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Anatomy and Physiology 1 > Joints and Muscle Tissues > Flashcards

Joints and Muscle Tissues Flashcards

1
Q

A situation where the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments, cords, or bands of fibrous tissue is a ________.

Select one:

a. syndesmosis
b. suture
c. synchondrosis
d. gomphosis

A

a. syndesmosis

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2
Q

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.

Select one:

a. tend to run parallel to one another
b. are also called collateral ligamentsbone
c. prevent hyperextension of the knee
d. attach to each other in their midportions

A

c. prevent hyperextension of the knee

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3
Q

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

Select one:

a. attach tendons
b. produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
c. provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
d. form the synovial membrane

A

c. provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

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4
Q

Synchondroses and symphyses are examples of ________ joints.

Select one:

a. cartilaginous
b. fibrous
c. synovial
d. periodontal

A

a. cartilaginous

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5
Q

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.

Select one:

a. menisci
b. bursae
c. ligaments
d. tendons

A

a. menisci

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6
Q

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.

Select one:

a. amphiarthroses
b. synarthroses
c. diarthroses
d. synovial joints

A

a. amphiarthroses

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7
Q

Bowing to your opponent before a jiu jitsu match would be considered a ________ movement.

Select one:

a. extension
b. circumduction
c. flexion
d. hyperextension

A

c. flexion

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8
Q 
The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. cruciate ligaments 
b. patellar ligaments
c. anterior ligaments
d. tibial collateral ligaments
A

a. cruciate ligaments

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9
Q

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.

Select one:

a. flexion
b. extension
c. hyperextension
d. circumduction

A

c. hyperextension

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10
Q

Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?

Select one:

a. It contains enzymes only.
b. It contains lactic acid.
c. It contains hyaluronic acid.
d. It contains hydrochloric acid.

A

c. It contains hyaluronic acid.

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11
Q

What are menisci (articular discs)?

Select one:

a. cavities lined with cartilage
b. small sacs containing synovial fluid
c. wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity
d. tendon sheaths

A

c. wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity

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12
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?

Select one:

a. Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
b. Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.
c. Gliding movements are multiaxial.
d. An example of a gliding movement is nodding one’s head.

A

a. Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

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13
Q

What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called?

Select one:

a. abduction
b. adduction
c. flexion
d. extension

A

a. abduction

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14
Q

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.

Select one:

a. hands
b. feet
c. arms
d. hands and the feet

A

b. feet

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15
Q

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?

Select one:

a. abduction
b. extension
c. rotation
d. circumduction

A

c. rotation

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16
Q

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.

Select one:

a. common due to the weight bearing the hip endures
b. rare because of the ligament reinforcement
c. common in all people who are overweight
d. rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint

A

b. rare because of the ligament reinforcement

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17
Q

Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?

Select one:

a. the patellar ligament
b. the medial patellar retinacula
c. the lateral patellar retinacula
d. the extracapsular ligament

A

a. the patellar ligament

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18
Q

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the following is (are) damaged as a result?

Select one:

a. oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligaments
b. suprapatellar ligament
c. arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate ligaments
d. tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

A

d. tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

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19
Q

Pointing the toes is an example of ________.

Select one:

a. circumduction
b. plantar flexion
c. pronation
d. protraction

A

b. plantar flexion

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20
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?

Select one:

a. The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process.
b. The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula.
c. The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint.
d. The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

A

d. The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

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21
Q

Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.

Select one:

a. the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella
b. fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation
c. cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together
d. the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly

A

b. fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation

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22
Q

Baseball pitchers often require “Tommy John” surgery to repair damage to their elbow. Which ligament would this surgery target?

Select one:

a. ulnar collateral ligament
b. anular ligament
c. acetabular labrum
d. lateral ligament

A

a. ulnar collateral ligament

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23
Q

Tendon sheaths ________.

Select one:

a. act as friction-reducing structures
b. are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
c. are extensions of periosteum
d. help anchor the tendon to the muscle

A

a. act as friction-reducing structures

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24
Q

Performing “jumping jacks” requires ________.

Select one:

a. flexion and extension
b. pronation and supination
c. abduction and adduction
d. inversion and eversion

A

c. abduction and adduction

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25
Q

Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________.

Select one:

a. protraction
b. pronation
c. adduction
d. retraction

A

a. protraction

26
Q

Which of the following conditions is joint inflammation or degeneration accompanied by stiffness, pain, and swelling?

Select one:

a. arthritis
b. Lyme disease
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. osteoarthritis

A

a. arthritis

27
Q

An individual with a “double-jointed” thumb can pull it back towards the wrist much farther than normal. What does it mean to be “double-jointed?”

Select one:

a. The joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal.
b. The additional joint present doubles the range of motion.
c. Greater than normal production of serous fluid lubricates the joint and extends it.
d. Articular cartilage at bone ends is replaced with hyaline cartilage.

A

a. The joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal.

28
Q

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

Select one:

a. Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.
b. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
c. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.
d. Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

A

b. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

29
Q

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

Select one:

a. skeletal
b. cardiac
c. smooth
d. no muscle can regenerate

A

c. smooth

30
Q

Most skeletal muscles contain ________.

Select one:

a. muscle fibers of the same type
b. a mixture of fiber types
c. a predominance of slow oxidative fibers
d. a predominance of fast oxidative fibers

A

b. a mixture of fiber types

31
Q

The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.

Select one:

a. increasing stimulus above the threshold
b. increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus
c. increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
d. recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

A

c. increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus

32
Q

Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?

Select one:

a. motor units with the longest muscle fibers
b. many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
c. large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
d. motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

A

d. motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

33
Q

Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?

Select one:

a. number of muscle fibers stimulated
b. size of the muscle fibers stimulated
c. load on the fiber
d. muscle length

A

c. load on the fiber

34
Q

Myoglobin ________.

Select one:

a. breaks down glycogen
b. is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
c. stores oxygen in muscle cells
d. produces the end plate potential

A

c. stores oxygen in muscle cells

35
Q

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

Select one:

a. sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. mitochondria
c. intermediate filament network
d. myofibrillar network

A

a. sarcoplasmic reticulum

36
Q

What does excess post exercise oxygen consumption represent?

Select one:

a. amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work
b. the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
c. the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used
d. the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

A

b. the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

37
Q

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

Select one:

a. contraction
b. relaxation
c. latent
d. refractory

A

c. latent

38
Q

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

Select one:

a. forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
b. forming a chemical compound with actin
c. inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
d. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

A

d. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

39
Q

What is the primary function of wave summation?

Select one:

a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
b. increase muscle tension
c. prevent muscle relaxation
d. prevent muscle fatigue

A

a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction

40
Q

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

Select one:

a. myosin filaments
b. actin filaments
c. Z discs
d. thick filaments

A

b. actin filaments

41
Q

Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell?

Select one:

a. perimysium
b. endomysium
c. epimysium
d. fascicle

A

b. endomysium

42
Q

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

Select one:

a. the cells are dead
b. sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
c. no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
d. proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

A

c. no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

43
Q

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

Select one:

a. hemoglobin
b. ATP
c. myoglobin
d. immunoglobin

A

c. myoglobin

44
Q

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

Select one:

a. microtubules
b. mitochondria
c. T tubules
d. myofibrils

A

d. myofibrils

45
Q

Sarcomeres are functional units of ________ muscle.

Select one:

a. smooth
b. cardiac
c. skeletal
d. b and c only

A

d. b and c only

46
Q

What is the functional role of the T tubules?

Select one:

a. stabilize the G and F actin
b. enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
c. hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle
d. synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

A

b. enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

47
Q

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

Select one:

a. a strong base
b. stearic acid
c. hydrochloric acid
d. lactic acid

A

d. lactic acid

48
Q

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

Select one:

a. relaxation period
b. refractory period
c. latent period
d. fatigue period

A

b. refractory period

49
Q

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

Select one:

a. changes in length and moves the “load”
b. does not change in length but increases tension
c. never converts pyruvate to lactate
d. rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

A

a. changes in length and moves the “load”

50
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

Select one:

a. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
b. neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
c. muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
d. neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke

A

a. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

51
Q

The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.

Select one:

a. actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism
b. the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
c. the site of calcium binding site differs
d. ATP energizes the sliding process

A

c. the site of calcium binding site differs

52
Q

The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types.

Select one:

a. excitability
b. extensibility
c. contractility
d. elasticity

A

c. contractility

53
Q

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

Select one:

a. the citric acid cycle
b. glycolysis
c. hydrolysis
d. the electron transport chain

A

b. glycolysis

54
Q

Muscle tone is ________.

Select one:

a. the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
b. the feeling of well-being following exercise
c. a state of sustained partial contraction
d. the condition of athletes after intensive training

A

c. a state of sustained partial contraction

55
Q

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

Select one:

a. motor end plate
b. end of the muscle fiber
c. part adjacent to another muscle cell
d. any part of the sarcolemma

A

a. motor end plate

56
Q

Oxygen starved tissues can release chemical signals into the blood that can change the diameter of nearby blood vessels delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. In doing so, the blood vessels will respond through vasodilation (widening of the vessel). Which muscle type is responsible for this vasodilation?

Select one:

a. smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle
c. skeletal muscle
d. striated muscle

A

a. smooth muscle

57
Q

During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. This will result in ________.

Select one:

a. interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding
b. the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers
c. the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues
d. multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters

A

d. multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters

58
Q

Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber’s volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________.

Select one:

a. produce relatively high amounts of ATP
b. store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration
c. produce movement through contractile force
d. generate and propagate action potential

A

c. produce movement through contractile force

59
Q

Curare is a poisonous plant extract. Curare molecules have a chemical structure like the neurotransmitter ACh. Curare can bind to the ACh receptor site on the chemically gated ion channels in the motor end plate. Even though curare will bind to the receptor site it will not open the ion channel and no ions will pass through. What do you think the symptoms of curare poisoning would look like?

Select one:

a. Muscles will respond too quickly and cause a severe tremor.
b. Curare will only affect cardiac muscle, causing fibrillations of the heart.
c. Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors, paralyzing them.
d. Smooth muscles will become stimulated causing quick movement of nutrients through the digestive system.

A

c. Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors, paralyzing them.

60
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

Select one:

a. weakness of muscle
b. seizures and uncontrollable muscle movement
c. coma and loss of voluntary muscle movement
d. dehydration with headache

A

a. weakness of muscle

Anatomy and Physiology 1 (8 decks)

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