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TLC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 types of electron microscope?

A

> Scanning.

> Transmission.

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2
Q

How does a Transmission electron microscope work?

A

> Fires electrons through a thin sample.

> Electrons are seen by the detector.

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3
Q

What is an electron lense?

A

An electromagnet used to focus electrons

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4
Q

How does a Scanning electron microscope work?

A

Detects electrons reflected of the samples surface.

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5
Q

What are the disadvantages of electron microscopy?

A 
> Samples must be sliced extremely thin.
> Sample prep requires the use of toxic chemicals (heavey metals).
> Sample prep can alter tissues.
> Expensive.
> Requires specialist knowledge.
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6
Q

How is it possible to detect specific proteins using light microscopy?

A

> Linking antibodies to florescent labels.

> Linking antibodies to gold beads.

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7
Q

Cytology is the study of what?

A

Structure and function of cells.

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8
Q

Histology is the study of what?

A

Microscopic structure of tissues and organs.

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9
Q

Pathology is the study of what?

A

Abnormal structure and function.

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10
Q

What is the function of the cytoskeleton?

A

Controlling the shape and mobility of the cell.

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11
Q

What are 3 ways it is possible to see parts of cells?

A

> Cut the tissues into slices.
Remove individual cells.
Use specialised imaging techniques (staining).

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12
Q

How do you prepare slides (bright field microscope) ?

A 
> Fixation (preserves).
> Embedding in wax (makes more rigid).
> Cut into sections.
> Mounting.
> Staining.
> Covering.
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13
Q

What colour do Haematoxylin and Eosin stain?

A

> Haematoxylin - DNA blue

> Eosin - proteins pink

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14
Q

What are the 5 main parts of a light microscope?

A 
> Eyepiece.
> Objective.
> Sample.
> Condensor.
> Collector lense.
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15
Q

What are some advantages of bright field microscopy?

A

> Sample prep simple.
Clear images of overall tissue morphology.
Quick imaging.

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16
Q

What are some disadvantages of bright field microscopy?

A 
> Images low contrast.
> low sensitivity.
> Samples must be stained.
> Can not image living cells!
> Colour resolution poor.
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17
Q

What is phase contrast microscopy?

A

Microscope designed by Fritz Zernike where 2 rings are inserted into the light path; one before the sample, one in the objective.

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18
Q

What are some advantages of phase contrast microscopy?

A

> Quick to set up.

> Can be done on living samples.

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19
Q

What are some disadvantages of Phase contrast microscopy?

A

> Produces poor spatial resolution.
“halo” produced hiding detail.
Not sharp.

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20
Q

What is Differential interferance contrast microscopy?

A

Light microscopy wher components are added; 2 polorizers and 2 prizms.

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21
Q

What are advantages of Differential interference contrast microscopy?

A

> Very good resolution.
Sharp.
Can be done on live samples.

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22
Q

What are disadvantages of Differential interference contrast microscopy?

A

> Complex to carry out.
Sensitive configurations.
Can not be done with samples in plastic dishes.

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23
Q

How other than by using stains can parts of a cell be labelled?

A

Using fluorophores.

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24
Q

How does Fluorescence work?

A

> Bright light shone through filter.
Light reflected on to sample by a dichroic mirror.
Light given off collected through filter.

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25
Q

What is “pseudocolouring”?

A

Adding a false colour to make image clearer.

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26
Q

What are the advantages of Fluorescence microscopy?

A

> Increased sensitivity.
Used to distinguish 4 or more different stains.
Used for live cells.
Non-toxic.

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27
Q

What are the disadvantages of Fluorescence microscopy?

A

Dyes bleach as light is shone on them.

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28
Q

What is Immunostaining?

A

Binding a coloured antibody to a selected protein.

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29
Q

What is the Cytoskeleton made of?

A

> Actin - filaments.

> Tubulin - microtubules.

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30
Q

How are proteins made?

A

> Proteins destined to live inside the cell are made by ribosomes.
Proteins destined to live within membranes or be transported out of the cell follow a more complex path.

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31
Q

How are intracellular membranes distinguished between under microscope?

A

> Proteins they contain.

> How they move.

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32
Q

How are lysosomes recognised?

A

Using a red stain activated under acidic conditions.

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33
Q

What are the main components of a (eukaryotic) cell?

A 
> Plasma Membrane.
> Cytoskeleton.
> Nucleus.
> Mitochondria.
> Endoplasmic reticulum.
> Golgi.
> Secretory vesicles.
> Endosomes. 
> Lysosomes.
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34
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Cell division.

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35
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increase in cell size.

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36
Q

How are exact copies of DNA made in cells?

A

Semi-conservative replication.

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37
Q

When does mitosis occur normally?

A

During early embryogenesis.

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38
Q

When does mitosis occur pathologically?

A

> Benign hyperplasia of the prostate.

> Development of mammary tumours.

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39
Q

What happens during hypertrophy?

A

Extensive biosynthesis.

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40
Q

When does hypertrophy occur naturally?

A

In structures such as endochondral bone formation.

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41
Q

When does hypertrophy occur pathologically?

A

> Obesity - adipocytes enlarge.

> Hypertrophic heart disease - cardiomyocytes enlarge.

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42
Q

What are the 3 inter-dependant cell cycles?

A

CYTOPLASMIC cycle.
CHROMOSOME cycle.
CENTROSOME cycle.

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43
Q

What happens during the cytoplasmic cycle?

A

Growth and biosynthesis fuels:
> Chromosome and centrosome cycles.
> Organelle replication.
> Seperation of daughter cells.

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44
Q

What happens during the chromosome cycle (mitosis) ?

A

> DNA replication.

> Segragation.

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45
Q

When does the centrosome cycle happen and what happens?

A

> Prior to mitosis.

> Formation of the mitotic spindle fibres.

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46
Q

Whats the difference between a centrosome and centriol?

A

Centrosome consists of 2 centrioles.

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47
Q

What happens during cell cycle arrest?

A

Halt in progression through cell cycle, hypertrophy still occurs.

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48
Q

When during the cell cycle do the checkpoints take place?

A

> Between G1 and S phase (restriction).
Between G2 and prophase.
During metaphase of mitosis (spindle)

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49
Q

What’s the point of a checkpoint 1 (restriction)?

A

> Ensuring DNA is not damaged.

> Ensuring cell is large enough.

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50
Q

What’s the point of checkpoint 2?

A

> Ensuring DNA is not damaged.

> Ensuring DNA replication is complete.

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51
Q

What’s the point of checkpoint 3?

A

> Ensuring mitotic spindle is assembled.

> Ensuring chromosomes are properly aligned?

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52
Q

When does the double check occur?

A

During checkpoint 2, it ensures that there is no error in duplication of chromosomes.

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53
Q

What happens during the G1 phase?

A

Normal cell activity (biosynthesis) production of organelles.

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54
Q

What happens during the S phase and how long is it?

A

> Cell content doubles (DNA + cytoplasm).
Chromosome forms 2 sister chromatids.
S phase is 3-6 hours.

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55
Q

What happens during the G2 phase?

A

> Normal cell activity (biosynthesis).
2-4 hour delay.
Cell cycle checkpoint.

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56
Q

What happen if cells become locked in G1 phase?

A

HYPERTROPHY

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57
Q

What happens if cells have unrestricted acces to the mitotic phase?

A

HYPERPLASIA

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58
Q

Which is the longest phase?

A

G1

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59
Q

What happens during the M phase and how long is it?

A

> Protein synthesis ceases.
Chromosomes condense.
1 hour.

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60
Q

What sort of cells spend time in a resting state G0 phase?

A

Cells dividing less frequently than once a day.

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61
Q

What happens in the G0 phase?

A

Cells either become QUIESCENT or undergo HYPERTROPHY.

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62
Q

What part of the cell cycle can be transient or permanent?

A

G0 phase

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63
Q

how do cells reduce the length of their cycle e.g. during the rapid growth of embryonic cells?

A

Through virtual ELIMINATION of G1 and G2.

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64
Q

How can cells in each steps of the cell cycle be quantified?

A

> Estimated by microscopy.
Labelled with radiolabelled niwcleotides.
Using flow cytometry.

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65
Q

How is control of the cell cycle maintained?

A

Decision points and Checkpoints.

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66
Q

What are features of the cell cycle?

A

> Time limited (has a clock)
Invariable order.
Phases are irreversible.
Robust - works even after malfunction.

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67
Q

What do cyclins and CDK’s do?

A

Regulate cell cycle activity.

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68
Q

What happens when CDK’s are active?

A

PHOSPHORYLATION - progression of the cell cycle.

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69
Q

What happens when CDK’s are inactive?

A

No phosphorylation - cell cycle is halted.

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70
Q

What must happen in order for an EXPLOSIVE RISE in CDK binding and formation of the ACTIVE COMPLEX?

A

Cyclin concentration must reach a THRESHOLD

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71
Q

What does the mitotic CDK-cyclin stimulate?

A

> Nuclear breakdown.
Chromosome condensation.
Mitotic spindle formation.
Targeted protein degradation.

72
Q

What controlls ACTIVATION of cell replication?

A

Cyclin-CDK and phosphorylation.

73
Q

What controlls INACTIVATION of cell replication?

A

Inhibitory phosphorylation of the KINASE SUBUNIT.

74
Q

What happens to cyclins onced they have served their function?

A

The protein ubiquitin degrades it

75
Q

The formation of what complex triggers DNA synthesis?

A

S-CDK

76
Q

What is a kinase?

A

Enzymes that catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from high-energy, phosphate-donating molecules to specific substrates.

77
Q

Which 2 cyclins are START CYCLINS?

A

D and E

78
Q

Checkpoint protein act when?

A

When they receive negative intracellular signals.

79
Q

What is a mitogen?

A

An extra-cellular signalling molecule that changes cell cycle activity.

80
Q

What does a mitogen do?

A

> Triggers cell-division and SIGNALLING CASCADE.
Overcomes intracellular mechanisms that blocks the cell cycle.
Increases transcription of genes for G1-CDK, S-CDK and G2-CDK.

81
Q

What is a growth factor?

A

A protein that stimulates cell divisin and differentiation.

82
Q

What does a growth factor do?

A

> Bind to cell surface receptors.
induce expression of G1 cyclins.
They are supressed by tumour supressors.

83
Q

What is the purpose of the cell membrane?

A

> Allow passage of nutrients, minerals and water into the cell.
Excrete waste out of the cell.
Cell signalling.

84
Q

What is the purpose of proteins in the cell membrane?

A

Communicating with the external enviroment e.g. receptors, channels and pumps.

85
Q

What is the purpose of carbohydrates in the cell membrane?

A

Signalling e.g. glycoproteins and glycolipids.

86
Q

What does AMPHIPATHIC mean?

A

Has a polar (hydrophilic) and a non-polar (hydrophobic) part.

87
Q

Where in the membrane do you find cholestral?

A

Between phospholipids.

88
Q

When does the amount of cholestral vary and why?

A

With temperature - colder cells more cholesterol - helps maintain fluidity of membrane (stop from freezing).

89
Q

What is the structure of cholestral like?

A

> Polar (hydrophilic) hydroxyl group.
Rigid ring system.
Flexible non polar (hydrophobic) side chain.

90
Q

What molecules can travel across the membrane unfacilitated?

A

> SMALL uncharged, polar (hydrophilic) molecules e.g. water.

> Non-polar (hydrophobic) molecules.

91
Q

What different kind of proteins can you find within the membrane?

A

> Peripheral.
Lipid-anchored.
Integral (transmembrane).

92
Q

What properties must a protein have in order to be Integral?

A

Must be AMPHIPATHIC > contains a hydrophobic alpha helix in the middle part.

93
Q

What are the different kind of integral (transmembrane) proteins?

A 
> Transporter.
> Anchor.
> Receptor.
> Enzyme.
> Monotopic.
94
Q

What percentage of the membrane mass is carbohydrate?

A

10%

95
Q

What are the 3 different type of filament?

A

> Microtubules
Microfilaments
Intermediate filaments

96
Q

What is the function of intermediate filaments?

A

To provide (non-cotractile) mechanical strength.

97
Q

What is the basic subunit of the microtubule?

A

> α-tubulin.
β-tubulin.
Monomers which combine to form an αβ-dimer

98
Q

Explain the role of kinesin and dynein in vesicle transport?

A

> Kinesin transports cargo from negative to positive anterograde.
Dynein transports cargo from positive to negative retrograde.

99
Q

Outline the structure of cilia and flagella and explain how they are motile?

A

> Axoneme structure.
Including a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
Each doublet microtubule has a dynein arm- this is a motor protein.
Dynein uses a sliding tubule mechanism this helps the structure to move.

100
Q

What is the energy source for actin?

A

Treadmilling - ATP being hydrolysed at both positive and negative end of ffilament.

101
Q

What is cytoscaffold?

A

Complex network of filamentous proteins extending throughout the cytoplasm.

102
Q

What’s the function of the filaments that make up the cytoscaffold?

A 
> Shape the cell.
> Anchoring of organelles.
> Organelle development.
> Tensile strength.
> Chromosome movement.
> Cell polarity.
> Motility.
103
Q

What sub-units make up the intermediate filaments polymer?

A

> Keratins.
Desmins.
Neurofilaments.
Nuclear lamins.

104
Q

How does the intermediate filaments polymer appear?

A

> 8-stranded (rope-like).

> Forms a hollow tube.

105
Q

How does the microtubule polymer appear?

A

> 13-strands.

> Forms hollow tubes.

106
Q

What is the diameter of a microfilament?

A

7 nanometres

107
Q

What sub-units make up a microfilament?

A

Globular- actin monomers.

108
Q

How does the microfilament polymer appear?

A

> Single filaments.

> Interacts with proteins to create complex arrangements.

109
Q

What is the function of actin microfilaments?

A

> Structural support - is contractile.
Cell movement.
Interacts with molecular motor myosin.

110
Q

What are the 2 forms of the actin cytoskeleton?

A

> Parallel bundles of filaments.

> Criss-crossed bundles that form a network.

111
Q

How can the actin cytoskeleton be modified?

A

> Cross-linking.
Cutting.
Binding of proteins.

112
Q

What are the 4 Key processes microfilaments perform for cell motility?

A

> Gel-Sol transition within cytoplasm.
Lamellipodial transition.
Actin-myosin interactions.
Focal adhesions.

113
Q

What connects the pairs of dublet tubules to one another?

A

Nexin Links

114
Q

What forms F-actin?

A

Lots of G-actin.

115
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

> Chromosomes begins to condense.

> Mitotic spindle begins to assemble.

116
Q

What happens during pro-metaphase?

A

> Nuclear membrane breaks down.
Cell cycle checkpoint.
Spindle fibres attach to chromosomes via the kinetichore.

117
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

> Sister chromatids align on the cell equator.
Cell cycle checkpoint.
Kinesin motor protein walks to the end of polar microtubules connected to a microtubule from the oposite pole - this pushes poles apart.

118
Q

What happens during anaphase A?

A

> Enzyme seperase brakes down a protein called cohesin which holds the 2 sister chromatids together.
The motor protein dynein carries the sister chromosomes along the kinetichore microtubules to their polar ends.

119
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

> Chromosomes arrive at poles.
Chromosomes decondense (unwind).
Nuclear envelope reforms.

120
Q

Where do the microtubules form?

A

MICROTUBULE ORGANISING CENTRES (MTOC)

121
Q

Give 2 examples of a Microtubule organising centre (MTOC)?

A

> Kinetichore.

> Centrosome.

122
Q

What surrounds the centrioles to make up the centrosomes?

A

The PERICENTRIOLAR MATRIX

123
Q

What are 3 the differnt type of microtubule present in mitosis?

A

> Kinetichore microtubule.
Polar microtubule.
Astral microtubule.

124
Q

What is the contractile ring?

A

Ring made of actin.

125
Q

How does the contractile ring work?

A

The actin ring pinches the cells apart through the action of myosin motors.

126
Q

What is the “metaphase plate”?

A

The equator of the cell.

127
Q

What happens during anaphase B?

A

> Overlapping polar microtubules slide against one another, pushing the spindle poles apart.
A pulling force acts on the poles (centrosomes) to move them apart.

128
Q

What roles do kinesin and dynein play in anaphase B ?

A

> Kinesin pushes spindles apart.

> Dynein pulls polls apart.

129
Q

What did Claude Bernard quote about homeostasis?

A

“The constancy of the internal enviroment is the condition of the free life”

130
Q

Who came up with the phrase ‘homeostasis’?

A

Walter Cannon

131
Q

What is cybernetics?

A

Science of control mechanisms.

132
Q

What are the basic concepts of a control system?

A

What are the basic concepts of a control system?

133
Q

What are the 3 interdependant components of homeostatic control?

A

> Receptor
Control center
Effector

134
Q

What does the receptor do?

A

> Monitors the environment.

> Responds to change (stimuli), by sending input to the control centre, via the afferent pathways.

135
Q

What does afferent mean?

A

Movement towards something.

136
Q

What does the control centre do?

A

> Determines set point at which level is to be maintained.

> Analyses the input and determines the appropriate response.

137
Q

What does the effector do?

A

Provides the control centres response (output) via the efferent pathways

138
Q

What diseases are caused due to homeostatic disturbance?

A

> Renal failure.
Diabetes.
Respiratory failure.
Fluid overload.

139
Q

How does negative feedback work?

A

It causes a change in direction opposite to that of the initial change.

140
Q

How does positive feedback work?

A

It enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus so activity (output) is accelerated.

141
Q

How is blood pressure autoregulated?

A

> By the sympathetic nervous system - fast (contraction of vessels)
And renal systems - slow (siving)

142
Q

How are respirotory gases controlled in the blood?

A

> Chemoreceptors sense levels of pH / CO2.
Information is sent to the brain.
Phrenic nerve causes breathing reflex.

143
Q

Outline briefly the positive feedback mechanism of childbirth?

A

> Stretch receptors in uterus are stimulated.
Hypothalamic release of oxytocin into bloodstream.
Uterus contracts more forcively.
Ferguson reflex - contraction of uterus after cervix.

144
Q

What’s another word for childbirth?

A

Parturition

145
Q

How can blood clotting problems be caused?

A

> Damage to the cells lining the blood vessels (endothelial cells)
Reduced blood flow.
Platelet activation.

146
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A

Cells and proteins that are always present and ready to mobilize and fight microbes at the site of infection.

147
Q

What is autoimmunity?

A

Disorder in which the bodies immune system fights it’s own tissues.

148
Q

Define homeostasis?

A

The ability to maintain a steady state within a constantly changing environment

149
Q

Name some causes of excessive bleeding?

A

> Vitamin K deficiency.
Haemophilia.
Thrombocytopaenia- low platelet count.

150
Q

What is the adaptive immune system?

A

Cells and proteins that adapt against pathogens that are able to overcome innate immune defenses.

151
Q

Give some examples of negative feedback systems?

A 
> Control of blood sugar.
> Regulation of temperature.
> Blood pressure.
> Respiration.
> Fluid and electrolyte balance.
> pH balance.
152
Q

Give some examples of positive feedback systems?

A

> Blood clotting cascade.
Labour contractions.
Breast feeding.
Urination.

153
Q

What is a baroreceptor?

A

They are sensors located in the blood vessels that sense blood pressure.

154
Q

What is extracellular?

A

Outside the cell

155
Q

What does extracellular fluid consist of?

A 
> Ions such as: Sodium, chloride, bicarbonate.
> Glucose.
> Fatty acids.
> Oxygen and Carbon dioxide.
> Cellular waste products.
156
Q

What does intracellular fluid consist of?

A

Ions such as: potassium, magnesium, phosphate.

157
Q

How much of the body’s fluid is extracellular?

A

1/3

158
Q

What is transcellular fluid?

A

Fluid within epithelial lined spaces (smallest component of extracellular).

159
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of cell transport?

A

> Simple diffusion.
Facilitated diffusion (using proteins).
Active transport.

160
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

A solution where the outside of the cell has a higher concentration of solutes than the inside.

161
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

A solution where the outside of the cell has a lower concentration of solutes than the inside

162
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

A solution where the inside and outside of a cell has the same concentration of solutes.

163
Q

What are the buffering systems in blood?

A

> Bicarbonate.
Proteins.
Phosphates.
Haemoglobin.

164
Q

What is the role of the carbonic anhydrous enzyme?

A

Combining carbon dioxide and water to make carbonic acid - this acts as a buffer.

165
Q

How do capillaries maintain water?

A

Using sodium potassium pumps, Na+ is actively transported into capillary > followed by water.

166
Q

What are the buffering systems in extra cellular fluid (ECF) and cellular spinal fluid (CSF)?

A

> Bicarbonate.
Proteins.
Phosphates

167
Q

What are the buffering system of Intracellular fluid?

A

> Bicarbonates.
Proteins.
Phosphates.

168
Q

What is hypernatremia?

A

Electrolyte imbalance - high level of sodium in the blood

169
Q

How is hypernatremia caused?

A

> Excess Sodium (overproduction of aldosterone - Cushings syndrome)
Loss of water (diabetes insipidus)

170
Q

Ideal pH for mammalian tissues?

A

7.4

171
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

Electrolyte (ion) imbalance - low level of sodium in the blood.

172
Q

What are the 2 different types of Acid-base disturbances?

A

> Respiratory.

> Non-respiratory.

173
Q

How does the body compensate when plasma CO2 levels are increased due to chronic respiratory disease?

A

More bicarbonate is produced - this acts as a base and increases the pH.

174
Q

Where is the enzyme carbonic anhydrase found?

A

In the lumen of the proximal tubules of the kidney

175
Q

How is hyponatremia caused?

A

> Excess water (overproduction of ADH)

> Loss of water (decreased aldosterone production - Addisons disease)

176
Q

How do capillaries maintain water?

A

> Using sodium potassium pumps.
Na+ is actively transported into capillary
Followed by water.

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