use of the re-breathers.

A
  • Fire Station 88
  • 18 Dragers
259
Q

TB #162 - The Metro Regional Connector Transit Corridor Project (MRCTC Project) will add _____ miles of service.

A
  • 1.9 miles of service
260
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Where is the main electrical panel located for the Metro Rail Connector Construction Project?

A
  • Mangrove site

There is a 13,200-volt AC supply in the tunnel that is transformed down to 480 volts.

261
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) US&R companies carry an entire “confined-space” hardware communication system with well over _____ feet of wire for communication within the tunnel.

A
  • 1,000 feet
262
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) According to the Principal Engineer for the State of California and Cal/OSHA Mining and Tunneling Unit, LAFD members may enter the tunnel to affect a rescue as long as they comply with CCR Title ___, Section 8430, Subchapter 20-Tunnel Safety Orders.

A
  • CCR Title 8
263
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The first on scene officer gives a radio size-up, assumes the initial responsibility of Incident Commander, and assigns his company to __________.

A
  • Lobby/Systems Control
264
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The MRCTC Project includes one mined crossover structure, which is located immediately east of the 2nd Street/Broadway Street Station and is _____ feet in length.

A
  • 289 feet

The finished internal dimensions of the cavern would be approximately 56 feet wide and 30 feet high. Ground cover over the cavern is approximately 60 feet. It is anticipated that this structure will be constructed using Sequential Evacuation Methods (SEM) to enlarge the previously bored tunnels.

265
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The “_________” site is located between the 1st Street and Alameda branches of the alignment.

A
  • “Mangrove”

This area will be provided for the Design-Build Contractor’s use and will provide space for a Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) launch pit and staging area. Currently the Mangrove site is occupied by a parking lot.

266
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Each Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) has a crew of approximately _____ miners with additional personnel aboveground. During shift change, ____ to ____ personnel may be on-site.

A
  • 10 miners
  • 50 to 75 personnel

The hours of operation will vary, predicated on noise and traffic restrictions.

267
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) By law, all personnel who enter a mining (tunneling) site must wear a ____ hour self-rescue device to provide a means for escape from a hazardous non-breathable atmosphere.

A
  • 1 hour

When a compromised atmosphere is encountered, it is required that members don the self-rescue device and immediately exit the tunnel.

268
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) What will the second arriving company establish?

A
  • Staging

Staging is established above ground in close proximity to the Portal opening.

269
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) The Tunnel Utility will be assigned to Fire Station 88. The Tunnel Utility is a Fire Department Rescue Ambulance with 18 complete ______ BG 4 re-breathers.

A
  • Drager BG 4 rebreathers
270
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) All utilities (water, electrical, and compressed air) will run the entire length of the tunnel. A _____ inch water supply system provides cooling for the TBM and water for firefighting operations.

A
  • 46 inch
271
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Where is Lobby/Systems Control normally located?

A
  • Contractor’s trailer

Monitors mining phone and related fire life safety/tunnel systems.

272
Q

TB #162 - (MRCTC Project) Entry into a compromised atmosphere does not exceed a distance of ____ feet.

A
  • 500 feet
273
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) The LAFD will respond to ____ portal entrie(s) during the construction of the project. Entry portals are ____ to ____ feet deep.

A
  • 3 Portal entries
  • 45 to 90 feet deep
  • Exposition Blvd to Brynhurst Avenue (below grade)
  • 59th Place to 67th Street (below grade)
  • Adjacent to the LAX South Runways (below grade partially covered trench)
274
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) The water system in the tunnel, during construction will consist of a _____ inch temporary pipe supplied by a hydrant. 2-1/2 inch NST Fire Department outlets will be every _____ feet.

A
  • 6 inch
  • 200 feet

Engineers shall pump a maximum of 150 PSI into the Fire Department connections.

275
Q

TB #163 - The Metro Crenshaw/LAX Tansit Project began heavy construction in spring 2014 and initial revenue service is projected to begin in 20___.

A
  • 2020

When completed, the Crenshaw Corridor project will result in a new light-rail service, currently referred to as the Metro Crenshaw Line, starting at the Expo/Crenshaw station on the Metro Expo line, and ending at the existing Imperial/Aviation station (on the Metro Green Line).

276
Q

TB #163 - The Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project will consist of an 8.5 mile extension from the Metro Exposition Line at Crenshaw and Exposition to the Metro Green Line Aviation/LAX Station. This will provide _____ new stations.

A
  • 8 stations
277
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) For a compromised atmosphere, an SCBA and a Self-Rescuer respirator is required, however personnel are limited to initial observation or atmospheric testing with the following conditions:

  • A ____ member team that is in sight of the tunnel or shaft opening.
  • A ____ member team if they will be out of sight of the tunnel or shaft opening.
  • A back-up team is standing by.
  • Entry into a compromised atmosphere does not exceed a distance of _____ feet.
A
  • 2 member team
  • 4 member team
  • 500 feet
278
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) Which FPB Unit provides acceptance testing of fire protection systems?

A
  • Central Industrial Unit
279
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) What position on the organization chart verifies the “Brass Board” and accounts for the construction workers during a Metro tunnel incident?

A
  • Staging

The “Brass Board” is adjacent to the entry portal by the elevator and ladder. This is the tag-in/tag-out system used for employee accountability and is a reference for first responders to determine who is working in the tunnel.

280
Q

TB #163 - The Metro Crenshaw/LAX Line will extend from the existing Metro Exposition Line at Crenshaw and Exposition Boulevards. The Line will travel _____ mile(s) to the Metro Green Line’s Aviation/LAX Station.

A
  • 8.5 miles
281
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) During the construction phase, which radio “mode” should you use?

A
  • “Direct mode”

There are no 800MHz antennas in the tunnel. Therefore, radio communication will be line-of-site, in the “direct mode”, which may require relaying information to the Incident Commander.

282
Q

TB #163 - (Metro Crenshaw/LAX Transit Project) Excavation of earth is accomplished with a Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM), which is approximately 300 feet long and can tunnel up to ____ feet per day.

A
  • 70 feet
283
Q

TB #164 - A Transitional Attack is an exterior application of water using a handline with a ______ stream, as soon as possible to reduce heat prior to firefighters entering the structure.

A
  • Straight stream

A fog pattern would cover the entire opening and not allow steam/smoke to exhaust. It would rapidly create additional steam and thoroughly disrupt the thermal balance.

284
Q

TB #164 - The coordinated application of water with a straight stream from the exterior of a structure that provides a brief “break of the fire triangle” by cooling the environment prior to transitioning into an offensive attack. What is this describing?

A
  • Transitional Attack
285
Q

TB #164 - Before using a transitional attack, always communicate and coordinate your _______ intent on the ________ radio channel to all companies prior to employing this tactic.

A
  • Tactical intent
  • Tactical radio channel
286
Q

TB #164 - The “Transitional Attack” option has recently received widespread support from notable research institutions such as….

    1. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF)
  2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
A
  • Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
  • Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF)
  • National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
287
Q

TB #164 - While using the transitional attack technique, apply water only long enough to make a __________ in the affected environment.

A
  • Definitive change
288
Q

TB #164 - When using a transitional attack, only apply water into windows or doors that have “_________” or volatile smoke indicative of imminent flashover.

A
  • “Fire showing”
289
Q

TB #164 - To use the transitional attack technique effectively, direct a _______ stream through an open window or door at an _________ angle towards the ceiling of the involved room so it has the least amount of effect on the existing thermal balance.

A
  • Straight stream
  • Exaggerated angle

This action is similar to activation of a fire sprinkler, thus cooling the upper atmosphere.

290
Q

TB #164 - Within our region, there are various terms associated with “transitional attack,” such as….

  • “_____________”
  • “Hitting it hard from the yard”
  • “Taking the heat out of it”
  • “Taking the punch out of it”
A
  • “Softening the target”
  • “Hitting it hard from the yard”
  • “Taking the heat out of it”
  • “Taking the punch out of it”
291
Q

TB #164 - Where is the LAFD Transitional Attack video available?

A
  • On Learning Management System
292
Q

TB #164 - A transitional attack ________ be viewed as a shift in best practices,

A
  • Should not

It is an adjunct to the practices currently employed, such as attacking a fire from uninvolved to involved or making rapid entry to conduct a search for victims.

293
Q

TB #165 - The subject of marijuana grows must be viewed as “_______”, and an ever-growing problem that will continue, as both legal and illegal operations will increasingly present new hazards to first responders.

A
  • “Fluid”
294
Q

TB #165 - Operators of illegal marijuana cultivation operations generally have two goals…

  1. 2.
A
  • Optimal growing conditions
  • Clandestine operation
295
Q

TB #165 - This is a compilation of numerous federal, state and local law enforcement agencies in Los Angeles County. Their primary focus is to investigate major crimes, with an emphasis on dismantling mid to major level drug trafficking organizations. What is this task force called?

A
  • LA IMPACT (The Los Angeles Interagency Metropolitan Police Apprehension Crime Task Force)
296
Q

TB #165 - Marijuana growing operations can use up to ____ times the power of an average residence.

A
  • 10 times
297
Q

TB #165 - Carbon dioxide and ______ are both used in grow rooms to enhance growing conditions, which can displace oxygen to below safe levels.

A
  • Ozone

An atmosphere containing less than 19.5% oxygen is considered oxygen deficient, creating an asphyxiation hazard.

298
Q

TB #165 - The ballasts used to run high intensity marijuana grow lights can maintain a charge for up to ____ minute(s) after being disconnected.

A
  • 15 minutes
299
Q

TB #165 - Carbon dioxide and ozone are both used in marijuana grow rooms and can bring down oxygen levels. An atmosphere containing less than ___% oxygen is considered oxygen deficient, creating an asphyxiation hazard.

A
  • 19.5% oxygen
300
Q

TB #165 - Marijuana growing operations have been found in all manner of spaces including confined spaces. Refer to Training Bulletin #____ - Urban Search and Rescue.

A
  • TB #104 - Urban Search and Rescue
301
Q

TB #165 - Responders must always be vigilant for APD’s, Improvised Explosive Devices (IED) and a myriad of other “booby traps” at illegal/clandestine drug operations. What is a “APD?”

A
  • Anit-personnel devices (APD)
302
Q

TB #165 - At the federal level, the United States Department of Justice currently classifies marijuana as a Schedule ___ substance under the ___________ Act.

A
  • Schedule I
  • Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

This means the federal government considers marijuana to have a high potential for abuse, no accepted medical use in the US, and that there is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug even under medical supervision. Therefore, the distribution of marijuana is still a federal crime.

303
Q

TB #165 - Always treat illegal marijuana growing operations as a _______ incident and a ______ scene.

A
  • Haz/Mat incident
  • Crime scene
304
Q

TB #165 - In 1996, California voters passed Proposition 21 (the Compassionate Use Act of 1996) which legalized the medical use of marijuana. Since then, ____ state(s), the District of Columbia, and Guam have enacted similar laws.

A
  • 22 states
305
Q

TB #165 - In 19___, California voters passed Proposition ____ which legalized the medical use of marijuana.

A
  • 1996
  • Propsition 21

In 1996, California voters passed Proposition 21 (the Compassionate Use Act of 1996) which legalized the medical use of marijuana. Since then, 22 states, the District of Columbia, and Guam have enacted similar laws. Some only allow medical marijuana use, some decriminalize marijuana and others legalize marijuana outright. More specifically, California legislation allows certain non-profit collectives, also referred to as cooperatives or dispensaries, to provide marijuana to patients, primary caregivers, and/or to be sold “at cost”.

306
Q

TB #165 - It is estimated that there are over _____ marijuana dispensaries/cooperatives just in the City of Los Angeles.

A
  • 1,000
307
Q

TB #165 - Despite the liberalization of marijuana laws in California, illegal cultivation operations continue to persist, according to a 2009 ______ Institute study.

A
  • 2009 RAND Institute study

This is thought to be due primarily to producers and distributors seeking the tremendous profits available on the black market. It is this potential for high profit margins that make it likely that illegal marijuana growing operations will persist.

308
Q

TB #165 - All members within ____ feet of a structure used for illegal marijuana cultivation shall wear full PPE’s and SCBA.

A
  • 30 feet
309
Q

TB #165 - If a marijuana grow operation is discovered at an incident, communicate “___________” via radio as soon as it becomes known.

A
  • “Illegal marijuana operation”

On an EMS incident, communicate “illegal marijuana operation” to MFC and all resources on scene without using incident address, if possible. For example, use incident name or incident number for identification purposes.

310
Q

TB #165 - The distribution of marijuana is still a _______ crime.

A
  • Federal crime

At the federal level, the United States Department of Justice currently classifies marijuana as a Schedule I substance under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA). This means the federal government considers marijuana to have a high potential for abuse, no accepted medical use in the US, and that there is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug even under medical supervision.

311
Q

TB #165 - For all non-emergency contact incidents, and all stabilized emergency incidents involving illegal marijuana growing operations, consider decontaminating clothing and PPE’s according to procedures determined by __________.

A
  • Haz/Mat Group Supervisor
312
Q

TB #165 - Humidity in marijuana growing rooms can reach ____%, which can produce large amounts of condensation on the inside of windows.

A
  • 100%
313
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) By law, all personnel who enter a mining (tunneling) site must have a ____ hour Self-Contained Self-Rescuer device (SCSR) to provide a means for escape from a hazardous non-breathable atmosphere.

A
  • 1 hour

When a compromised atmosphere is encountered, it is required that members don the SCSR and immediately exit the tunnel.

314
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) The Supply Unit establishes an equipment pool that is normally located adjacent to the __________.

A
  • Vertical shaft

Equipment is lowered down by equipment rope, drop bag line, or by utilizing the contractor’s elevator/crane.

315
Q

TB #167 - Section 1 Metro Purple Line extension project lies within two local jurisdictions: the City of Los Angeles and the City of Beverly Hills. The tunnels follow an _____ - _____ alignment with stations located along Wilshire Boulevard in proximity to the intersections with La Brea Avenue, Fairfax Avenue, and La Cienega Boulevard.

A
  • East-West
316
Q

TB #167 - The Los Angeles County Metropolitan Transportation Authority (Metro) operates a total of ____ rail lines, of which two are subway lines - Metro ______ Line and Metro ______ Line.

A
  • 7 rail lines
  • Metro Red Line (MRL)
  • Metro Purple Line (MPL)

The MRL and MPL are both heavy lines.

317
Q

TB #167 - The Metro Purple Line extension project has tail track tunnels West of Wilshire/La Cienega Station. The tunnels will continue westward beyond the Wilshire/La Cienega Station for approximately _____ feet.

A
  • 700 feet

These tail track tunnels provide for train storage when only Section 1 is operational. They will be incorporated into Section 2 of the MPLE as running tunnels for the subway system.

318
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) All stations will be designed with approximately 450 foot long platforms to accommodate Metro Heavy Rail six car trains. Cut-and-______ construction is planned at all stations

A
  • Cut-and-cover construction

Stations will be approximately 680 feet long, 70 feet wide, and depths of 60 to 70 feet below street level. Side entrances will typically be about 60 feet long, 20 feet wide and 25 feet deep.

319
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) Cross passages connecting the east and west bound tunnels are required at a spacing of _____ feet.

A
  • 850 feet

These provide emergency evacuation routes in the event of a train malfunction (or other emergency) and locations for equipment necessary to operate the subway system.

320
Q

TB #167 - The Metro Purple Line extension project (first phase) includes ______ underground stations.

A
  • 3 underground stations
  • Wilshire/La Cienega Station
  • Wilshire/La Brea Station
  • Wilshire/Fairfax Station
321
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) A tunnel staging site of roughly _____ to _____ acres is required at the starting point of each tunnel drive.

A
  • 1 to 2 acres

In addition to directing TBM support, space is also needed for offices, worker facilities, construction equipment, and loading/unloading of materials and supplies.

322
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) SCSR’s are maintained and stored at each __________ by the contractor specifically for use by LAFD personnel.

A
  • Entry portal
323
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) Entry into a tunnel with a known compromised atmosphere beyond initial observation or atmospheric testing is limited to US&R certified members only. Members entering a compromised atmosphere must utilize a _________ Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.

A
  • Closed-Circuit SCBA (CC-SCBA)

Members must take gas readings periodically while in the tunnel unless the incident involves fire or explosion.

324
Q

TB #167 - What was originally labeled the Wilshire/Western branch of the Red Line was re-labeled as the Purple Line in 20___.

A
  • 2006
325
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) For the Section 1 alignment, there will be ____ cross passages, of which three (located at low points) also serve as sump structures equipped with pumps discharging to surface facilities.

A
  • 23 cross passages
326
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) Stations will have dimensions of approximately ____ feet long, 70 feet wide, and depths of 60 to 70 feet below street level.

A
  • 680 feet long

Side entrances will typically be about 60 feet long, 20 feet wide and 25 feet deep.

327
Q

TB #167 - Metro’s long-term plan is to extend the Metro Purple Line (MPL) _____ mile(s) to Westwood in three phases.

A
  • 9 miles
328
Q

TB #167 - Section 1 of the Metro Purple Line extension project extends approximately _____ mile(s) underground beneath Wilshire Boulevard from a shaft at the western end of the existing Wilshire/Western Station to intersection of Wilshire Boulevard and South Stanley Street, just west of La Cienega Boulevard.

A
  • 3.9 miles underground
329
Q

TB #167 - (Metro Purple Line Extension) All stations will be designed with approximately _____ foot long platforms to accommodate Metro Heavy Rail six car trains.

A
  • 450 foot long
330
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) At the conclusion of the training exercise(s) members should conduct a “________” to review the principles taught, as well as the safety procedures utilized.

A
  • “Hot wash”
331
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) Surfaces over ____ feet above the ground where workers can pass below require toe boards, which prevent tools or materials from falling onto workers passing below.

A
  • 6 feet
332
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) The California ___________ contains regulations regarding work where workers could sustain injury due to falls.

A
  • California Administrative Code

These regulations require that protective measures be taken to prevent injuries through the use of protective railings, toe boards, and personal fall protection systems.

333
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) After completion of training and rebuilding, __________ or responsible members shall perform a final facility check.

A
  • Company Commanders
334
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) For roof prop approvals, the FHMTC ___-Form Request can be found on the Department Intranet under the ___________ tab.

A
  • E-Form
  • In-Service Training Section tab

The form can be hand delivered to the Training Division office, or can be e-mailed to lafdists@lacity.org.

335
Q

TB #168 - The roof props located at Regional Training Centers - 5, 21, 59, and ____, are under the control of their respective Fire Stations and permission shall be secured from the ________ Commander, with notification to the affected ________ Commander.

A
  • 5, 21, 59, 89
  • Station Commander
  • Battalion Commander
336
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) How many broad categories does the Department divide roof training props into?

A
  • 2 categories
  • Flat
  • Pitched
337
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) Training ventilation props must abide by provisions of Title ____ of the California Code of Regulations.

A
  • Title 8
338
Q

TB #168 - Roof props at Drill Towers 81 and 40 are under the control of the __________ Section and permission must be secured from the _______ Commander for use.

A
  • Recruit Services Section (RSS)
  • RSS Commander
339
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) Workers must have personal fall arrest systems, and be trained in their use when working over ____ feet above the ground, and not protected by other systems, such as railings.

A
  • 7-1/2 feet
340
Q

TB #168 - The Department will not allow pitched roof props or roof props over _____ inches in height at Regional Training Centers or Fire Stations.

A
  • 30 inches
341
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) Any roof prop that has a pitch over ___ x ___ inches is considered “pitched.”

A
  • 1 x 12 inches (1:12)
342
Q

TB #168 - Any roof prop built at a Fire Station needs written approval through channels to the respective __________ as well as notification to the In-Service Training Section.

A
  • Bureau Commander
343
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) Railings are required on buildings where workers are over ____ inches above the ground in addition to other structures where workers are over ____ inches above the ground.

A
  • 30 inches
  • 42 inches
344
Q

TB #168 - (Roof Prop) For permission to use any of the roof props and to schedule training at FHMTC, members shall complete and forward an E-Request Form to the _________ Commander or In-Service Training Section.

A
  • Training Division Commander
345
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick’s special amplifier is capable of receiving AC signals over a wide amplitude range which includes low voltage such as _____ volts AC up to and including high voltage.

A
  • 120 volts AC
346
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick is not designed to identify _______ current voltages.

A
  • Direct current (not designed for DC)

This includes low DC voltage from a car battery and high DC voltage from a third rail or overhead catenary line in a light rail transit system.

347
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) Which setting should be utilized when working around high voltage sources such as high voltage overhead power lines?

A
  • LOW

This will help to better identify energized wires on or closer to the ground without alerting members to overhead power lines. In this setting the rate and intensity of beeping will increase as you move closer to the potential source.

348
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick is very rugged and requires very little maintenance. After use and _______, inspect the device for any damage to the plastic housing.

A
  • Monthly
349
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) Pay attention to the orientation of the batteries when replacing. The direction of the batteries is also printed on the ________ to ensure proper installation.

A
  • Circuit board
350
Q

TB #169 - If the Hot Stick batteries have been installed incorrectly, the device will not work at all. If only one battery is installed incorrectly, the device will sound _________ and the LED light will illuminate as well.

A
  • Sound countinuously
351
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick USA AC (Hot Stick) was specifically designed with first responders in mind to provide warning of exposed high voltage ________ current from a safe distance.

A
  • Alternating current (AC)
352
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) Which setting is utilized when looking for AC voltage in the general area?

A
  • HIGH

In this setting the tool is multidirectional, meaning it will detect voltages from all sides of tool. If the tool detects high voltage in the area when in this setting, the device will begin beeping at a greater distance from the source and at a faster rate. This is to alert the user of high voltage, allowing the first responders to maintain a safe distance from the source.

353
Q

TB #169 - How many operational settings does the Hot Stick have?

A
  • 4 operational settings
  • Off
  • High
  • Low
  • Front focused
354
Q

TB #169 - What do you clean the Hot Stick with?

A
  • Damp cloth

Do not use any abrasive or corrosive liquids and avoid spraying any fluids directly into the beeper. It is also recommended to not allow salt water to come in contact with the unit. Although the device is splash water proof do not submerge.

355
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick USA AC is made of high strength plastic and is ____ inches in length and ____ inches in diameter.

A
  • 20-1/2 inches (length)
  • 1-3/4 inches (diameter)
356
Q

TB #169 -The Hot Stick has been tested to operate continuously for ____ hour(s) by the manufacturer.

A
  • 300 hours
357
Q

TB #169 - The ____ colored striped area of the Hot Stick indicates the sensing section of the tool.

A
  • Red striped area
358
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) It is recommended to change the four AA batteries at least _______ or when discharged.

A
  • Annually
359
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick requires no warm up and is ready for use in ____ second(s) after turning it on.

A
  • 5 seconds
360
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick USA AC is splash water proof, designed to be intrinsically safe, and powered by ___ AA alkaline battery(s). The Hot Stick weighs slightly over ___ pound(s) with batteries installed.

A
  • 4 - AA batteries
  • 1 pound
361
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick USA AC is manufactured by _______.

A
  • Delsar
362
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) The apparatus position and responding personnel are to maintain at least _____ span(s) from the affected downed wire or pole.

A
  • 1 span

This is the distance between two poles. The distance between two undamaged poles will provide the best margin of safety.

363
Q

TB #169 - (Hot Stick) If the batteries are low, the tool will emit a _______ beeping sound along with a ______ LED light when turned on.

A
  • Solid beeping sound
  • Solid LED light

It is important for all companies to carry additional batteries for the unit.

364
Q

TB #169 - When initially using the Hot Stick, turn the operating switch to the ______ setting. Listen for a series of rapid beeps and LED flash lasting approximately ____ second(s) indicating the Hot Stick is ready for use.

A
  • HIGH setting
  • 3 seconds
365
Q

TB #169 - When using the Hot Stick, what setting should you use to pinpoint an electrical source?

A
  • Front Focused

It will only sound when pointed directly at the energized source.

366
Q

TB #169 - To change the batteries on the Hot Stick, unscrew the ________.

A
  • Lanyard
367
Q

TB #169 - The Hot Stick consists of a high sensitivity AC amplifier for the frequency range of ____ to ____ Hz.

A
  • 20 to 100 Hz

The special amplifier is capable of receiving AC signals over a wide amplitude range.

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