tpr prac exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

multiple shelerosis

A

autoimmune sys that destroys the mylenated cells so that ap take even longer to form so little by little cant run, then jog, then walk.

also causes scar tissue everywhere in the nervous sys causing sodium to not enter so no AP

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2
Q

when does scar tissue form

A

because of injury to the tissue

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3
Q

scelerosis

A

hardening of the tissue so atherelorosis is hardening of the artery due to plaque buildup

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4
Q

lesion

A

injury

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5
Q

etiology

A

cause of condition or disease

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6
Q

sedation effect on nervous sys

A

u still need depolarizing wffect but it is at a minimal / decr release of excitatory

will not have sedation whatsoever because hyperpolarize will not cause neurotransmitter to be released

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7
Q

influx of ions vs efflux of ions

A

influx means coming into the cells whereas efflux means leaving the cell…

efflux of potassium means that there is better chance of depolarization

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8
Q

when calcium ions are released, does it eff the AP or the synapse? like which one is it more direct with?

A

postsynaptic so after the depolarization AP has occured

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9
Q

GABA neurotransmitter effects

A

it inhibits so it will have hyperpolarization effects

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10
Q

A frameshift mutation involving insertion of one base pair in an exon may result in:

A

a protein product of a lower molecular weight.

frameshift mutation only involves translation so polymerases will not have any participation

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11
Q

Which the following is a necessary condition for application of the Hardy-Weinberg law?

A

the population is large enough to avoid random drift, there is random mating,
there is no immigration or emigration,
there is no mutation,
there is no natural selection.

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12
Q

Which of the following structures in the digestive tract would be expected to have the highest pOH?

A
saliva

B
stomach

C
duodenum

D
large intestine

A

stomach bc basically asking which one will be most acidic

ph of 2 means that pOH will be a high number of 12

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13
Q

translation elongation vs translocation

A

translocation is mechanism of action of streptomycin interferes with the process by which the ribosome moves to the next codon on the mRNA strand

cant move on to next if first is impacted so more of elongation problem

elongation is occur while translating a strand of mRNA into a new protein

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14
Q

what does a very black dot at a certain kDA that is prominent throughout time of the electrophoresis mean?

A

most likely that is the key weight of the protein that is studied

look at bio section translation passage #16

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15
Q

hill coefficient

A

A hill coefficient of 1 would mean that Kd1 = Kd2 meaning that no allostery is present

A hill coefficient less than 1 would correspond to negative cooperativity, Kd1 < Kd2

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16
Q

regulation site vs catalytic site vs bound/bind site

A

reg site is where the allosteric binding site occurs so usually multiple regulation sites are common..

catalytic and the binding site is where the rxn occurs so both are considered as part of active site

catalytic site lowers activation energy barrier and the bind site holds the substrate in place for lock and key or induced model

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17
Q

A scientist prepares an aqueous solution of ATCase with carbamoyl phosphate, ATP, and aspartate but observes no reaction. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the scientist’s observation?

A. ATCase is insoluble in water.

B. The concentration of ATCase is too low. Your Answer

C. The concentration of ATP is too low.

D. The pH of the solution is too low.

A

no rxn means no info about the concentration so shouldn’t even have low activity but rather none what so ever.

ATCase is a protein. Protein structure is sensitive to many environmental conditions including pH. Extremely high and low pH solutions can both denature proteins, eliminating their catalytic activity. Furthermore, aspartate is a substrate for ATCase. When placed in a low pH solution, aspartate can become protonated if pH < pKa and may no longer be able to bind to ATCase

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18
Q

The hormones of the adrenal medulla bind to receptors:

A

the hormones of adrenal medulla are epinephrine and noriepinephrine which are amino acid derivatives

amino acids in genral are polar and a little bigger so they cannot cross the membrane on their own and need a receptor..

so will be found on the cell membrane

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19
Q

nuclear membrane vs cell membrane

A

The cell membrane is a lipid bilayer that surrounds the entire cell. It is a lipid bilayer in the form of a continuous sheet. The nuclear membrane is not a continuous sheet, but rather is made up of a series of vesicles that come together to form the envelope around the nucleus.

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20
Q

when looking at graphs and they say that a certain thing is absent, what do u automatically eliminate from ans choice

A

34 bio

cannot discuss the activity of the thing absent because impossible to comp-are something that is not even present

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21
Q

All of the following can be found within the plasma EXCEPT:

A. hormones.

B. immunoglobulins.

C. CO2.

D. hemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin is found inside red blood cells not plasma

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22
Q

plasma vs serum

A

both liquid parts BUT

Plasma has fibrinogen and has anticogulated factors

serum has no fibrinogen and is after clotting process so the blood will appear clumped instead of layered

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23
Q

zygote stage has how many cells

A

1

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24
Q

morula stage has how many cells

A

16 but hard ball

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25
Q

blastula stage has how many cells

A

32 cells with fluid hollow texture

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26
Q

gastrula and neurela has how many cells

A

past the blastula stage so more than 32 cells

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27
Q

Members of a given species:

A. have identical genotypes.

B. have identical phenotypes.

C. are unable to breed with one another to produce viable offspring.

D. are unable to produce fertile offspring with members of another species

A

cant be identical because that means twins…

must be able to breed within species for fertile offspring

ex: . The horse and the donkey, for example, belong to different species but might mate to produce a mule. The mule, however, is sterile

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28
Q

According to the Hardy-Weinberg Law, the occurrence of dominant and recessive alleles within a population remains constant over time as long as

A

(1) population size is very large, (2) mating is random, (3) mutation does not occur, (4) the population takes in no genes from other populations, and (5) selection does not occur. These are the five conditions to which the question refers. So long as they are satisfied, the occurrence of the recessive (d) allele will remain relatively constant

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29
Q

fugue vs dissociative state?

A

A dissociative state is a defensive process that involves having one’s attention and emotions detached, in varying degrees, from the reality of the environment. The thousand-yard stare is a severe dissociative response to the overwhelming trauma of warfare (choice B is correct). A fugue state is dissociative in nature but involves a loss of memory, often resulting in a period of wandering and the formation of a new identity.

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30
Q

hysterical state

A

“Hysteria” is an antiquated term that was commonly used up until the mid-twentieth century, typically only in reference to women; it is rarely used by clinicians today. Its modern equivalent is “conversion disorder,” in which the individual appears to experience physical symptoms, such as blindness, paralysis, or numbness, with no organic cause.

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31
Q

top down vs bottom up

A

top down uses personal experiences and expectations to influence stimuli

bottom is sense basic features and then interpret them

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32
Q

Which of the following theories of perceptual organization represents a bottom-up process?

A. The law of proximity

B. Feature detection

C. The law of continuity

D. Perceptual constancy

A

A bottom-up process is characterized by a relative absence of higher cognitive involvement in sensory organization. Bottom-up processes involve organization at the level of the discrete sensory information. Feature detection involves attending to and perceiving salient pieces of information from a complex environment, a process that can occur absent higher cortical involvement (choice B is correct). The other answer choices are each examples of a top-down process. The law of proximity is an ordering principle that states that objects near each other will be perceived as belonging to the same group (choice A is wrong). The law of continuity, also an ordering principle, states that points connected by lines are perceived as the smoothest possible line (choice C is wrong). Perceptual constancy is the tendency to perceive objects as having a constant shape, color, or size, despite changes in the surrounding environment or in the orientation of the object (choice D is wrong).

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33
Q

The rate at which charge is transferred from one plate to the other is termed:

A

current

ampere = columb / sec

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34
Q

Hemolytic anemia may result from increased free radical levels in red blood cells. Primaquine, an oxidant drug, reduces cellular production of NADPH, and some individuals suffer from hemolytic anemia after primaquine treatment. Which enzyme is most likely affected in these individuals?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

B. Ribulose-5-phosphate isomerase

C. Hexokinase

D. Carboxypeptidase

A

A.

NADPH is critical to the function of antioxidants (such as glutathione) that are important in maintaining the integrity of red blood cells. The pentose phosphate pathway is the primary source of this NADPH and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is the first and regulated step of this pathway. Its inhibition would lead to a decrease in NADPH levels and impair red blood cells’ capacity to cope with oxidative stresses

35
Q

Carboxypeptidase

A

Carboxypeptidases are enzymes that cleave peptide bonds at the carboxy terminus in digestion (e.g., pancreatic carboxypeptidase), in post-translational modification of proteins, or in regulation of cellular pathways

36
Q

units for volts of electric field

A

V= Nm/q = J/ columb

37
Q

work for electric field

A

qV

38
Q

electric field formula

A

force/ charge

volts / distance

39
Q

If the circuit is closed and a neutral molecule with a dipole moment is oriented between the plates so that the dipole is at a 45° angle to the plates, then the molecule will experience:

A. no net force and no net torque.

B. a net force but no net torque.

C. no net force but a net torque.

D. both a net force and a net torque.

A

If the molecule is neutral, its overall charge is zero, so the force on the molecule must also be zero (eliminating choices B and D). Now, if we treat the molecule as containing two equal but oppositely-charged ends, +q and –q, then each of these will experience an electric force (in opposite directions), and, as a result, the electric field exerts a torque on the molecule.

40
Q

torque formula

A

F * r * sin(theta)

41
Q

specific gravity

A

density of object / density of water

42
Q

how to go from g/ cm^3 to kg/ m^3 vice versa

A

12 of chem section

little to big = multiply by 1000
big to small = divide by 1000

43
Q

oxidation number for hydrogen if more or less electroneg than carbon

A

more elctroneg h = +1

less electroneg h = -1

44
Q

what happens with gamma decay

A

nothing changes not even mass number nor atomic number

45
Q

standard temp/pressure values

A

0 degrees Celsius
1 atm
273 K
volume is 22.4 L (molar volume of any gas)

46
Q

standard conditions

A

think of Celsius for conditions

298 K (25 degree Celsius) 
1 atm
47
Q

what does acetylcholine do when interacting with its receptor

A

it has receptors in the synapse waiting for the neurotransmitters to be released from the vesicles and will cause a ligand gated sodium channel to open

48
Q

synaptic transmission of the neurotransmitter

A
  1. AP takes place
  2. Calcium voltage open going into the cell bc it causes neurotransmitters (Ach) to be released from the neuron
  3. Ach binds to receptor, causing sodium to enter the skeletal muscle cell , causing AP in muscle cell and then muscle will contract
  4. once Ach breaks apart at the receptor, the ligand sodium channel will close and the muscle will relax
  5. choline will be transported back into syhnaptic knob to react with another acetate to make Ach (known as reuptake)
49
Q

neuromuscular inhibitors

A

block the Ach receptors to prevent skeletal contraction so relaxes muscle which is good for surgery anesthesia …

however diaphragm is so important bc if relaxed and without ventilator, u cant breathe and will die

50
Q

acetylcholineserase

A

enzyme that breaks down Ach so that the sodium ligand gate can close and the muscles can relax

51
Q

the sensory neuron always releases a neurotransmitter that what?

A

that excites the neurons

52
Q

excitatory vs inhibitory transmitters

A

excitatory releases opens the sodium ligand gate and flows in to the cell.

inhibitory opens the potassium ligand gate to cause k+ to get out of the neuron OR chlorine channels to go inside making it more negative

they both activate the neurotransmitter receptor sites in the posynaptic but only one can depolarize while the other one hyperpolarize

53
Q

are catelomines excitatory or inhibitory

A

catelomines are norep, epinep, and dopamine which r all excitatory

54
Q

temporal vs spatial

A

Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurones together release enough neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) to exceed the threshold of the postsynaptic neurone. … -Temporal summation occurs when one presynaptic neurone releases neurotransmitter many times over a period of time.

can be excitatory or inhibit

55
Q

monoamine oxidase (MAO)

A

breaks down catelomines by oxidizing them

56
Q

adenyl cyclase

A

usually activated by a neurotransmitter and will cause adenyl cyclase to cut ATP into AP + PP —-> camp

57
Q

phosphodiesterase

A

camp —> AMP (metabolite)

58
Q

metabolite

A

inactivated form of a chemical

59
Q

camp excites cells by?

A

not being broken down so that it can open sodium channels

usually with the help of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor

60
Q

tyrosine and tryptophan make what neurotransmitters

A

tyrosine makes the cateolomines

tryptophan makes the serotonin

61
Q

formal charge formula

A

valence electrons - actual electrons attached including the lone pairs

62
Q

electron geometry vs molecular geometry

A

molecular ignores lone pairs and just counts the dash

63
Q

nuclear effective charge (Z eff)

A

atomic number (number of protrons) - # of e- in inner circles (never count the ones in the valence shell)

ex: sodium nuclear eff is 1

64
Q

relationship between lewis dot structure and formal charge

A

check the formal charge and try as best as possible to make the formal charge of central atom 0…

may have exceptions with sulfur and phosphorus

65
Q

name two characters of a ligand base

A

can have non bonding e-

can have a neg charge

66
Q

which atoms can exceed the octet rule

A

Sulfur, phosphorus, silicon, and chlorine are common examples of elements that form an expanded octet.

rule of thumb: anything b4 period 3 SHOULD NEVER EXPAND THE OCTET RULE WHICH IS NO MORE THAN 4 BONDS (INCLUDING THE LONE PAIRS)

67
Q

examples of hybrid

A

sp sp2 sp3

68
Q

how many liters = 1m^3

A

1000

69
Q

how many cm = 1cm^3

A

1

however 1 L = 1000 cm^3 bc 1 cm^3 = 1mL

70
Q

sp has how many s and p character percentage

A

50 % of each

71
Q

sp2 as how many s and p character percentage

A

67% p and 33% of s

72
Q

sp3 how many s and p character percentage

A

75 p and 25of s

73
Q

what is another word for melting?

A

fusion

74
Q

what is deposition

A

gas to solid

75
Q

phase changes that bring molecules together vs the ones that farther them apart?

A

bringing them close together release heat (like freezing)

spreading molecules out will cause an absorb of heat like melting

76
Q

is gluconeogenesis an endergonic rxn?

A

no it is overall exerg just like glycolysis

77
Q

why is the rate of gluconeogenesis not dependent on myocytes?

A

Gluconeogenesis cannot occur in myoctes because they lack glucose-6-phosphatase

78
Q

Increasing the rate of gluconeogenesis would also increase activity in which of the following processes or enzymes?
Glycolysis
FBPase
Oxidative phosphorylation

A

Item I is false: glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are competing pathways that would lead to futile cycles if both were running (choice D can be eliminated). Item II is true: FBPase is a key regulatory enzyme in gluconeogenesis and should display greater activity when the pathway is active (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is false: during gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is reduced to glucose and NADH is oxidized to NAD+. Decreasing the levels of NADH would result in a decrease in the electron transport chain and ultimately in the rate of oxidative phosphorylation (choice C can be eliminated and choice A is the correct).

wouldn’t want to use something that u already have so little of… NADH is already small in maount bc turning it into a lot of nad+ so why use even more of it

79
Q

alpha decay vs beta decay

A

alpha decre mass number by 4

beta doesn’t effect mass number

80
Q

esterification rxn

A

is the general name for a chemical reaction in which two reactants (typically an alcohol and an acid) form an ester as the reaction product.

e–OH group is replaced by an –O–alkyl group.

O-C=O-C so its a carbon in between the double bond O and regular O

81
Q

If an object is traveling in uniform circular motion, and the centripetal force acting on the object is suddenly removed, which of the following best describes the object’s subsequent motion?

A. The object will continue to travel in a straight line at a constant velocity.

B. The object will continue to travel in a straight line, decelerating gradually until it comes to rest.

C. The object will continue to travel in uniform circular motion.

D. The object will continue to travel in uniform circular motion, decelerating gradually until it comes to rest.

A

Newton’s First law states that in the absence of external forces, an object will move with constant velocity. Therefore, once the force(s) providing the centripetal force are removed, the object will fly off tangentially from the circular path, traveling in a straight line at constant speed.

82
Q

gram equivalent weight means what ?

A

g/mol divided by the number of protrons because the unit for gram equiv is grams so cancel out moles with something

83
Q
How many liters of 2 M Ba(OH)2 are needed to titrate a 4 L solution of 6 M H3PO4?
A. 1.33 L
B. 12 L
C. 18 L
D. 56 L
A

Use the equivalence point equation: NaVa = NbVb. Ba(OH)2 can dissociate to give two hydroxide ions, so its normality is 2 M × 2 = 4 N. H3PO4 can dissociate to give three hydronium ions, so its normality is 6 M × 3 = 18 N. Plugging into the equation, we get (18 N)(4 L) = (4 N)(Vb). Therefore, Vb is 18 L.