Theme 3 - drug treatment for CVD Flashcards

1
Q

what blood pressure is classified as hypertension?

A

150/95 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what the blood pressure equation?

A

BP = CO x TPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does TPR measure?

A

degree of constriction or dilation of arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where are the main baroreceptors that detect blood pressure found?

A

aortic arch, kidney and carotid sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what hormone is released when low blood pressure is low and what does this cause?

A

when baroreceptors detect low BP - noradrenaline is released which causes construction of arterioles which increases BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what receptors does NA simulate when released in response to low BP?

A
  • alpha1 adrenergic receptors

as well as beta 1 adrenergic receptors on the SA node and ventricular myocytes in the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the main aim of the sympathetic NS when decreased aortic blood flow is detected?

A

to increase preload (blood back to the heart) therefore increasing CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

by what mechanism does activation of B1 receptors on the heart increase blood pressure?

A
  • via cAMP
  • increases calcium entry to the SA node cells
  • increases frequency and force of contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what NT is released by the parasympathetic NS to decrease blood pressure and what receptors does it act on?

A

Ace release which acts on M2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what branch of the ANS solely regulates peripheral resistance and what does this result in?

A
  • sympathetic NS

- NA release works on alpha 1 receptors which increases calcium via IP3 = vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which receptors can the sympathetic NS act via to cause vasoconstriction?

A
  • alpha 1 adrenergic (IP3)

- beta 2 receptors (cAMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does decreased renal perfusion cause?

A

the juxtaglomerular apparatus to release renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does renin do?

A

converts angiotensinogen to AG I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is ACE found?

A

in the endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what NS response does AGII stimulate and what does this lead to?

A
  • sympathetic NS
  • causes aldosterone release from the adrenals (increased Na retention)
  • ADH release from posterior pituitary (increased waer reabsorption)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does activation of ADH and aldosterone by the sympathetic NS ultimately lead to?

A

increased blood volume, increased stroke volume, increased cardiac output and therefore increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what receptor does AGII work on and what does stimulation of these receptors cause?

A

AT1 receptors that increases arteriole and venous constriction increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what cells does aldosterone work on and what receptor does it bind?

A

works on principal cells in the DT and CD and binds a mineralocorticoid receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the result of aldosterone binding to its receptor in principal cells?

A
  • upregulates Na/K ATPase on the BL membrane
  • upregulates ENac in apical of CD cells
  • results in increased reabsorption of Na+ and water in the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what would be the first choice of hypertensive drug for someone under 55

A

ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what would be first choice hypertension treatment for those over 55 or from black origin?

A

calcium channel blockers/thiazide diuretics

22
Q

what is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors and give an example

A
  • reduced AGI –> AGII (doesn’t block it)

- RAMIPRIL

23
Q

what is first dose hypotension, what drugsf class is it associated with and how can it be avoided?

A
  • associated with ACE inhibitors
  • patient can get very big drop in BP the first time they take an ACE inhibitor
  • can be avoided by telling the patient to take it at night - prevents fainting
24
Q

what is the main side effects of ACEIs and why does this occur?

A
  • dry tickly cough (25-40%)
  • occurs as ACEIs also reduces kininase II levels which breakdown bradykinin - results in increased bradykinin which is an irritant = cough
25
what is the main contraindication of ACEIs?
renal impairment/renal artery stenosis
26
what parameter in the blood needs to be carefully monitored when giving ACEIs?
creatinine
27
what is the action of angiotensin receptor antagonists?
blocks AG II action on AT1 receptors
28
Give an example of an ARB and what situation may these be given in?
may be given if a patient cant tolerate ACEIs | - LOSARTAN
29
give an example of an aldosterone antagonist and when would this be given
- SPIRONOLACTONE - uncommon as a hypertensive but may be added on for resistant hypertension or front line for patients with primary aldosteronism
30
give an example of a calcium channel antagonist and when might this be used?
- AMILOPDIPINE or VERAPAMIL | - may be used in over 55s and patients from black origin
31
what channel do calcium channel antagonists target and what does this cause?
- target L type calcium channels in smooth muscle of arterioles - causes relaxation - no calcium means MLC cant be phosphorylated therefore no contraction
32
what is the main side effect of calcium channel antagonists?
peripheral oedema
33
by which mechanism do calcium channel blockers cause peripheral oedema?
- block L type calcium channels which are found on pre capillary sphincters - lack of constriction disrupts the pressure balance in pre cap sphincters - less fluid moves back into the capillary at the venous end as there is already lots of water - fluid stays in tissue = OEDEMA
34
give two other side effects of calcium channel blockers
- flushing (due to dilation of blood vessels) | - headaches - blocking of blood vessels that perfuse the meninges
35
what effect would cytochrome P450 blockers have on calcium channel antagonists?
increase its activity as CCB are metabolised by CP450 so reducing its activity means drug is more active
36
what part of the nephron do thiazide diuretics work on?
DCT
37
by what mechanism do thiazides work?
- inhibit activity of Na/Cl co-transporter on the apical of DCT cells - Less Na moves into cells therefore more is in the tubular fluid - water therefore also stays in the tubular fluid - produces lots of dilute urine - decreases venous return, CO and BP
38
Apart from the Na/Cl co-transporter - what other channels may thiazides work on and how does this lower BP?
- K+ ATP channels - cause channel to open and K+ leaves - cell becomes more negative therefore L type calcium channels are less likely to open - less calcium in means less contraction - vasodilation and decreased BP/TPR
39
what should be monitored in a patient on thiazides?
ions levels
40
what are two side effects of thiazides?
- hypokalaemia | - increased urate
41
what does bendrofumathiazide cause an increase in the blood?
increased blood glucose and lipids - can therefore increase risk of MI and stroke
42
what is the main contraindication for use of thiazides?
diabetes
43
why are thiazides contraindicated in diabetics?
normally - glucose stimulates GLUT2 which increases ATP and closes K+ channels - K+ doesn't leave cells - calcium and insulin release to decrease blood glucose THIAZIDES CAUSE K+ ATP CHANNELS TO BE OPEN - K+ therefore leaves the cell and hyperpolarises it - this causes decreased insulin release and an increase in blood glucose
44
what do beta blockers cause?
decrease HR, FOC and therefore decreased CO and BP
45
what receptors do beta blockers work on?
beta 1 and beta 2 adrenergic receptors
46
give an example of both a selective and a non selective beta blocker
- PROPANOLOL - non selective (targets beta 1 and 2 receptors) - BISOPROLOL - selective - only targets beta 1 receptors
47
what is the main side effect of beta blockers?
fatigue
48
which three conditions are contraindicated to beta blockers?
diabetes, asthma and reynaulds disease (sensitive BVs)
49
why shouldn't beta blockers be given to diabetics?
they block the warning signs of hypoglycaemia as they prevent adrenaline release
50
give an example of a vasodilator and when may it be used?
DOXAZOSIN | - may be used in benign prostatic hypertrophy
51
why are vasodilators used in benign prostate hypertrophy?
- alpha 1 R antagonists - the prostate is surrounded by a muscular sheath with alpha R receptors on it - antagonising the receptors relaxes the sheath and prevents prostate pushing on urethra