The Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Main functions of the Musculoskeletal System?

A
  • Movement
  • Support and protection
  • Storage and release of minerals
  • Medullary cavity
  • Endocrine function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Musculoskeletal System movement is a system of…

A

…pulleys and levers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

5 main types of bone:

A
  1. Long
  2. Short
  3. Flat
  4. Irregular
  5. Sesamoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The shape of bones determine their…

A

… function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Long bones have a greater length than…

A

… width.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Long bones consist of a…

A

…shaft (diaphysis), a variable number of
extremities or epiphyses (ends) and are slightly curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of long bones are…

A

…femur, tibia, fibula, ulna, radius, phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Short bones are nearly equal in…

A

…length and width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Short bones are somewhat…

A

…cube shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Short bones consist of…

A

…spongy bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Short bones consist of spongy bone tissue except at the…

A

…surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Short bones consist of spongy bone tissue except at the surface, which
has a layer of …

A

…compact bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Examples of short bones are…

A

…most carpal (wrist) and tarsal (ankle) bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Flat bones are generally…

A

…thin; afford considerable protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Flat bones are composed of…

A

…two nearly parallel plates of compact bone tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Examples of flat bones:

A

cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amount of spongy and compact
bone present of irregularly-shaped bones ….

A

…varies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of irregularly-shaped bones:

A

vertebrae; ilium, ischium,
pubis, sacrum (pelvic girdle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sesamoid are shaped like a…

A

…sesame seed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons, where there is considerable…

A

…friction, tension and physical stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sesamoid protect tendons from…

A

…excessive wear and tear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sesamoid bones often change the …

A

…direction of pull of a tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sesamoid bones often change the direction of pull of a tendon which improves…

A

…the mechanical advantage at a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Examples of sesamoid bones:

A

patellae (kneecaps), palms, soles of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Long bones have thickened heads called…

A

…epiphyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Long bones have a central shaft called a…

A

…diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Periosteum is a membrane that…

A

… lines the outer surface of all bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Periosteum is a type of…

A

Specialised connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tendons and ligaments attach to the …

A

… periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Periosteum are essential for…

A

…bone growth and repair – vascularisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Periosteum have nerve endings so are highly sensitive to…

A

…manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The compact bone is a …

A

….protective outer shell around every bone in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Compact bone makes up…

A

…80% of the skeletal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Compact bone has high resistance to…

A

…bending torsion, which provides strength where bending would be undesirable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Compact bone is replaced, but it has a…

A

…slow rate of turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are osteons?

A

series of adjacent and overlapping calcium phosphate formations –> functional unit of compact bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Central vascular canals of osteons are…

A

…haversian canals (canals of havers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Located within the haversian canals are…

A

‒ Capillaries
‒ Nerves
‒ Lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Osteocytes make…

A

…canaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Each Haversian canal is surrounded by:

A

‒ concentric layers of bone matrix (lamellae)
‒ concentric rings of bone-forming cells (osteocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Spongy bone is also called…

A

…Trabecular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What percentage of skeletal mass does spongy (trabecular) bone make up?

A

20% of the skeletal mass, 80% of bone surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Spongy bone is less dense but more…

A

…elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Spongy (Trabecular) Bone has a higher…

A

…turnover rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is Spongy (Trabecular) Bone found?

A

Found at the ends and growing regions of long bones and throughout the interior of short bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Spongy (Trabecular) Bone acts as a …

A

Structural mesh that maintains bone shape despite compressive forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Secondary sexual characteristics in males include:

A

– Enlargement of the larynx & laryngeal muscle
– Enlargement of the genitalia
–Growth of pubic hair
–Growth of facial hair
–Bone growth (growth spurt, become broader in the shoulders)
- Fusing of epiphyseal plates (hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis, found at each end of the long bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

During growth, bone becomes…

A

…larger, heavier and denser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bone formation takes place until the bone is at…

A

…maximum density and strength (Osteogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Once osteogenesis occurs…

A

… biological maturity is reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bones develop from a…

A

…cartilage template or ‘model’ that resembles the bone that will form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The cartilage is then slowly
replaced with…

A

…bone (frontanelle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

As adults, bone strength is maintained by…

A

…constant renewal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

As adults, bone strength is maintained by constant renewal, during which…

A

…old bone is removed (resorption) and new bone created (formation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

As adults, bone strength is maintained by constant renewal, during which old bone is removed (resorption) and new bone created (formation).

This process is known as…

A

…Bone Remodelling

56
Q

Bone Remodelling is undertaken and regulated by the actions of…

A

‒ Osteoblasts (bone formation)
‒ Osteoclasts (bone resorption)
‒ Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) and Calcitonin

57
Q

Functions of osteoblasts?

A

bone formation

58
Q

Osteoblasts are specialized…

A

…fibroblasts.

59
Q

What do osteoblasts secrete?

A

sialoprotein, osteocalcin, osteoid (type I collagen), etc.

60
Q

Function of osteoclasts?

A

bone resorption.

61
Q

Osteoclasts are specialised…

A

…macrophages

62
Q

Osteoclasts secrete…

A

…tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP), cathepsin K, etc.

63
Q

Eroded cavities filled with…

A

…new bone.

64
Q

Slide 32

A
65
Q

Osteoclasts act on the…

A

… spongy (trabecular) bone surface to erode the mineral matrix and create cavities on the bone surface.

66
Q

Slide 35

A
67
Q

Slide 36

A
68
Q

In adulthood formation and reabsorption is in…

A

… equilibrium

69
Q

In ageing, there is more…

A

… resorption than formation

70
Q

In the synovial joints, surfaces slide…

A

…freely over each other with little friction

71
Q

Synovial joints have a greater …

A

… range of motion

72
Q

What does the articular capsule contain?

A
  1. Articular cartilage
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Synovial fluid
73
Q

What is Arthrocentesis?

A

Synovial fluid aspiration; carried out in sufferers of:
‒ synovial infections
‒ gout
‒ arthritis

74
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Short bands of tough fibrous
tissue composed of collagen

75
Q

What do ligaments connect?

A

Connect bones to other bones

76
Q

Ligaments limit the mobility of…

A

…joints or prevent movement entirely

77
Q

What are tendons?

A

Tough, slightly elastic bands of fibrous tissue that connect muscle to bone.

78
Q

What are the three different types of muscle?

A
  • Cardiac
  • Skeletal
  • Smooth

(Cardiac + Skeletal = Striated muscle)

79
Q

What muscle is known as striated muscle?

A

Cardiac and Skeletal muscle

80
Q

Cardiac and smooth muscle =

A

= involuntary

81
Q

Skeletal muscles tend to be…

A

…under voluntary control

82
Q

Whats skeletal muscle?

A

main form of muscle and is used for locomotion and other conscious activities.

83
Q

In eutrophic individuals, the mass of skeletal muscle is about…

A

…50% of the total body weight

84
Q

What is skeletal (striated) muscle?

A

Bundles of muscle cells surrounded by envelopes of connective tissue

85
Q

Myocytes -> […] -> […] -> […] ->[…]

A

Myocytes -> Endomysium -> Muscle fascicle -> Perimysium -> Epimysium

86
Q

What are striated muscles?

A

myocytes attached end-to-end

87
Q

How does muscle contraction work?

A

myocyte shortens lengthwise

88
Q

What are myocytes filled with?

A

filled with cylindrical structures called myofibrils

89
Q

What are myofibrils?

A
  • thin filaments: actin, troponin and tropomyosin
  • thick filaments: myosin
90
Q

Seen under a microscope, skeletal muscle has a characteristic pattern of…

A

…light and dark bands

91
Q

Where do the dark bands occur in myofibrils?

A

Occur where actin and myosin overlap

92
Q

Where do the light bands occur in myofibrils?

A

Where no overlap occurs

93
Q

What is the purpose of sarcomeres?

A

Divides the myofibril up into regions.

94
Q

What are sarcomeres?

A

functional units of striated muscles

95
Q

What are myofibrils composed of?

A

Myofibrils are composed of repeating sarcomeres.

96
Q

The end of each sarcomere is delineated by…

A

…Z-lines

97
Q

Within the Z-lines are other lines and bands which are…

A

1) The M line
2) I bands
3) A bands
4) The H zone

98
Q

What is the M line?

A

The M line is the middle of the sarcomere

99
Q

What are I bands?

A

I bands are lighter areas of non-overlap between actin and myosin.

100
Q

What are A bands?

A

A bands are darker areas where there is overlap between the actin and myosin filaments

101
Q

Whats the H zone?

A

The H zone is the area of myosin filaments that does not overlap with actin filaments.

102
Q

What do the thick myosin filaments have?

A

The thick myosin filaments have heads

103
Q

What do the thin actin filaments have?

A

The thin actin filaments have binding sites (active sites) to which the myosin heads can attach.

104
Q

What does tropomyosin do when the muscle is at rest?

A

When the muscle is at rest, tropomyosin blocks the binding sites on the actin filaments so the myosin heads
cannot attach.

105
Q

What is muscle contraction stimulated by?

A

stimulated by action potential from nerves (neuromuscular junction)

106
Q

What does muscle contraction trigger?

A

Triggers Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

107
Q

What does freed calcium bind to during muscle contraction?

A

Calcium binds to the troponin on the actin filaments.

108
Q

Calcium binds to the troponin on the actin filaments.

This changes the position of…

A

…the tropomyosin

109
Q

Calcium binds to the troponin on the actin filaments.

This changes the position of the tropomyosin and exposes…

A

… the myosin binding sites, making them accessible to the myosin heads

110
Q

At rest, the myosin binding sites are blocked by…

A

…troponin/tropomyosin

111
Q

At rest, the myosin binding sites are blocked by troponin/tropomyosin.

However, on calcium release…

A

…Calcium attaches to troponin/tropomyosin; they roll away. exposing the active site on actin.

112
Q

Myosin heads bind to…

A

… the binding sites on the actin
filaments, forming a cross bridge

113
Q

The release of ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) causes the myosin head to…

A

…pivot, pulling the actin filaments
inwards (power stroke)

114
Q

The release of ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) causes the myosin head to pivot, pulling the actin filaments
inwards (power stroke).

What does this do to Z lines?

A

This pulls the Z lines towards each other, shortening the sarcomere.

115
Q

Myosin cross-bridges attach
to…

A

… active sites on actin.

116
Q

After attachment and ADP release, the cross-bridges …

A

…pivot, pulling the thin filaments

117
Q

A fresh ATP replaces the…

A

…ADP + Pi, allowing myosin and actin
to detach.

118
Q

Energy from the splitting of the
fresh ATP allows…

A

…repositioning of the myosin head.

119
Q

Cycle of muscle contraction:

A

1) Myosin heads hydrolyse ATP and become reoriented and energized.
2) Myosin heads bind to actin, forming crossbridges
3) Myosin crossbridges rotate toward center of the sarcomere (power stroke)
4) As myosin heads bind ATP, the crossbridges detach from actin

120
Q

What does rigor mortis mean in latin?

A

stiffness of death

121
Q

How long after death does rigor mortis commence?

A

Commences after 3 - 6 h

122
Q

How many hours after death does maximum stiffness of rigor mortis occur?

A

10 - 14 hours

123
Q

Rigor mortis gradually dissipates until …

A

… 40 to 70 hours after death (depends on room temperature).

124
Q

Physical Activity & Muscle Strength is related to the …

A

…cross-sectional area of the muscle, not the length

125
Q

Wider muscles have more…

A

…fibres, so can exert more force

126
Q

Long muscles, however, can…

A

…contract further than short muscles

127
Q

Long muscles, however, can contract further than short muscles, which causes a…

A

…larger and faster movement

128
Q

The number of muscle fibres is fixed …

A

…early in life

129
Q

Muscle development in adults results from…

A

…thickening of the muscle fibres, not the addition of more muscle fibres

130
Q

Anabolic steroids are taken to…

A

…increase muscle size by increasing protein synthesis in muscles.

131
Q

Anabolic steroids increases…

A

…strength

132
Q

Anabolic steroids is similar to…

A

…testosterone

133
Q

Anabolic steroids are taken in…

A

…large doses

134
Q

Anabolic steroids cause…

A

…damaging, even devastating effects.

135
Q

Examples of effects of anabolic steroids?

A
  • Liver cancer
  • Kidney damage
  • Stunted growth
  • Increased risk of heart disease.