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TMA Flashcards

1
Q

What is adaption?

A

A trait that enhances fitness and is a result of natural selection.

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2
Q

Explanations for non-adaptive traits?

A 
> Phylogenetic constraint (baggage).
> Design constraints (limiting factors).
> Sexual selection.
> Neutral features.
> Co-variation.
> Exaptation.
> Random genetic drift.
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3
Q

What is a key Innovation?

A

A novel trait providing an evolutionary advantage.

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4
Q

What is Adaptive radiation?

A

Explosion of speciation in a lineage linked to a key innovation.

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5
Q

Describe biological evolution?

A

Descent with modification

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6
Q

What is exaptation?

A

A feature having a function for which it was not originally adapted.

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7
Q

What is Developmental Platicity?

A

Alterations of phenotypes during growth, due to environment (can enhance evolution).

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8
Q

What are some of the archosaurian (dinos, birds, reptiles) adaptations as a result of a wider activity range?

A 
> Erect posture.
> 4-chambered heart.
> Parasagittal gait.
> Hingelike joints.
> Endothermy.
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9
Q

What is drag?

A

A force generated by a solid moving through a liquid.

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10
Q

What is Cursorial?

A

Specialised for running.

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11
Q

What is Scansorial?

A

Specialised for climbing.

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12
Q

What is Fossorial?

A

Specialised for digging?

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13
Q

What is Arboreal?

A

Specialised for tree locomotion

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14
Q

What are the 2 different posture types?

A

> Sprawled.

> Erect/upright.

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15
Q

What are the 3 main factors of motion?

A

POSITION, VELOCITY and ACCELERATION

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16
Q

What must ‘Ground Reaction Forces’ equal?

A

Body weight

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17
Q

What is the largest component associated with support of weight?

A

Vertical ground force

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18
Q

What is optimisation?

A

The Idea of improving for a different lifestyle.

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19
Q

What are the main features of early tetrapod locomotion?

A 
> Sprawling posture.
> Lateral bending of trunk.
> Relatively massive distal limbs.
> Same muscles for ventilation and trunk stabilization.
> Limited endurance.
> Limited aerobic scope.
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20
Q

What are some morphological adaptations for endurance and speed?

A 
> Upright posture.
> Stable trunk.
> Reduction in distal mass.
> Elongated legs.
> Elastic tendons.
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21
Q

What are ungulates specialized for?

A

ENDURANCE and SPEED

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22
Q

What are some adaptation for economy and speed?

A 
> Elongation of distal limb.
> Lightening of distal limb.
> Reduction in number of bones.
> Tendons act as pulleys and springs.
> Saggital plane motion (forward)
> Los of phalangees > ungilate.
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23
Q

What is an ungilate?

A

A hoofed mammal.

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24
Q

What are some physiological adaptations for endurance?

A

> High aerobic scope.
Temperature regulation.
Mitochondrial density in muscles.
Red blood cell volume.

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25
Q

What is plantrigrade motion?

A

Walking on soles of feet (human)

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26
Q

What is digitigrade motion?

A

Walking on toes or digits (dog)

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27
Q

What is ungiligrade?

A

Walking on hooves (horse)

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28
Q

What sort of interaction does terrestrial locomotions involve?

A

CYCLIC

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29
Q

What’s Newton’s 2nd Law?

A

Force = mass x acceleration

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30
Q

What’s Newton’s 3rd Law?

A

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

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31
Q

What does Inversley proportional mean?

A

When one value increases the other value decreases.

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32
Q

What is bernoulli’s principle?

A

Faster Flow = Lower Pressure

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33
Q

What is the Coanda effect?

A

A moving stream of fluid in contact with a curved surface will tend to follow the curvature of the surface rather than continue travelling in a straight line.

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34
Q

What important feature do all wings have?

A

Sharp trailing edges.

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35
Q

What is the kutta condition?

A

When the airflow above and below the wing is going in the same direction.

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36
Q

Is the pressure Lower or Higher above an airfoil?

A

Lower

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37
Q

In order to increase lift, do you need a higher or lower wing area?

A

Higher

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38
Q

How does drag effect bird flight?

A

> When gliding drag is a hinderance as it reduces speed.

> When flapping the angle of incident airflow is changed - drag is balanced.

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39
Q

Do birds have gaites?

A

No, flight is a spectrum.

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40
Q

When wing aspect ratio is high how does this effect drag?

A

Drag is reduced.

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41
Q

What kind of wings have high aspect ratio?

A

Long narrow wings.

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42
Q

How do wings generate lift (conventional)?

A

> Air is accelerated over the upper surface.
Then over a sharp trailing edge.
creating a bound vortex.

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43
Q

What are the unconventional ways of generating lift?

A

Using a sharp leading edge (at the expense of fuel economy)

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44
Q

What is parasite power?

A

The power required to overcome the drag of the body.

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45
Q

What kind of wings have low induced drag?

A

Long wings

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46
Q

What kind of wings have low profile drag?

A

Low area wings

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47
Q

What is classified as extreme gliding?

A

Gliding with wings with a higher aspect ratio than 50.

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48
Q

What’s the point of a high aspect ratio?

A

Minimise angle and drag and maximise lift.

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49
Q

What is thermal soaring?

A

Soaring using rising air heated from the sun.

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50
Q

What is soaring?

A

Rising in the air without the use of flapping or engine power - using energy in the air.

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51
Q

What is gliding?

A

Flying without flapping or engine power.

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52
Q

What is dynamic soaring?

A

Using different air masses and velocities (wind) to gain hight.

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53
Q

What is slope soaring?

A

Using air running off slopes to gain lift.

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54
Q

What does flapping flight require?

A

> Ability to withstand high forces.

> Lots of power - because of how active it is.

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55
Q

What is inertial power?

A

Tendancy of an object to keep moving in a straight line at a constant velocity.

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56
Q

What’s the problem with slow flapping flight?

A

Extremely inefficient > compromised inertial power.

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57
Q

Name 7 different types of flight?

A 
> Soaring
> Gliding
> Quartering
> Loitering
> Migrating
> Underwater
> Display
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58
Q

What’s the name of the type of flight used for surveying the ground?

A

Quartering

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59
Q

What kind of flight has the purpose to stay up as long as possible?

A

Loitering Flight.

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60
Q

What features are usefull for maneuvering?

A

> Short wings
Long tail
Slow flight

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61
Q

Why do birds fly in a V-formation?

A

> Aerodynamic benefit.

> Vision benefit.

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62
Q

Why do birds fly in flocks?

A

> Vigilance.
Predator dilution.
Crowd wisdom.

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63
Q

Why is aerodynamic theory developed for aircraft sometimes not usefull for understanding birds form and function?

A

> Birds flap.

> Birds need to be able to perform many functions.

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64
Q

How are frogs modified for jumping?

A

> Increased spinal flexibility.
Modified pelvic bones: elongated ileum (hinge), Appearance of urastyle, fusion of sacral bones.
Elongation of hind limbs (bigger lever).
Modifed muscles.
Long, stretchy tendons.

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65
Q

How are frogs modifeid for landing?

A

> Pre-activated fore-limbmuscles.
Abdominal ribs (absorb impact).
Fused radius + ulna.
Supra-scapula cartilage.

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66
Q

How much larger are landing forces compares to takeoff?

A

3 x larger

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67
Q

How are frogs modified for walking?

A

> Modified ileum- rotating pelvis.
Bi-lateral co-contraction of leg muscles.
Longer fore-limbs.

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68
Q

How are frogs modifed for swimming?

A

> Reduced for-limbs.
Webbed feet.
Small body area.
Central Jet theory.

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69
Q

How are frogs modified for aquatic jumping?

A

Modified foot morphology - high surface area.

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70
Q

How can frogs increase their jump distance?

A

> Increasing force - increases acceleration.

> Increasing speed - increases duration.

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71
Q

What are the 3 primary requirements for terrestrial legged locomotion?

A

> Move the centre of mass (COM).
Support body weight against gravity.
Move limbs into position for stance.

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72
Q

What is the largest force that acts on an animal during locomotion?

A

Vertical ground force.

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73
Q

What’s the equation for vertical ground force?

A

vertical force = -mass x gravity

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74
Q

How can vertical ground force be minimized?

A

More limbs on the ground.

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75
Q

What must horizontal forces average to maintain a steady speed?

A

zero

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76
Q

What happens to peak forces when speed increases?

A

They increase.

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77
Q

What are the ground reaction forces experienced by a horse during walk, trot and canter?

A

> Walk - 1/2 body weight.
Trot - 1 times body weight.
Canter - up to 2.5 body weight.

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78
Q

When are injuries most likely?

A

At high speeds.

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79
Q

What is strength proportional to?

A

Cross sectional-area

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80
Q

What is loading proportional to?

A

Body mass and volume.

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81
Q

What happens to animals as they get larger if they don’t change shape?

A

They get weaker.

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82
Q

Which increases fastest out of area and mass when size is increased?

A

Mass increases faster.

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83
Q

Name a benefit of large body size?

A

Excellent fuel economy.

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84
Q

Name a benefit of upright limb posture?

A

Decreases required muscle forces.

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85
Q

What must average vertical force support?

A

Body weight

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86
Q

What features minimise energy cost?

A

> Minimal horizontal forces.
Pendulum mechanism during walking.
Spring mechanism during running.

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87
Q

Name 2 Features of lizard locomotion?

A

Lateral body undulations .

Sprawling posture.

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88
Q

Name a feature of lizard ventilation?

A

Exhalation powered by hypaxial muscles.

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89
Q

How do Lizards integrate Loc + Vent?

A

Same muscles used for both - Lizards cant run and breath.

Limited endurance and aerobic scope.

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90
Q

What are the features developed by mammals and birds in order to avoid constraints on locomotion and ventilation?

A

> Upright posture.
Saggital bending.
Lateral stability - allawing muscled to function for ventilation.
Diaphragmatic - don’t have to use body wall muscles.
Bipedal locomotion - reduced use of body wall.
Locomotor-ventilatory coupling - rhythm of breathing during running.

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91
Q

What is locomotor-ventilatory coupling?

A

Integrating the 2 functions to achieve both effectively.

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92
Q

What is the visceral piston model?

A

Using the cranial movement of the guts during locomotion to aid exhalation.

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93
Q

Name 3 different ways animals exhale?

A

> Buccal pump mech (frogs).
Using hypaxial muscles (lizards).
Costal (rib-cage) breathing (mammals).

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94
Q

Why did loc + vent coupling develope?

A 
> Help do work of breathing.
> Avoid muscle conflict.
> Mixing of air - improve gas diffusion.
> Pneumatic stabilisation.
> Accident of neurol feedback.
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95
Q

Does loc + vent work together in turtles?

A

No - turtles have mechanically independant systems.

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96
Q

Does loc + vent work together in humans?

A

Partly - humans have to coordinate breaths and steps.

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97
Q

How do you measure locomotor driven ventilation (LDV)?

A

By averaging ventilatory flow relative to the step cycle.

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98
Q

What is the main source of energy loss and horizontal forces during locomotion?

A

Collisions.

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99
Q

How can energy loss during collisions be minimised?

A

> Effective ankle push off.

> Effective foot rolling.

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100
Q

Name some advantages for plantrigrade posture?

A

> Effective ankle push off.
Effective foot rolling.
Effective elastic energy cycling.

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101
Q

Name a disadvantage for plantrigrade posture?

A

Limits elongation and mass reduction of distal limbs.

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102
Q

Name some advantages for unguligrade posture?

A

Allows elongation and reduction of distal limb mass.

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103
Q

Name a disadvantage of unguligrade posture?

A

Limits foot rolling and ankle push off.

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104
Q

What is the positive and most energetically expensive form of muscle action?

A

Shortening.

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105
Q

What is the negative and most economic, most likely to cause muscle injury form of muscle action?

A

Lengthening.

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106
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle work?

A

> Shortening.
Isometric.
Lengthening.

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107
Q

What must happen to resist load?

A

Contraction.

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108
Q

What 2 pieces of information can be used to determine required muscle force?

A

> Ground forces.

> Limb posture.

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109
Q

What does work equal?

A

Force x distance.

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110
Q

What kind of limbs make better levers?

A

Longer ones.

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111
Q

Does effective mechanical advatage increase or decrease with body size?

A

It increases with size.

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112
Q

How can you reduce muscle force?

A

developing a high mechanical advantage

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113
Q

What happens to posture as an animal gets bigger?

A

> More upright.
Longer limbs.
Straighter limbs.

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114
Q

Why must animals change posture and proportion as they get bigger?

A

Because area increases slower than mass - animals would become weak (strength = cross sectional area)

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115
Q

How is energy cost of locomtion measured?

A

Oxygen uptake.

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116
Q

Why do larger animals have a lower cost of transport?

A

Because they travel a greater distance per stride.

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117
Q

What is the metabolically “cheapest” form of exercise?

A

Swimming

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118
Q

What is mechanobiology?

A

How physical forces and tissue mechanics contribute to development.

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119
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

The cavity where bone marrow and trabeculae are found.

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120
Q

What does osteoid compose of?

A

> Type 1 collagen.
Water.
Proteoglycans.

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121
Q

What does the bone matrix compose of?

A

> Type 1 collagen.
Water.
Proteoglycans.
Hydroxyapetite mineral.

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122
Q

What happens to a primary osteons?

A

> Increase outside diameter of diaphysis.
By depositing subperiosteal bone.
Leaving periosteal blood vessels buried inside osteonal tunnels.

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123
Q

What is an osteon?

A

Basic unit of compact bone.

124
Q

What happens to a secondary osteon?

A

> Osteoclasts tunnel through bone.
Followed by osteoblasts which fill in tunnel.
New haversian canal containing blood vessel formed.

125
Q

What is bone modelling?

A

Bone deposition with a net change in organ shape.

126
Q

What is bone remodelling?

A

Bone resorption followed by deposition.

127
Q

How is lamellar bone laid down?

A

In packets.

128
Q

What is strength?

A

The stress which a material can bear without failing (measured in gigapascals GPa)

129
Q

What is toughness?

A

The energy a material can bear without failing (measured in joules per unit)

130
Q

Where is articular cartilage found?

A

On articulating surfaces of bone.

131
Q

Where are the menisci found?

A

Tibia of knee joint.

132
Q

What is the miniscus made from?

A

Fibrocartilage.

133
Q

What is the function of cartilage?

A 
> Reduces friction at joints (smooth surface).
> Movement.
> Support (maintains shape).
> Growth (longitudinal growth of bone).
> Load bearing.
134
Q

Why is cartilage considered the simplest tissue?

A

> No blood vessels.
No nerves.
Only cells and extracellular matrix.

135
Q

What is cartilage composed of?

A

> Chondrocytes.

> EXTRACELLULAR matrix.

136
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of cartilage composed of?

A

> Type 2 collagen.
Water.
Glycosaminoglycans.
Proteoglycans.

137
Q

What is type 2 collagen made from?

A

> Type 1 collagen.

> Elastin.

138
Q

What are the regions of a normal articulating surface?

A

> Bone/cartilage interface.
Proliferating region.
Articulating region.
Articular surface.

139
Q

What do chondrocytes descend from?

A

Mesynchymal cells.

140
Q

What is the rate of cell division like for chondrocytes?

A

Very low.

141
Q

Where do chondrocytes sit?

A

Within a lacunae.

142
Q

What is the pericellular matrix?

A

Narrow tissue region surrounding chondrocytes in articular cartilage.

143
Q

What’s the function of the pericellular matrix?

A

Transducer of biochemical and biomechanical signal to the chondrocyte.

144
Q

Describe the structure of type 1 collagen?

A

Fibrils form fibres.

145
Q

Describe the structure of type 2 collagen?

A

Fibrils form meshwork.

146
Q

Describe structure of type 3 collagen?

A

Fibrils form fibres.

147
Q

Describe the structure of type 4 collagen?

A

Sheet-like network.

148
Q

What is the tidemark of articular cartilage?

A

Line seperating calcified and non-calcified cartilage.

149
Q

What is the function of proteoglycans within cartilage?

A

Absorbs and releases water when compressed - helps with shock absorption and articular functions.

150
Q

What’s the structure of a proteoglycan aggregate like?

A

> Core protein.

> GlycosAminoGlycan (GAG) side chains.

151
Q

What does the fibrous network of collagen provide in cartilage?

A

> Framework.
Shape.
Tensile strength.

152
Q

What does the water within cartilage provide?

A

> Nutrition.
Lubrication.
Weight bearing capacity.

153
Q

What do the proteoglycans within cartilage provide?

A

> Shock absorption.

> Resistance to deformation.

154
Q

What are the 3 main types of cartilage?

A

> Hyaline (including articular).
Elastic.
Fibrocartilage.

155
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

> In joints.
Inside bone as a template for growth.
In the embryonic skeleton.

156
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

> Pinna of ear.
Auditory canal.
Larynx.

157
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

> Intervertebral disks.

> Meniscus.

158
Q

Which type of cartilage is the toughest?

A

Fibrocartilage

159
Q

What’s the name of the cells in which all skeletal cells have derived?

A

Osteochondral progenitor.

160
Q

When does skeletal growth occur?

A

> Fetal.
Neonatal.
Puberty.

161
Q

What are the 3 germ layers?

A

> Ectoderm.
Mesoderm.
Endoderm.

162
Q

Which layer forms the skeleton?

A

Mesoderm.

163
Q

What cell lineage of the mesoderm did the cranofacial bones derive?

A

Neural Crest.

164
Q

What cell lineage of the mesoderm did the axial skeleton derive?

A

Paraxial mesoderm.

165
Q

What cell lineage of the mesoderm did the limb skeleton derive?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm.

166
Q

What are the 2 ossification processes?

A

Intramembranous.

Endochondral.

167
Q

What happens during intramembranous ossification?

A

Formation of flat bones.

168
Q

What happens during endochondral ossification?

A

Formation of long bones.

169
Q

What is axial patterning?

A

Periodic organisation of the vertebral column into multiple vertebrae along the anterior-posterior (AP) axis.

170
Q

What is a somite?

A

Divisions in the body of an embryo.

171
Q

What does the vertebrate limb develope from?

A

Limb bud.

172
Q

Describe the limb bud?

A

A small cluster of mesodermal cells, covered by an ectodermal cup.

173
Q

When does limb formation develope in a chicken embryo?

A

At 3 days.

174
Q

What happens if the transcription factor twist 1 (plays a role in thumb to fingers development) has a mutation?

A

Limb abnormalities.

175
Q

What 3 genes play a role in limb development?

A

> Sonic hedghog (finger formation).
Twist 1 (finger formation).
Homeobox (limb dorsal identity).

176
Q

What are the 2 regions where cartilage is not replaced by bone?

A

> End of epiphysis - joint cartilage.

> Growth plate.

177
Q

What are the chondrocyte zones?

A

> Zone of resting cartilage.
Zone of proliferation.
Zone of hypertrophy.
Zone of calcification.

178
Q

What happens to calcified cartilage?

A

It gets replaced by bone.

179
Q

What 2 vitamins are important for bone growth?

A

Vitamin C - collagen synthesis.

Vitamin D - calcium absorption.

180
Q

What hormones are important for bone growth?

A

> Growth hormone.
IGF-1.
Thyroid hormones.
Estrogen.

181
Q

Why is estrogen important for bone growth?

A

It closes the growth plate (strengthens bones).

182
Q

What does insefficient growth hormone cause?

A

Dwarfism.

183
Q

What does excessive growth hormone cause?

A

Gigantism or acromegaly.

184
Q

What factors increase bone growth?

A

> Mechanical forces.
Androgens.
Parathyroid hormone.

185
Q

What factor decreases bone growth?

A

Estrogens.

186
Q

What percentage of variation in peak bone mass is due to genetics?

A

60%

187
Q

What percentage of variation in peak bone mass is due to enviromental factors?

A

40%

188
Q

Why is it good for the skeleton to have a minimal mass?

A

For mobility.

189
Q

Why is it good for the skeleton to have optimal strength?

A

For loading.

190
Q

What are the 2 main processes of bone remodelling?

A

> Bone resorption.

> Bone formation.

191
Q

Describe the activity period of bone modelling?

A

Long time periods:
> Skeletal maturity - 18 years.
> Fracture healing - 1 year.

192
Q

Describe the activity period of bone remodelling?

A

Short time period:
> Resorption - 3 weeks.
> Formation (deposition) - 13 weeks.

193
Q

Why does bone remodelling happen?

A

> Release calcium from the skeleton.
Generate optimum architecture.
Maintenance - failure prevention.
Repair micro damage.

194
Q

What is asynchronus?

A

Not in sync.

195
Q

How is remodelling asynchronus?

A

It takes place in numerous parts of the skeleton simultaneously.

196
Q

What percentage of the adult skeleton is trabecular bone?

A

20%

197
Q

What percentage of the adult skeleton is cortical bone?

A

80%

198
Q

In which (trab or cort) bone does remodelling imbalances happen more frequently?

A

Trabecular.

199
Q

What are the resorption/reformation zones?

A

> Resorption - osteoclast cutting tunnel.
Reversal.
Formation.
Resting - osteoblasts finished forming bone.

200
Q

What is mechanosensing?

A

Responding to mechanical stimuli - such as exercise.

201
Q

What are the 2 specific sites in which bone remodelling targets?

A

> Sites of fatigue damage.

> Sites where microcracks are affecting mechanosensing.

202
Q

What happens to osteocytes when fatigue and microcracks happen?

A

Apoptosis.

203
Q

Why are viable osteocytes necessary?

A

They prevent osteoclast activation and maintain bone mass.

204
Q

What are inactive osteoblasts called?

A

Lining cells.

205
Q

What directs bone remodelling?

A

Osteocytes.

206
Q

How do osteoblasts know when to form new bone?

A

Apoptopic osteocytes send a signal containing location and size of damage to osteoblasts.

207
Q

What is the ‘bone remodelling compartment’ ?

A

Specialized vascular structure including osteoclasts and osteoblasts.

208
Q

What is the ‘coupling mechanism’ in bone cells?

A

Osteoclasts sending signals to lining cells

209
Q

What are some features of the ‘coupling signal’ in bone cells?

A

> Bi-directional.

> Stimulated by strain (osteoclasts in response to reduced strain) (Osteoblasts in response to increased strain).

210
Q

What molecules used in the ‘coupling signal’ between osteoclasts and blasts?

A

Growth factors.

211
Q

Give another name for osteoprogenitors?

A

Lining cells.

212
Q

What does the reversal phase do?

A

It activates the osteoprogenitors.

213
Q

What factors regulate bone remodelling?

A

> Hormones.
Cytokines.
Growth factors.
Mechanical enviroment.

214
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

Regulates calcium and phosphorus concentration in extracellular fluid.

215
Q

What is required for normal matrix mineralisation?

A

Hormonally active vitamin D.

216
Q

What is calcitonin?

A

An emergency hormone for osteoclast recruitment.

217
Q

What are the primary effect of estrogen on bone maintenance?

A

> Promotes osteoclast apoptosis.
Promotes osteoblast proliferation.
Promotes osteoblast differentiation.
Promotes mineralisation of matrix.

218
Q

What happens when estrogen levels drop rapidly (postmenapause)?

A

Bone density decreases - osteoporosis can develope.

219
Q

What is the major osteoblast stimulating cytokine?

A

RANK ligand.

220
Q

What changes with age, lead to bone mass loss?

A

Decline in bone formation.

Increase in the rate of remodelling.

221
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

> Striated (Skeletal).
Smooth.
Cardiac.

222
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

Muscle fibre bundle.

223
Q

What is the perimysium?

A

Connective tissue between fascicles.

224
Q

What is the epimysium?

A

Connective tissue on the outside of entire muscle.

225
Q

What is the endomysium?

A

Connective tissue between individual muscle fibres.

226
Q

Where are capillaries found in muscle?

A

In the connective tissue.

227
Q

What are the structures within the muscle (largest to smallest)?

A

> Fascicle.
Muscle fibre.
Myofibril.

228
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A

A structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle, consisting of a dark band and pale band.

229
Q

What is myosin?

A

A major contractile protein.

230
Q

What is the structure of myosin like?

A

Contains:
> Head - consisting of 4 light protein chains.
> Tail - consisting of 2 heavey protein chains.

231
Q

What does myosin do?

A

Interacts with actin to produce energy.

232
Q

What does the enzyme Myosin ATPase do?

A

Hydrolyses ATP.

233
Q

What is required for muscle contraction?

A

Calcium.

234
Q

What is the saroplasmic reticulum?

A

Type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum that regulates calcium ion concentration in the cytoplasm of striated muscle cells.

235
Q

What happens to calcium as a muscle contracts?

A

It is released from the saroplasmic reticulum.

236
Q

What happens to calcium as a muscle relaxes?

A

It returns to the saroplasmic reticulum.

237
Q

What is titin?

A

It is a highly elastic protein found in a sarcomere.

238
Q

What must happen to proteins actin and myosin for them to contract?

A

They must interact.

239
Q

What does acetyl choline esterase do?

A

It brakes down acetyl choline and prevents overstimulation.

240
Q

How do fast muscle fibres appear?

A

Dark

241
Q

How do slow muscle fibres appear?

A

Pale

242
Q

What determines muscle fibre type?

A

Level of activity.

243
Q

How do all muscle fibres in a motor unit contract?

A

SIMULTANEOUSLY

244
Q

What is a satellite cell?

A

Precurser to skeletal muscle cells.

245
Q

What do satellite cells do?

A

Repair.

246
Q

Describe the structure of striated muscle?

A

Regular arrangement of fibres.

247
Q

Describe the structure of smooth muscle?

A

Irregular arrangements of fibres.

248
Q

What does troponin and tropomyosin do?

A

Inhibits actin.

249
Q

What are nerve cells designed for?

A

To respond to stimuli and transmit information over long distances.

250
Q

What are the 4 functions of neurons?

A

> Receive information.
Process information.
Propagate signal.
Transmit signal.

251
Q

What are the 3 diffent excitable cells?

A

> Neurons.
Muscle cell.
Endocrine cells.

252
Q

What is an excitable cell?

A

A cell that can produces an action potential.

253
Q

During resting potential which is more negatively charged inside or outside of cell?

A

Inside (-70)

254
Q

How much of the body’s energy do sodium potassium pumps use?

A

1/3

255
Q

What is a myotome?

A

Part of a somite that developes into muscles.

256
Q

What sort of cells align and fuse to make up a myotube?

A

Myoblasts.

257
Q

What happens to the myotubes?

A

They gradually differentiate into muscle fibers.

258
Q

What sort of nuclei does developing muscle have?

A

Central.

259
Q

What sort of nuclei does mature muscle have?

A

Peripheral.

260
Q

Why is nerve impulse essential for muscle?

A

It maintains structure and function.

261
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Wasting away of tissue.

262
Q

What is histochemistry?

A

Identification of chemical components in cells and tissues.

263
Q

What are nerve cells designed for?

A

To respond to stimuli and transmit information over long distances.

264
Q

What are the 4 functions of neurons?

A

> Receive information.
Process information.
Propagate signal.
Transmit signal.

265
Q

What are the 3 diffent excitable cells?

A

> Neurons.
Muscle cell.
Endocrine cells.

266
Q

What is an excitable cell?

A

A cell that can produces an action potential.

267
Q

During resting potential which is more negatively charged inside or outside of cell?

A

Inside (-70)

268
Q

How much of the body’s energy do sodium potassium pumps use?

A

1/3

269
Q

Name some features of resting channels?

A

> Normally open.
Not influenced by the potential across the membrane.
Maintain the resting potential.

270
Q

Name some features of gated channels?

A

> Closed when membrane is at rest.
Recognise and select specific ions.
They can open in response to specific signals.

271
Q

Name 3 different type of gated channels?

A

> Voltage-gated.
Ligand-gated.
Mechanically gated.

272
Q

What are the 2 different type of transmembrane potential?

A

> Local potential - short range

> Action potential - long range electric signals are propagated along axons.

273
Q

What are the sources of stimulation for local potentials?

A

> Mechanical - stimulation of gated ion channels (pressure).

> Chemical - stimulation of ligand-gated ion channels (neurotransmitters)

274
Q

How does depolarization happen?

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels open.

275
Q

How does hyperpolarization happen?

A

Voltage-gated potassium and chloride channels open.

276
Q

What are the 3 different types of initiation?

A

> Stimulation of sensory receptors.
Synaptic activity (neurotransmitters).
Spontaneous activity (cardiac).

277
Q

What is the axon hillock?

A

Region between cell body and axon where many sodium channels are located.

278
Q

What are the 2 different refractory periods?

A

> Absolute.

> Relative.

279
Q

What are the 2 types of propagation along an axon?

A

> Action potential conduction - unmyelinated axons.

> Saltatory conduction - myelinated axons.

280
Q

What feature of neural transmission ensures conduction only travels in one direction?

A

Membrane becomes refractory.

281
Q

What are the 3 sites of termination of an action potential?

A

> Chemical synaps.
Electrical synaps.
Neuromuscular junctions.

282
Q

What kicks off the transmission across a synaptic cleft?

A

Opening of voltage gated calcium channels.

283
Q

What kind of contraction is seen in skeletal muscle?

A

Voluntary (controlled).

284
Q

What kind of contraction is seen in smooth muscle?

A

> Involuntary.

> Voluntary.

285
Q

What kind of contraction is seen in cardiac muscle?

A

Involuntary.

286
Q

What is the ‘somatic nervous system’?

A

Nerves that serve the skeletal muscles and the exterior sense organs such as the skin.

287
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

Group of muscle fibres all innervated by the same axon.

288
Q

What is a neuromediator?

A

A molecule that transports information between neurons - acetylcholine.

289
Q

What does cholinergic mean?

A

Synthesizes and releases acetylcholine.

290
Q

What is a nicotinic receptor?

A

> Membrane-spanning protein.

Formed by 5 protein sub-units.

291
Q

What does a nicotinic receptor do?

A

> It is binded to by acetylcholine (ligand).

> Acts as a ligand-gated cation channel for the movement of sodium and potassium.

292
Q

What is the end plate potential?

A

A depolarizing synaptic potential caused by the influx of Na+ ions.

293
Q

What is sarcolemmal action potential?

A

Action potential of a muscle.

294
Q

Name 2 presynaptic toxins that prevent the release of acetyle choline?

A

> Botulinum.

> Tetanus.

295
Q

What compounds are irreversible antiacetylcholinesterases?

A

> Organophosphorus.

> Sarin gas.

296
Q

What are neuromuscular blockers that depolarize the motor end plate used for?

A

Muscle relaxants - used with anesthesia to produce paralysis.

297
Q

What is Myathenia Gravis?

A

It is an autoimmune disease in which circulating antibodies block acetyl cholin receptors.

298
Q

What is congenital myasthenia?

A

Inherited neuromuscular disorder caused by mutation in gene that encodes the muscle acetyl cholin receptor.

299
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

Neural transmission from a sensory neuron to motor neuron across a single synapse (such as knee jerk).

300
Q

What is a polysynaptic reflex?

A

Neural transmission from a sensory neuron to motor neuron across multiple synapses.

301
Q

What are the different sources of neural delay?

A 
> Synaptic delay.
> Nerve conduction delay.
> Neuromuscular junction delay.
> Electromechanical delay.
> Force generation delay
302
Q

What does delay limit?

A

Response time.

303
Q

What is feedforward?

A

Patterning movement.

304
Q

What is feedback?

A

Reflex movement.

305
Q

Are larger animals use primarily feedforward or feedback mechanisms?

A

Feedforward.

306
Q

What is the periosteal reaction?

A

Formation of new bone in response to injury.

307
Q

What is aerobic scope?

A

Range of possible oxidative metabolism from rest to maximal exercise.

Gateway (17 decks)

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