Dermatology 2 inc Ear Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

When are anti-histamines used in pruitic skin disease?

A

Before mast cell degranulation. i.e. good for seasonal allergies. None licence.

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2
Q

Time of onset for a) prednisalone b) ciclosporin c) Essential fatty acids

A

a) pred good for short time control (day)
b) Ciclosporin = Cacineurin inhibitor = TAKES 4 WEEKS
c) Essential fatty acids = TAKES WEEKS

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3
Q

Ciclosporin

A

Cacineurin-inhibitor.
More targetted T cell suppression than glucocorticoids
4 weeks to work..
Transient voming and diarhooea, hirsuitism, gingival hyperplasia

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4
Q

ASIT how does it work. How long does it take?

A

Immunodoulation. Allergen-specific immunotherapy. Injections of allergen extract subcut at increases quantities to patients with atopic dermatitis. Decrease inflamm cells.
Full effect may take 9 months

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5
Q

Problem associated with intradermal test

A

Need to be off steroids for good test results. Can be difficult if severely pruitic.
Serology less affected.

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6
Q

Cons of ASIT

A

Antigen specific immunodulation therapy.

Anaphylaxis therefore first few injections keep in practice.

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7
Q

Depigmentation of nasal planum and exfolaitive erythroderma on dogs nose could be….

A

Epitheloptrophic lymphoma. REMEMBER MORE SERIOUS Ddx when treating skin disease

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8
Q

in dogs 90% of superficial pyoderma is caused by

A

Staphlococcus pseudointermedius.

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9
Q

Antirobe is…

It is not recommended

A

Clindamycin. Narrow spec.

NOT RECOMMENDED FOR RECURRENT CASES.

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10
Q

Treatment for Superficial pyoderma

A
Use of topical antibacterial shampoos e.g.. Clorhexidine ALONE
Or Clindamycin (Antirobe), Cefalexin, Co-Amoxiclav (Synulox)
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11
Q

Treatment PLAN for deep pyoderma

A
Only 60-90% S.pseudointermedius. 
Based on culture and antimicrobial sensitivity testing. While waiting for lab results cytology
If rods = Flouroquinolone
Cocci= Cefalexin
2 weeks beyond clinical cure
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12
Q

What dermatological changes would you expect to see in a cow that has ingested St John’s Wart?

A

PRIMARY PHOTOSENSITISATION

Can be secondary photosensitisation due to liver disease

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13
Q

Most common cattle louse?

A

Linognathus vituli.

Bovicola bovis

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14
Q

Clinical signs of louse infection in cows

A

Pruitis, particularly B bovis.
Hair loss due to rubbing.
Neck back shoulders, flank tail base.

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15
Q

What time of year are lice a problem in cattle

A

Cool months, peak in early spring (more common in housed cattle)
Decline with coat shedding/ solar radiation and higher temperature.

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16
Q

When is the best time to treat louse infection of cows?

A

Autumn (no lice visible because numbers are so low).

treatment not always justified.

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17
Q

Treatment of Lice in cattle

A

Autumn. ML’s are very effective (kill all suckling lice and reduce B bovis numbers – pour on)

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18
Q

Cattle Sarcoptic mange- where?

A

Causes head and tail mange. Mostly in housed cattle. Any age. Transmission by direct contact. Mites survive a few days on fomites.

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19
Q

Treatment of Sarcoptic mange in cattle

A

Macrocytic Lactones.

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20
Q

Psorptic mange in cattle treatment

A

Permethrin pour on or Macrocytic Lactones.

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21
Q

Pathogenesis of Psorptic mange in cattle

A

Starts on shoulders and rump. Papules/Crusting. Quickly affects whole body. Secondary bacterial infections likely.

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22
Q

Difference in area affected between Psorptic mange and Sarcoptic mange and Chorioptic mange.

A

Sarcoptic: Head/ Tail
Psorptic: Shoulder/Rump
Choroptic=leg mange: Tail mange/ hind limbs

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23
Q

Which type of mange causes ‘leg mange’ and udder, perineum and tail?

A

Chorioptic mange

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24
Q

Sheep lice

A

Bovicola ovis. Biting louse

Linognathus ovillus - sucking louse

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25
Sheep body louse=
Biting louse. Bovicola ovis. Rubbing/ biting wool. More important in Merino/Merino type wool. Increased incidence since dipping stoped.
26
Sheep scab =
Psorptic mange.
27
Sheep scab clinical signs when is common time?
Pustules, then spreading moist lesions. Extreme pruitis. Fleece becomes matted. Winter is more favourable to mites than summer. Infections can be latent over winter.
28
Treatment of sheep scab
Plunge dipping (>1 minute) in OP solution. Macrocytic lactones by injection. POUR ON TREATMENTS NOT EFFECTIVE. Spray races not effective
29
Which country is sheep scab notifiable?
Scotland. Should not be sent to Abattoir or market. | = Psorptic mange
30
In ear surgery why is the Antihelix and important structure
Inside antihelix contains ceremium glands. Total ear ablation = all below antihelix.
31
Aural haematoma is caused by a collection of blood within cartiladge plate of ear caused by damage to
Great auricular artery
32
Haematoma --> _____-->______-->Contraction deformity
Aural haematoma. | Haematoma--> Seroma--> Fibrosis ---> Contraction deformity
33
Conservative management of Aural haematoma
1. Needle aspiration + corticosteroid injc but delays healing 2. Pressure bandage - difficult to apply well 3. Continous drainage through a cannula
34
Surgical management of aural haematoma
1. Incise concave surface of pinna (s shaped) 2. evacuate haematoma, hold cartilage in apposition with sutures 3. Do not suture incision 4. Light bandage for 14 days
35
Indications for Pinnectomy
1. Solar injury (pre malignant change for SCC) 2. Cold injury 3. Trauma/Vasculitis 4. Ferrel cat permenant marking
36
When doing a Pinnectomy for neoplasia need __cm margins
Removal of ear. Always remove to base as need at least 1 cm margins for neoplasia
37
Normal stages of hair growth
ACT. Anagen: Growth: Inferior present of anagen bulb present Catagen: Cessation Telogen: Rest
38
Calcinosis cutis is indicitive of____ | Which area does it normally involve?
Intensely pruitic papular dermatitis typically affecting dogs with Cushings. DORSAL NECK and trunk. Papules are hard on palpation and have a white central area.
39
How does the alopecia of Cushings and Hypothyroidism differ?
Cushings: Typical endocrine alopecia that affects trunk and spares the head and distal extremities. HYPOTHYROIDISM: Normally alopecia occurs in areas of wear such as tail, elbows, lateral thighs and the bridge of the nose.
40
Clinical signs of Vit A responsive dermatosis
Scaling (accumulation of corenocyte fragments) from stratum corneum. affecting ventral/lateral chest/abdomen Secondary bacterial infections are common sequalae. Breeds: American Cocker Spaniel 2/3 year olds
41
Congenital causes of crusting
Colour Dilution Alopecia, Primary seborrhea, sebacious adenitis. Can also be aquired: Inflamm, endocrinopathies, nutritional, environmental
42
Diagnosis of Primary Seborrhea
Diagnosis by exclusion but is due to a hyperproliferative epidermis (decrease in epidermal turnover time)
43
Hypopigmentation without inflammation of muzzle, lips and nose pad is highly suggestive of_)______
Vitiligo
44
Clinical signs of Juveinille cellulitis
<5 MONTHS. Scrapings to rule out Demodex. Mucocutaneous location of lesions. Would expect PE to include enlarged peripheral LN. Can be depressed and febrile. Retrievers/Dachunds seems to be over represented.
45
Pemphigus foliaceys
Depigmentation of nasal planum. | Ddx: epitheliiotrophic lymphoma or superficial necrolytic dermatitis.
46
Presentation of Discoid lupus erythematosus
aka Cutaneous lupus. | Condition is confined to the nose pad and is characterised by inflammation. Loss of cobblestone appearance.
47
Excessive accumulation of keratin adherent to hair shaft are indicitive of
aka follicular casts | Frequently associated with Demodecosis and Sebacious adenitis
48
How can hair plucks help rule out an endocrinolopathy as a cause for alopecia
If hair pluck and large number of anagen bulbs are present then endocrinopathy is unlikely.
49
Easinophilic plaques on coat brushing
Fleas
50
Scrotum of ram crusting, likely pathogen
Chorioptic mange. | Can lead to infertility due to increase blood flow.
51
Most common cause of infectious teat disease in UK
Pseudocowpox. Oedema-->Vesicles-->Pustules--> Scab Resolves in 4-6 weeks.
52
Why can cows become reinfected with Pseudocowpox
Most common infectious teat disease in UK. Resolves in 4-6 weeks. Short lived immunity therefore can be reinfected
53
Congenital Pustular Dermatitis presentation
AKA ORF! Zoonotic. | Vesicles around lips from 2 weeks of AGE. Congeintally infected hence name.
54
Strawbery footrot aetiology
Mixed infection of Congenital Pustular Dermatitis (CPD) and Orf. Dry crusts which when removed reveal haemorrhagic granulating lesions
55
Difference between erosion and ulcer
Erosion: break in continuity of epidermis, intact basement membrane e.g. drug eruption. Ulcer: break in continuity of epidermis AND Basement membrane
56
Difference between hyperkeratosis and hyperplasia
Hyperkeratosis: increase in stratum corneum Hypoerplasia: increase in stratum spinosum
57
fleece rot in sheep
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Predisposes to fly strike and downgrades wool.. Fleece changes colour due to bacteria!
58
type of Cheyletiella in cats
1. Cheyletiella blakei in cats (BC) | 2. Cheyletiella yasguria in dogs
59
Different types of lice
Anopleura (sucking) | Mallophaga *biting)
60
Anopleura = | How to identify
Sucking lice, narrow head, powerful legs. Mat cause anaemia. Linognathus Haematopinus
61
Mallophaga | How to identify
Biting lice = broad head = prutis Damalinia Trichodectes
62
How does type of Peducolosis differ between cats and dogs?
Cats: only biting (mallphaga) Dogs: biting and sucking lice (mallophaga and anopleura)
63
Treatment of lice in dogs/cats
Advantage aka Imidacloprid or fipronil or selamectin.
64
Trichodectes canis is a
biting (Mallophaga)
65
Pathogenesis of Warble fly (inc name of fly)
Hypoderma. Warbles. NOTFIABLE. Laid on belly and legs and migrate to winter resting site (oesophagous, epidural fat). Resume migration to subcut along midline of back. Treatment should be avoided during winter (WRS) as will lead to bloat or paraplegia.
66
Why is treatment for warble fly only summer?
Winter resting site of Hypoderma. | Will lead to bloat (oesophagous) or paraplegia (epidural fat)
67
Contact dermatitis is a type ___ hypersensitivity
type IV | flea allergy can be type i (anaphalactic, ig e mediated) or type iv
68
Most common cutaenous neoplasm in cats
Fibrosarcoma. Malignant neoplasm. Age of onset is 12 years Generally subcutaenous, firm, poorly circumscribed. Can be relatively large