Third year PMPVH

Question 1

Risk =

Answer 1

Probability of occurrence of undesired event and consequences

Question 2

Risk analysis

Answer 2

Assessing probably of occurence (prevelence in a population) and consequences (disease severity, duration, cost)

Question 3

Which regulation states that vets are responsible for their employees safety?n

Answer 3

Control of subtances hazardous to health (CoSHH) Reg 2002.

Question 4

Differentiate between carrier and colonised host

Answer 4

Carrier: pathogens isolated from animal/human without causing clinical signs of the disease in the host
Colonised host: Also no clinical signs on host but implies that microbes multiply on host. Requires longitudinal sampling to prove.

Question 5

TB in dogs

Answer 5

TB in DOGS AND CATS is notifiable to the Local animal health divisional office.

Question 6

Step 1 in outbreak investigation?

Answer 6

Confirm existence of outbreak! Are there really ‘more cases than expected’ !!
esp farmers reporting abortions

Question 7

How to differentiate a point source from a continuous common source?

Answer 7

Point source: 1 incubation period

Continuous common source: >1 incubation period

Question 8

Food-bourne outbreaks (e.g. norovirus)

Answer 8

Norovirus typically associated with Raw shellfish consumption.
Food bourne outbreaks tend to be point sources

Question 9

Basic reproduction number, R0 =

Answer 9

Average number of new cases caused by one infected individual IN AN ENTIRELY SUSCEPTIBLE POPULATION

Question 10

3 factors that influence the basic reproduction number, R0

Answer 10

1) Contact rate, infectiousness, susceptibility

Question 11

If the R0 is < __ the outbreak is said to be confined

Answer 11

For an outbreak to be contained R0 < 1

Question 12

How does movement restrictions help outbreak

Answer 12

R0 is influenced by contact rate, infectiousness, susceptibility.
Movement restrictions help reduce contact rate.

Question 13

How is the PTA (Predicted transmitting ability) related to the EBV (Estimated Breeding Value)

Answer 13

PTA = 1/2 EBV

Question 14

Which factors are included in the PLI

Answer 14

Profitable lifetime index.

Lifespan, SCC, Locomotion, Milk fat, protein.

Question 15

Risk management includes…(3 things)

Answer 15

Risk management is based on risk assessment. (Unidentified risks cannot be managed)
Risk management includes: 1) Identifying the most cost-effective management option
2) Implementation
3) Monitoring and follow up.
RISK COMMUNICATION IS CRITICAL FOR EFFECTIVE RISK MANAGEMENT

Question 16

Define risk management

Answer 16

Interrupting, preventing or eliminating transmission pathways identified in the assessment.
RISK COMMUNICATION IS CRITICAL FOR EFFECTIVE RISK MANAGEMENT

Question 17

Define Hazard:

Answer 17

An agent, substance OR action that has the potential to cause an undesired event
e.g. ecoli, pesticides, not washing hands

Question 18

Who is responsible for the safety of cow feed?

Answer 18

If bought in; feed manufacturers are responsible for the safety of feed sold to farmers as ‘ready to be given to animals’
Farmers sourcing ingredients to produce their own feed-= responsible that it is safe.

Question 19

What species are there statutory salmonella surveillence?

Answer 19

Only breeding poultry farms.
Voluntary in laying (vaccination) and broiler flocks.
No statutory salmonella control program in UK pig sector but approx 90% signed up to testing

Question 20

Routes for human infection with Ecoli 0157

Answer 20

-Consumption of contaiminated food or water
Direct contact with animals or their faeces
Person to person spread
Main reservoir in UK in cattle but other ruminants can be affected; NORMALLY ASYMPTOMATIC IN CATTLE.

Question 21

From what age are the brain and spinal cord classed as a SPECIFIED RISK MATERAL and what colour stain?

Answer 21

From >12 months in cows and sheep spinal cord and brain are SRM.
They are cat 1 condemn and need to be stained BLUE 0.5%

Question 22

Spleen is a SRM in what species?

Answer 22

Sheep 12 months

aka ALL SHEEP!!

Question 23

The vertebral coloum is an SRM in what age?

Answer 23

Cattle >30 months

NB; Spinal cord is SRM in sheep and cows >12 months

Question 24

When are the tonsils a SRM?

Answer 24

All cattle and sheep EXCEPT sheep <12 months

Question 25

When is intestine a SRM?

Answer 25

all intenstine (duodenum to rectum) is a SRM in cattle and sheep.
No mesentry in cattle.
ilium and mesentery in sheep allowed

Question 26

Pig and poultry DOA would be stained___

Answer 26

would be cat 2 (normally black) but pigs and poultry DOA are except from staining.

Question 27

Broilers are slaughtered at around what age?

Answer 27

Around 47 days

Question 28

Responsibilities of the FBO

Answer 28

1. Animal identification
2. FCI avaliability
3. ANIMALS NOT COMING FROM A HOLDING SUBJECT TO RESTRICTIONS (i.e. TB testing)
4. Cleanliness of animals
5. Animal health
6. Animal welfare

Question 29

How do the PM inspections vary between pigs and cows

Answer 29

Pigs: Mainly visual inspection
Cows: Need to incise LN to check for TB (present in >1 area = total condem)

Question 30

Clinical signs of Anthrax at PM

Answer 30

Lungs/Lymph glands are congested.
Dressed carcasses appear ill bled and fevered
Spleen is often enlarged (soft tar consistency)
Intestines may be inflamed

Question 31

If suspect Bovine Brucellosis, you would sample

Answer 31

Paired lymph nodes.
Retropharyngeal
Supramammary (female) or superficial inguinal (male)
Internal iliac
IF NO LESIONS ARE OBSERVED: Udder+genital tract+ blood declared unfit for human consuption

Question 32

Inspection decision on Bovine brucellosis

Answer 32

Sample specified lymph nodes.
If typical lesions found - carcass and organs condemned
If no lesions are observed= udder+genital tract + blood are declared unfit for human consumption

Question 33

Farmers duties when transporting animals for compulsory TB slaughter

Answer 33

Animals must be marked with orange strip on the back

Question 34

Taniae saginata

Answer 34

aka Cystercercus bovis.
LOCALISED = remaining carcass fit for human consumption after cold treatment (viable and unviable cysts)
GENERALISED= non-viabiled cysys, localised lesions rejected, remaining carcass ok after cold treatment.
Viarble cysts = unfit for human consumption

Question 35

Which lymph nodes need to be tested for TB?

Answer 35

Retropharyngeal*
Bronchial*
Mediastinal*
Lungs!
If no visible lesions compulsory slaughter of 10 cows per farm.
If visible lesions, min 3 compulsory slaughter per farm

Question 36

TSE surveillance for cattle

Answer 36

Active surveillance since 2001
ALL at risk cattle >48 months
>24 months of age if emergency slaughter or sick at AM inspection
Animals >30 months healthy at slaughter (unless TB reactions/ localised lesions)

Question 37

Trichinella surveillance

Answer 37

Mandatory in sows and boards.
Wild boar (any age) Solipeds (any age)
All pigs that are not raised in controlled housing conditions.
EXCEPTIONS: MEAT FROM DOMESTIC SWINE THAT HAVE RECIEVED FREEZING TREATMENT
Zoonotic

Question 38

Treichinella testing

Answer 38

Direct Muscle Digest Method.
If positive test–> confirmed via re test. Notify APHA, Carcass desposed of as cat 2 byproduct
Zoonotic

Question 39

Monitoring of residues and contaiminants is done on the basis of three groups, what are they?

Answer 39

Group A: substances having anabolic effect and unauthorised substances.
Group B: Veterinary drugs and contaminants
Group C: Other substances and environmental contaiminants
Red meat, poultry, farmed salmon and trout, eggs, wild and farmed game, honey and milk.