The Integumentary System

Question 1

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

Select one:

a. Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
b. Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.
c. Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
d. Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

Answer 1

d. Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

Question 2

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

Select one:

a. basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
b. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
c. granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
d. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Answer 2

d. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Question 3

The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________.

Select one:

a. race
b. genetics
c. use of farm chemicals
d. overexposure to UV radiation

Answer 3

d. overexposure to UV radiation

Question 4

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

Select one:

a. Pacinian corpuscle
b. tactile cells
c. Ruffini body
d. free nerve ending

Answer 4

b. tactile cells

Question 5

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

Select one:

a. Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
b. Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.
c. Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.
d. Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.

Answer 5

a. Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

Question 6

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

Select one:

a. serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed
b. bind the hair root to the dermis
c. cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle
d. allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

Answer 6

d. allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

Question 7

Which of the following glands secrete sebum, an oily like substance?

Select one:

a. merocrine glands
b. apocrine glands
c. sebaceous glands
d. eccrine glands

Answer 7

c. sebaceous glands

Question 8

The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________.

Select one:

a. it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock
b. it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock
c. the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
d. the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus

Answer 8

c. the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber

Question 9

Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous because it is highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy?

Select one:

a. melanoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. adenoma

Answer 9

a. melanoma

Question 10

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

Select one:

a. provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis
b. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
c. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
d. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

Answer 10

b. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

Question 11

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

Select one:

a. Glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces.
b. The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.
c. The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.
d. Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.

Answer 11

a. Glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces.

Question 12

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

Select one:

a. goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes
b. monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
c. fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
d. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

Answer 12

c. fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

Question 13

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

Select one:

a. the reticular layer
b. the subcutaneous layer
c. the hypodermal layer
d. the papillary layer

Answer 13

a. the reticular layer

Question 14

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn?

Select one:

a. There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles.
b. The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
c. The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent “black-and-blue marks.”
d. The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.

Answer 14

b. The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

Question 15

The friction ridges seen in finger, palm and foot prints are different among various people but very similar between identical twins. This evidence suggests which of the following?

Select one:

a. That friction ridges allow for better tactile sensation.
b. That friction ridges are genetically determined.
c. That friction ridges aid in griping.
d. That friction ridges change over time.

Answer 15

b. That friction ridges are genetically determined.

Question 16

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body’s natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

Select one:

a. The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin’s color.
b. Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
c. The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.
d. Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

Answer 16

d. Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

Question 17

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following would indicate a liver disease such as hepatitis resulting in elevated bilirubin?

Select one:

a. The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
b. Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
c. The skin and sclera of the eyes appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
d. It is impossible to suggest Addison’s disease from an inspection of a person’s skin.

Answer 17

c. The skin and sclera of the eyes appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.

Question 18

A dendritic or Langerhans cell is a specialized ________.

Select one:

a. squamous epithelial cell
b. phagocytic cell
c. nerve cell
d. melanocyte

Answer 18

b. phagocytic cell

Question 19

What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?

Select one:

a. sex and hormones
b. age and glandular products
c. the size and number of hair follicles
d. nutrition and hormones

Answer 19

d. nutrition and hormones

Question 20

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

Select one:

a. in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
b. beneath the flexure lines in the body
c. in the axillary and anogenital area
d. in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

Answer 20

c. in the axillary and anogenital area

Question 21

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

Select one:

a. by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
b. by observing the tissues that are usually moist
c. through blood analysis
d. by using the “rule of nines”

Answer 21

d. by using the “rule of nines”

Question 22

Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.

Select one:

a. they grow much slower
b. eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
c. the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle
d. hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length

Answer 22

b. eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

Question 23

Which layer of skin is least protected by melanin?

Select one:

a. stratum corneum
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum basale
d. stratum granulosum

Answer 23

a. stratum corneum

Question 24

A patient has skin that is slightly blue in color. A likely treatment for this person might be ________.

Select one:

a. increasing fluids through IV therapy
b. giving the patient supplemental oxygen by mask
c. encouraging the patient to eat more orange colored vegetables (rich in beta carotene)
d. exposing the patient to more sunlight

Answer 24

b. giving the patient supplemental oxygen by mask

Question 25

The arrector pili muscle’s predominate, useful function in humans is to ________.

Select one:

a. provide warmth by making the hair stand on end
b. stimulate faster hair growth
c. assist in the release sebum from nearby sebaceous glands
d. prevent germs from entering the hair shaft

Answer 25

c. assist in the release sebum from nearby sebaceous glands

Question 26

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses?

Select one:

a. spongy bone
b. irregular bone
c. compact bone
d. trabecular bone

Answer 26

c. compact bone

Question 27

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

Select one:

a. fat
b. blood-forming cells
c. elastic tissue
d. perforating fibers

Answer 27

a. fat

Question 28

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

Select one:

a. osteocyte
b. osteoblast
c. osteoclast
d. chondrocyte

Answer 28

b. osteoblast

Question 29

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

Select one:

a. inadequate calcification of bone
b. decreased osteoclast activity
c. decreased epiphyseal plate activity
d. increased osteoclast activity

Answer 29

c. decreased epiphyseal plate activity

Question 30

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

Select one:

a. epiphysis
b. metaphysis
c. diaphysis
d. articular cartilage

Answer 30

c. diaphysis

Question 31

Which of the following is a bone marking described as a round or oval opening through a bone?

Select one:

a. meatus
b. ramus
c. foramen
d. fossa

Answer 31

c. foramen

Question 32

Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women?

Select one:

a. poor posture
b. estrogen deficiency due to menopause
c. heritage such as African or Mediterranean
d. abnormal PTH receptors

Answer 32

b. estrogen deficiency due to menopause

Question 33

Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.

Select one:

a. is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
b. involves medullary cavity formation
c. is produced by secondary ossification centers
d. takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification

Answer 33

c. is produced by secondary ossification centers

Question 34

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

Select one:

a. lacuna
b. osteon
c. epiphyseal plate
d. epiphyseal line

Answer 34

c. epiphyseal plate

Question 35

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

Select one:

a. cartilage and compact bone
b. dense irregular connective tissue
c. osteogenic cells
d. chondrocytes and osteocytes

Answer 35

c. osteogenic cells

Question 36

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________.

Select one:

a. Volkmann’s canals
b. a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
c. perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers
d. the struts of bone known as spicules

Answer 36

c. perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers

Question 37

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________.

Select one:

a. cartilage and interstitial lamellae
b. adipose tissue and nerve fibers
c. yellow marrow and spicules
d. blood vessels and nerve fibers

Answer 37

d. blood vessels and nerve fibers

Question 38

The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.

Select one:

a. closing of the epiphyseal plate
b. epiphyseal plate closure
c. appositional growth
d. concentric growth

Answer 38

c. appositional growth

Question 39

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

Select one:

a. calcitonin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid hormone
d. estrogen

Answer 39

c. parathyroid hormone

Question 40

Wolff’s law is concerned with ________.

Select one:

a. vertical growth of bones being dependent on age
b. the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
c. the function of bone being dependent on shape
d. the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

Answer 40

b. the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

Question 41

In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________.

Select one:

a. increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts
b. temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses
c. decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate
d. increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts

Answer 41

b. temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses

Question 42

At what age do bones reach their peak density?

Select one:

a. at birth
b. early childhood
c. early adulthood
d. late adulthood

Answer 42

c. early adulthood

Question 43

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage?

Select one:

a. Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.
b. Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.
c. Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage.
d. Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

Answer 43

d. Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

Question 44

Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________.

Select one:

a. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
b. bone destruction to liberate calcium
c. bone formation
d. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

Answer 44

c. bone formation

Question 45

Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________.

Select one:

a. calcium and vitamin D
b. potassium and vitamin D
c. calcium and vitamin E
d. vitamin D and chloride

Answer 45

a. calcium and vitamin D

Question 46

The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop?

Select one:

a. Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull.
b. The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions.
c. Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.
d. Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings.

Answer 46

c. Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.

Question 47

Which of the bones of the skull would you also refer to as a cheekbone?

Select one:

a. the temporal bone
b. the parietal bone
c. the occipital bone
d. the zygomatic bone

Answer 47

d. the zygomatic bone

Question 48

Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we inhale?

Select one:

a. hyoid bone
b. the nasal cavity
c. the cranial bones
d. the bones comprising the orbits

Answer 48

b. the nasal cavity

Question 49

Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones?

Select one:

a. house the special sense organs
b. allow introduction of food into the digestive system
c. protect the brain
d. provide passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body

Answer 49

c. protect the brain

Question 50

The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a “key stone” of the skull. This is due to the fact that ________.

Select one:

a. the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull
b. the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible)
c. the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible)
d. the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the distinct characteristics of the individual human face

Answer 50

b. the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it

Question 51

The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland.

Select one:

a. sphenoid; thymus
b. ethmoid; pituitary
c. sphenoid; pituitary
d. ethmoid; thymus

Answer 51

c. sphenoid; pituitary

Question 52

The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is, therefore, ________.

Select one:

a. superior to the sella turcica
b. superior to the crista galli
c. inferior to the cribriform plate
d. the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull

Answer 52

a. superior to the sella turcica

Question 53

During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________.

Select one:

a. pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles
b. styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone
c. crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place
d. perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity

Answer 53

c. crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place

Question 54

Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________.

Select one:

a. providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities
b. giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock
c. limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension
d. applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping

Answer 54

b. giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock

Question 55

The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. For example, the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement, while the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________.

Select one:

a. the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets
b. the thickness of the intervertebral disc
c. the composition of the intervertebral disks
d. the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes

Answer 55

a. the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets

Question 56

The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because ________.

Select one:

a. the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
b. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
c. muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
d. these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate

Answer 56

b. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

Question 57

From the list below, select the least likely explanation for the relatively high mobility of the arms.

Select one:

a. The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end.
b. The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly.
c. The subscapular notch is a passageway for nerves.
d. The relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint.

Answer 57

c. The subscapular notch is a passageway for nerves.

Question 58

The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________.

Select one:

a. the hinge like motion of the forearm
b. the rotational motion of the forearm
c. the curling of the fingers
d. the hyper extension of the forearm

Answer 58

a. the hinge like motion of the forearm

Question 59

The axial skeleton includes ________.

Select one:

a. the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis
b. arms, legs, hands, and feet
c. the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
d. the skull, the scapula, and the vertebral column

Answer 59

c. the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

Question 60

The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.

Select one:

a. is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
b. is composed of three bones joined together
c. is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves
d. is the only irregular bone found in the neck

Answer 60

a. is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone

Question 61

What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?

Select one:

a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
b. to hold together the vertebra and support the body
c. to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine
d. to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column

Answer 61

a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine

Question 62

Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?

Select one:

a. kyphosis
b. scoliosis
c. lordosis
d. swayback

Answer 62

b. scoliosis

Question 63

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?

Select one:

a. the sacrum
b. the cervical region
c. the lumbar region
d. the sacral promontory

Answer 63

c. the lumbar region

Question 64

How many bones make up the adult skull?

Select one:

a. 7
b. 12
c. 5
d. 22

Answer 64

d. 22

Question 65

Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.

Select one:

a. no transverse processes
b. costal facets
c. transverse foramina
d. no intervertebral discs

Answer 65

b. costal facets

Question 66

What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

Select one:

a. give the body resilience
b. provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
c. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
d. provide a space for the major digestive organs

Answer 66

c. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

Question 67

Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?

Select one:

a. medial cuneiform
b. lateral cuneiform
c. cuboid
d. calcaneus

Answer 67

a. medial cuneiform

Question 68

Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?

Select one:

a. calcaneus
b. head
c. medial malleolus
d. lateral malleolus

Answer 68

d. lateral malleolus