tpr prac exam 2

Question 1

multiple shelerosis

Answer 1

autoimmune sys that destroys the mylenated cells so that ap take even longer to form so little by little cant run, then jog, then walk.

also causes scar tissue everywhere in the nervous sys causing sodium to not enter so no AP

Question 2

when does scar tissue form

Answer 2

because of injury to the tissue

Question 3

scelerosis

Answer 3

hardening of the tissue so atherelorosis is hardening of the artery due to plaque buildup

Question 4

lesion

Answer 4

injury

Question 5

etiology

Answer 5

cause of condition or disease

Question 6

sedation effect on nervous sys

Answer 6

u still need depolarizing wffect but it is at a minimal / decr release of excitatory

will not have sedation whatsoever because hyperpolarize will not cause neurotransmitter to be released

Question 7

influx of ions vs efflux of ions

Answer 7

influx means coming into the cells whereas efflux means leaving the cell…

efflux of potassium means that there is better chance of depolarization

Question 8

when calcium ions are released, does it eff the AP or the synapse? like which one is it more direct with?

Answer 8

postsynaptic so after the depolarization AP has occured

Question 9

GABA neurotransmitter effects

Answer 9

it inhibits so it will have hyperpolarization effects

Question 10

A frameshift mutation involving insertion of one base pair in an exon may result in:

Answer 10

a protein product of a lower molecular weight.

frameshift mutation only involves translation so polymerases will not have any participation

Question 11

Which the following is a necessary condition for application of the Hardy-Weinberg law?

Answer 11

the population is large enough to avoid random drift, there is random mating,
there is no immigration or emigration,
there is no mutation,
there is no natural selection.

Question 12

Which of the following structures in the digestive tract would be expected to have the highest pOH?

A
saliva

B
stomach

C
duodenum

D
large intestine

Answer 12

stomach bc basically asking which one will be most acidic

ph of 2 means that pOH will be a high number of 12

Question 13

translation elongation vs translocation

Answer 13

translocation is mechanism of action of streptomycin interferes with the process by which the ribosome moves to the next codon on the mRNA strand

cant move on to next if first is impacted so more of elongation problem

elongation is occur while translating a strand of mRNA into a new protein

Question 14

what does a very black dot at a certain kDA that is prominent throughout time of the electrophoresis mean?

Answer 14

most likely that is the key weight of the protein that is studied

look at bio section translation passage #16

Question 15

hill coefficient

Answer 15

A hill coefficient of 1 would mean that Kd1 = Kd2 meaning that no allostery is present

A hill coefficient less than 1 would correspond to negative cooperativity, Kd1 < Kd2

Question 16

regulation site vs catalytic site vs bound/bind site

Answer 16

reg site is where the allosteric binding site occurs so usually multiple regulation sites are common..

catalytic and the binding site is where the rxn occurs so both are considered as part of active site

catalytic site lowers activation energy barrier and the bind site holds the substrate in place for lock and key or induced model

Question 17

A scientist prepares an aqueous solution of ATCase with carbamoyl phosphate, ATP, and aspartate but observes no reaction. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the scientist’s observation?

A. ATCase is insoluble in water.

B. The concentration of ATCase is too low. Your Answer

C. The concentration of ATP is too low.

D. The pH of the solution is too low.

Answer 17

no rxn means no info about the concentration so shouldn’t even have low activity but rather none what so ever.

ATCase is a protein. Protein structure is sensitive to many environmental conditions including pH. Extremely high and low pH solutions can both denature proteins, eliminating their catalytic activity. Furthermore, aspartate is a substrate for ATCase. When placed in a low pH solution, aspartate can become protonated if pH < pKa and may no longer be able to bind to ATCase

Question 18

The hormones of the adrenal medulla bind to receptors:

Answer 18

the hormones of adrenal medulla are epinephrine and noriepinephrine which are amino acid derivatives

amino acids in genral are polar and a little bigger so they cannot cross the membrane on their own and need a receptor..

so will be found on the cell membrane

Question 19

nuclear membrane vs cell membrane

Answer 19

The cell membrane is a lipid bilayer that surrounds the entire cell. It is a lipid bilayer in the form of a continuous sheet. The nuclear membrane is not a continuous sheet, but rather is made up of a series of vesicles that come together to form the envelope around the nucleus.

Question 20

when looking at graphs and they say that a certain thing is absent, what do u automatically eliminate from ans choice

Answer 20

34 bio

cannot discuss the activity of the thing absent because impossible to comp-are something that is not even present

Question 21

All of the following can be found within the plasma EXCEPT:

A. hormones.

B. immunoglobulins.

C. CO2.

D. hemoglobin

Answer 21

Hemoglobin is found inside red blood cells not plasma

Question 22

plasma vs serum

Answer 22

both liquid parts BUT

Plasma has fibrinogen and has anticogulated factors

serum has no fibrinogen and is after clotting process so the blood will appear clumped instead of layered

Question 23

zygote stage has how many cells

Answer 23

1

Question 24

morula stage has how many cells

Answer 24

16 but hard ball

Question 25

blastula stage has how many cells

Answer 25

32 cells with fluid hollow texture

Question 26

gastrula and neurela has how many cells

Answer 26

past the blastula stage so more than 32 cells

Question 27

Members of a given species: A. have identical genotypes. B. have identical phenotypes. C. are unable to breed with one another to produce viable offspring. D. are unable to produce fertile offspring with members of another species

Answer 27

cant be identical because that means twins... must be able to breed within species for fertile offspring ex: . The horse and the donkey, for example, belong to different species but might mate to produce a mule. The mule, however, is sterile

Question 28

According to the Hardy-Weinberg Law, the occurrence of dominant and recessive alleles within a population remains constant over time as long as

Answer 28

(1) population size is very large, (2) mating is random, (3) mutation does not occur, (4) the population takes in no genes from other populations, and (5) selection does not occur. These are the five conditions to which the question refers. So long as they are satisfied, the occurrence of the recessive (d) allele will remain relatively constant

Question 29

fugue vs dissociative state?

Answer 29

A dissociative state is a defensive process that involves having one's attention and emotions detached, in varying degrees, from the reality of the environment. The thousand-yard stare is a severe dissociative response to the overwhelming trauma of warfare (choice B is correct). A fugue state is dissociative in nature but involves a loss of memory, often resulting in a period of wandering and the formation of a new identity.

Question 30

hysterical state

Answer 30

“Hysteria” is an antiquated term that was commonly used up until the mid-twentieth century, typically only in reference to women; it is rarely used by clinicians today. Its modern equivalent is “conversion disorder," in which the individual appears to experience physical symptoms, such as blindness, paralysis, or numbness, with no organic cause.

Question 31

top down vs bottom up

Answer 31

top down uses personal experiences and expectations to influence stimuli bottom is sense basic features and then interpret them

Question 32

Which of the following theories of perceptual organization represents a bottom-up process? A. The law of proximity B. Feature detection C. The law of continuity D. Perceptual constancy

Answer 32

A bottom-up process is characterized by a relative absence of higher cognitive involvement in sensory organization. Bottom-up processes involve organization at the level of the discrete sensory information. Feature detection involves attending to and perceiving salient pieces of information from a complex environment, a process that can occur absent higher cortical involvement (choice B is correct). The other answer choices are each examples of a top-down process. The law of proximity is an ordering principle that states that objects near each other will be perceived as belonging to the same group (choice A is wrong). The law of continuity, also an ordering principle, states that points connected by lines are perceived as the smoothest possible line (choice C is wrong). Perceptual constancy is the tendency to perceive objects as having a constant shape, color, or size, despite changes in the surrounding environment or in the orientation of the object (choice D is wrong).

Question 33

The rate at which charge is transferred from one plate to the other is termed:

Answer 33

current ampere = columb / sec

Question 34

Hemolytic anemia may result from increased free radical levels in red blood cells. Primaquine, an oxidant drug, reduces cellular production of NADPH, and some individuals suffer from hemolytic anemia after primaquine treatment. Which enzyme is most likely affected in these individuals? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase B. Ribulose-5-phosphate isomerase C. Hexokinase D. Carboxypeptidase

Answer 34

A. NADPH is critical to the function of antioxidants (such as glutathione) that are important in maintaining the integrity of red blood cells. The pentose phosphate pathway is the primary source of this NADPH and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is the first and regulated step of this pathway. Its inhibition would lead to a decrease in NADPH levels and impair red blood cells’ capacity to cope with oxidative stresses

Question 35

Carboxypeptidase

Answer 35

Carboxypeptidases are enzymes that cleave peptide bonds at the carboxy terminus in digestion (e.g., pancreatic carboxypeptidase), in post-translational modification of proteins, or in regulation of cellular pathways

Question 36

units for volts of electric field

Answer 36

V= Nm/q = J/ columb

Question 37

work for electric field

Answer 37

qV

Question 38

electric field formula

Answer 38

force/ charge volts / distance

Question 39

If the circuit is closed and a neutral molecule with a dipole moment is oriented between the plates so that the dipole is at a 45° angle to the plates, then the molecule will experience: A. no net force and no net torque. B. a net force but no net torque. C. no net force but a net torque. D. both a net force and a net torque.

Answer 39

If the molecule is neutral, its overall charge is zero, so the force on the molecule must also be zero (eliminating choices B and D). Now, if we treat the molecule as containing two equal but oppositely-charged ends, +q and –q, then each of these will experience an electric force (in opposite directions), and, as a result, the electric field exerts a torque on the molecule.

Question 40

torque formula

Answer 40

F * r * sin(theta)

Question 41

specific gravity

Answer 41

density of object / density of water

Question 42

how to go from g/ cm^3 to kg/ m^3 vice versa

Answer 42

little to big = multiply by 1000 big to small = divide by 1000 #12 of chem section

Question 43

oxidation number for hydrogen if more or less electroneg than carbon

Answer 43

more elctroneg h = +1 less electroneg h = -1

Question 44

what happens with gamma decay

Answer 44

nothing changes not even mass number nor atomic number

Question 45

standard temp/pressure values

Answer 45

0 degrees Celsius 1 atm 273 K volume is 22.4 L (molar volume of any gas)

Question 46

standard conditions

Answer 46

think of Celsius for conditions ``` 298 K (25 degree Celsius) 1 atm ```

Question 47

what does acetylcholine do when interacting with its receptor

Answer 47

it has receptors in the synapse waiting for the neurotransmitters to be released from the vesicles and will cause a ligand gated sodium channel to open

Question 48

synaptic transmission of the neurotransmitter

Answer 48

1. AP takes place 2. Calcium voltage open going into the cell bc it causes neurotransmitters (Ach) to be released from the neuron 3. Ach binds to receptor, causing sodium to enter the skeletal muscle cell , causing AP in muscle cell and then muscle will contract 4. once Ach breaks apart at the receptor, the ligand sodium channel will close and the muscle will relax 5. choline will be transported back into syhnaptic knob to react with another acetate to make Ach (known as reuptake)

Question 49

neuromuscular inhibitors

Answer 49

block the Ach receptors to prevent skeletal contraction so relaxes muscle which is good for surgery anesthesia … however diaphragm is so important bc if relaxed and without ventilator, u cant breathe and will die

Question 50

acetylcholineserase

Answer 50

enzyme that breaks down Ach so that the sodium ligand gate can close and the muscles can relax

Question 51

the sensory neuron always releases a neurotransmitter that what?

Answer 51

that excites the neurons

Question 52

excitatory vs inhibitory transmitters

Answer 52

excitatory releases opens the sodium ligand gate and flows in to the cell. inhibitory opens the potassium ligand gate to cause k+ to get out of the neuron OR chlorine channels to go inside making it more negative they both activate the neurotransmitter receptor sites in the posynaptic but only one can depolarize while the other one hyperpolarize

Question 53

are catelomines excitatory or inhibitory

Answer 53

catelomines are norep, epinep, and dopamine which r all excitatory

Question 54

temporal vs spatial

Answer 54

Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurones together release enough neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) to exceed the threshold of the postsynaptic neurone. ... -Temporal summation occurs when one presynaptic neurone releases neurotransmitter many times over a period of time. can be excitatory or inhibit

Question 55

monoamine oxidase (MAO)

Answer 55

breaks down catelomines by oxidizing them

Question 56

adenyl cyclase

Answer 56

usually activated by a neurotransmitter and will cause adenyl cyclase to cut ATP into AP + PP ----> camp

Question 57

phosphodiesterase

Answer 57

camp ---> AMP (metabolite)

Question 58

metabolite

Answer 58

inactivated form of a chemical

Question 59

camp excites cells by?

Answer 59

not being broken down so that it can open sodium channels usually with the help of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Question 60

tyrosine and tryptophan make what neurotransmitters

Answer 60

tyrosine makes the cateolomines | tryptophan makes the serotonin

Question 61

formal charge formula

Answer 61

valence electrons - actual electrons attached including the lone pairs

Question 62

electron geometry vs molecular geometry

Answer 62

molecular ignores lone pairs and just counts the dash

Question 63

nuclear effective charge (Z eff)

Answer 63

atomic number (number of protrons) - # of e- in inner circles (never count the ones in the valence shell) ex: sodium nuclear eff is 1

Question 64

relationship between lewis dot structure and formal charge

Answer 64

check the formal charge and try as best as possible to make the formal charge of central atom 0... may have exceptions with sulfur and phosphorus

Question 65

name two characters of a ligand base

Answer 65

can have non bonding e- | can have a neg charge

Question 66

which atoms can exceed the octet rule

Answer 66

Sulfur, phosphorus, silicon, and chlorine are common examples of elements that form an expanded octet. rule of thumb: anything b4 period 3 SHOULD NEVER EXPAND THE OCTET RULE WHICH IS NO MORE THAN 4 BONDS (INCLUDING THE LONE PAIRS)

Question 67

examples of hybrid

Answer 67

sp sp2 sp3

Question 68

how many liters = 1m^3

Answer 68

1000

Question 69

how many cm = 1cm^3

Answer 69

1 however 1 L = 1000 cm^3 bc 1 cm^3 = 1mL

Question 70

sp has how many s and p character percentage

Answer 70

50 % of each

Question 71

sp2 as how many s and p character percentage

Answer 71

67% p and 33% of s

Question 72

sp3 how many s and p character percentage

Answer 72

75 p and 25of s

Question 73

what is another word for melting?

Answer 73

fusion

Question 74

what is deposition

Answer 74

gas to solid

Question 75

phase changes that bring molecules together vs the ones that farther them apart?

Answer 75

bringing them close together release heat (like freezing) spreading molecules out will cause an absorb of heat like melting

Question 76

is gluconeogenesis an endergonic rxn?

Answer 76

no it is overall exerg just like glycolysis

Question 77

why is the rate of gluconeogenesis not dependent on myocytes?

Answer 77

Gluconeogenesis cannot occur in myoctes because they lack glucose-6-phosphatase

Question 78

Increasing the rate of gluconeogenesis would also increase activity in which of the following processes or enzymes? Glycolysis FBPase Oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 78

Item I is false: glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are competing pathways that would lead to futile cycles if both were running (choice D can be eliminated). Item II is true: FBPase is a key regulatory enzyme in gluconeogenesis and should display greater activity when the pathway is active (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is false: during gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is reduced to glucose and NADH is oxidized to NAD+. Decreasing the levels of NADH would result in a decrease in the electron transport chain and ultimately in the rate of oxidative phosphorylation (choice C can be eliminated and choice A is the correct). wouldn't want to use something that u already have so little of... NADH is already small in maount bc turning it into a lot of nad+ so why use even more of it

Question 79

alpha decay vs beta decay

Answer 79

alpha decre mass number by 4 beta doesn't effect mass number

Question 80

esterification rxn

Answer 80

is the general name for a chemical reaction in which two reactants (typically an alcohol and an acid) form an ester as the reaction product. e–OH group is replaced by an –O–alkyl group. O-C=O-C so its a carbon in between the double bond O and regular O

Question 81

If an object is traveling in uniform circular motion, and the centripetal force acting on the object is suddenly removed, which of the following best describes the object’s subsequent motion? A. The object will continue to travel in a straight line at a constant velocity. B. The object will continue to travel in a straight line, decelerating gradually until it comes to rest. C. The object will continue to travel in uniform circular motion. D. The object will continue to travel in uniform circular motion, decelerating gradually until it comes to rest.

Answer 81

Newton’s First law states that in the absence of external forces, an object will move with constant velocity. Therefore, once the force(s) providing the centripetal force are removed, the object will fly off tangentially from the circular path, traveling in a straight line at constant speed.

Question 82

gram equivalent weight means what ?

Answer 82

g/mol divided by the number of protrons because the unit for gram equiv is grams so cancel out moles with something

Question 83

``` How many liters of 2 M Ba(OH)2 are needed to titrate a 4 L solution of 6 M H3PO4? A. 1.33 L B. 12 L C. 18 L D. 56 L ```

Answer 83

Use the equivalence point equation: NaVa = NbVb. Ba(OH)2 can dissociate to give two hydroxide ions, so its normality is 2 M × 2 = 4 N. H3PO4 can dissociate to give three hydronium ions, so its normality is 6 M × 3 = 18 N. Plugging into the equation, we get (18 N)(4 L) = (4 N)(Vb). Therefore, Vb is 18 L.