The Finals Step (Key Words to Know) Flashcards

1
Q

What age should patients begin getting DEXA scans? (male and female)

A

70 for males 65 for females

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2
Q

Fracture that is the number one cause of compartment syndrome

A

Tibial shaft

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3
Q

condition with positive smitha nitobdy and positive double stand DNA antibodies.

A

Lupus

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4
Q

best diagnostics for osteomyelitits

A

Bone scan or MRI

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5
Q

a painless mass in a wrist is most likely

A

ganglion cyst

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6
Q

benign bone tumor often in males that presents with severe pain, often at night

A

osteoid osteoma

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7
Q

what medication will help an osteoid osteoma?

A

ibuprofen

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8
Q

clicking or locking of the knee suggests what dx?

A

meniscal tear

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9
Q

if synvoial fluid contains positive bifingent crystals what condition does it inidcate?

A

pseudogout

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10
Q

A patient with a history of hepatitis B presents
complaning of bilateral knee pain, fever and weight
loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

polyarteritis nodosa

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11
Q

Tx for polyarteritits nodosa

A

high dose steroids (confirm dx by biopsy)

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12
Q

a positive neer’s test indicates what?

A

rotator cuff impingement

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13
Q

What is the Schirmer test used for?

A

Sjogrens

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14
Q

Tx for lupus

A

Systemic steroids

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15
Q

There are 5 main characteristics of the limited form of scleroderma which are described by CREST. name these.

A
Calcinosis
Raynaud's 
Esophageal motility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
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16
Q

What ligament is most commonly injured in an ankle sprain?

A

anteriortalofibular

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17
Q

mot common fracture in children

A

clavicle

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18
Q

A patient presents with progressive neck and
proximal muscle weakness. On physical exam you
see a reddish purple maculopapular rash. Her lab
work shows an anti Jo 1 antibodies. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

Polymyositis

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19
Q

which way does a colles fracture angulate?

A

dosrally

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20
Q

which way does a smith fracture angulate?

A

vollarly

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21
Q

A 15 year old boy presents complaining of night
pain in the pelvis. Since you have no idea what
to do you order an x-ray. The report comes back
with a description of a mass with an “onion skin
appearance.” What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ewing sarcoma

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22
Q

A patient with HIV presents with severe groin pain.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral
head. Antiretroviral medications put
patients at an increased risk of AVN.

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23
Q

medical term for tennis elbow

A

lateral epicondylitits

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24
Q

medical term for golf elbow

A

medial epicondylitits

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25
Q

most useful test for ACL tear

A

Lachman’s

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26
Q

A 46 year old male comes into ER limping a little
on the right side. He states that it felt as though he
was kicked in the back of the leg during a soccer
game, but clearly no one was behind him. What is
the most likely diagnosis?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

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27
Q

a positive crossover test indicated what diagnosis?

A

Acromioclavicular joint injury (AC joint)

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28
Q

positive hawkins test indicates what diagnosis?

A

rotator cuff impingement

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29
Q

a positive straight leg test indicates what?

A

herniated disc

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30
Q

a positive straight leg test indicates what?

A

herniated disc

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31
Q

6 medications that can be used for migraine prophylaxis

A

Beta blockers, tricyclics, calcium
channel blockers, NSAIDs and
valproic acid.

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32
Q

A patient is brought in following a seizure in which
she did not lose consciousness. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

simple partial seizure

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33
Q

A patient presents with a painful ipsilateral third

nerve palsy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

posterior communicating artery aneurysm (PCOM)

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34
Q

Decreased GABA and substance P should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

Huntington’s

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35
Q

80% of strokes are ______

A

ischemic

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36
Q

You believe a patient has had a stroke. He presents
with aphasia, loss of hearing in one ear and loss of
vision in his left eye. Is the blockage likely in the
anterior or posterior circulation?

A

posterior

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37
Q

A patient who is asymptomatic should consider
having an endarterectomy at what percent
blockage of the carotid artery? How about in a
symptomatic patient?

A

70% in an asymptomatic patient and
greater than 60% in a symptomatic
patient.

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38
Q

Sign where When you lift the patient’s head the

patient bends his hips

A

Brudzinski’s sign.

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39
Q

There is an MRI result of multiple foci of
demyelination in the white matter. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

multiple sclerosis

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40
Q

A patient presents to your office complaining of
a tremor in his right hand. He states after a beer
it goes away completely. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

benign essential tremor or familial tremor

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41
Q

A 35 year old patient comes to your office because
his wife made him. He has been increasingly
irritable and moody. She has also noticed that he
is very restless. You order a CT scan which shows
cerebral atrophy as well as atrophy of the caudate
nucleus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Huntington’s Disease

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42
Q

Med of choice for Tourette’s

A

Haloperiodol

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43
Q

a slit lamp shows Kayser-Fleischer rings indicate what?

A

Wilson’s disease

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44
Q

A lumbar puncture for a patient with bacterial
meningitis will show elevated or decreased wbc’s?
Glucose? Protein?

A

Elevated wbc’s, decreased glucose

and elevated protein.

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45
Q

Duchenne’s and Becker’s muscular dystrophy have

what genetic characteristic?

A

X linked recessive

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46
Q

Duchenne’s and Becker’s muscular dystrophy have

what genetic characteristic?

A

X linked recessive

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47
Q

An EEG showing generalized spikes and associated
slow waves should make you think of what
diagnosis?

A

generalized or absence seizure

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48
Q

most common primary intracranial neoplasm

A

glioma

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49
Q

What are the most common primary cancer sites

that metastasize to the brain?

A

lung, breast, and kidney

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50
Q

Weakness and numbness in the left hand might be

a blockage in which carotid artery?

A

right

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51
Q

Which nerve root is responsible for the knee jerk

reflex?

A

L3-L4

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52
Q

An EEG showing interictal spikes should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

complex partial seizure

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53
Q

most commonly herniated vertebral disc?

A

L4-L5 followed by L5-S1

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54
Q

What three symptoms are classic for a normal

pressure hydrocephalus?

A

gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence

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55
Q

A patient complains of muscle weakness and
fatigability that improves with rest. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

myasthenia gravis

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56
Q

Lead pipe or cogwheel rigidity should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

parkinson’s disease

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57
Q

Lead pipe or cogwheel rigidity should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

parkinson’s disease

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58
Q

Type of hallucinations most common with schizoprhenia

A

auditory

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59
Q

what causes anorexic patients to have osteopenia

A

decrease in estrogen

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60
Q

3 positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

hallucinations, delusions, movement disorders

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61
Q

med used to treat pospastrum women with depression

A

sertraline

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62
Q

A patient has very strange magical thinking. What

is the most likely diagnosis?

A

schizotypal personality disorder

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63
Q

4 symptoms of serotonin syndrom

A

Hyperthermia
seizure
mental status change
tremor.

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64
Q

At what BMI should a patient be hospitalized for anorexia

A

BMI of

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65
Q

A patient of yours always craves attention, often
using sex as a tool to gain it. She often acts like a
child when she does not get her way? What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

histrionic personality disorder

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66
Q

what is russell’s sign?

A

abraded knuckles from forcing oneself to vomit

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67
Q

A psychiatric patient presents with confusion,
fever and lead pipe rigidity. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome,
this can occur with high dose
antipsychotics.

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68
Q

What is the time frame for the first symptoms of

withdrawal from alcohol?

A

tremor in 8-18 hours

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69
Q

What is the time frame for the first symptoms of

withdrawal from alcohol?

A

tremor in 8-18 hours

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70
Q

What are three things in your differential if you

have a paradoxical pulse?

A

Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis and

obstructive lung disease

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71
Q

normal size of aorta on palpation

A
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72
Q

a fix S2 should make you think of what?

A

ASD

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73
Q

a continuous, machine like murmur indicates what?

A

PDA (patent ductus arteriosus)

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74
Q

what type blocker do you use on someone with a pheo as they wait for surgery

A

alpha blocker

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75
Q

2 abx that are first line treatment for endocaritits

A

vanco and ceftriaxone

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76
Q

2 abx that are first line treatment for endocaritits

A

vanco and ceftriaxone

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77
Q

Tx for PDA

A

Indomethacin

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78
Q

subacute endocarditits is often caused by what organism?

A

strep viridans

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79
Q

most common place for an aortic aneurysm

A

in the abdomen below the renal arteries

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80
Q

giant cell arteritis is associated with what rheumatologic condition?

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

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81
Q

a bisphasic p wave should make you think of what?

A

left atrial enlargement

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82
Q

Lead I has a QRS that is up and the AVF lead has
a QRS complex that is down. Does this represent
normal axis, left axis deviation or right axis
deviation?

A

left axis deviation

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83
Q

first line medication for symptomatic bradycardia

A

atropine

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84
Q

Tx for polymyalgia rheumatic

A

low dose prednisone

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85
Q

An EKG shows a regular rate of fifty beats per
minute. The QRS is narrow and there is no visible
P wave. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

junctional rhythm

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86
Q

An EKG shows a regular rate of fifty beats per
minute. The QRS is narrow and there is no visible
P wave. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

junctional rhythm

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87
Q

common cause of a junctional rhythm?

A

digitoxin toxicity

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88
Q

medication class used to lower triglycerides

A

fibric acid derivatives

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89
Q

Tall peaked P waves should make you think of what

diagnosis?

A

right atrial enlargement

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90
Q

1st line tx for genital warts?

A

imiquimod (aldara)

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91
Q

What two hormones are secreted by the posterior

pituitary?

A

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

ADH, vasopressin

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92
Q

most common pituitary adenoma

A

prolactinoma

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93
Q

diabetes insipidus is a lack of what hormone?

A

antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

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94
Q

most common thyroid cancer

A

papillary

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95
Q

What medication might you use prior to

thyroidectomy in a patient with hyperthyroidism?

A

Methimazole or propylthiouracil

PTU

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96
Q

What is the most common cause of

hypoparathyroid?

A

Post thyroidectomy with the

complication of parathyroidectomy

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97
Q

Tap on facial nerve and get a twitch

with low Ca.

A

Chvostek’s sign

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98
Q

Inflate BP cuff and hold for 3
minutes. Patient with low Ca will get
carpel tunnel symptoms.

A

Trousseau’s sign

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99
Q

Inflate BP cuff and hold for 3
minutes. Patient with low Ca will get
carpel tunnel symptoms.

A

Trousseau’s sign

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100
Q

What is the most common cause of

hyperparathyroidism?

A

Single parathyroid adenoma in 80%

of cases.

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101
Q

In Cushing’s disease is ACTH elevated or

decreased?

A

elevaged

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102
Q

ectopic tumors that may produce ACTH

and give a patient Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Small cell lung cancer, pancreatic

islet cells, thymomas.

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103
Q

What is the test to begin with if you suspect

pheochromocytoma?

A

24 hour urine for catecholamines.

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104
Q

Reduced insulin response between

5 and 8 am.

A

dawn phenomenon

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105
Q

How do sulfonylureas medications work?

A

stimulate inulin production

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106
Q

MOA of metformmin

A

Decreases the hepatic glucose
production and increases peripheral
glucose uptake.

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107
Q

5 criteria for metabolic syndrome

A

HDL 135/85, Triglycerides >150, Fasting
glucose >100, Waist >40 inches in
men >35 inches in women.

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108
Q

these findings make you think of what Moon face, buffalo hump, purple
strai, central obesity, supraclavicular
fat pads, easy bruising

A

cushing syndrome

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109
Q

What role does c-peptide play in the diagnosis of

diabetes?

A

it is a marker of insulin production.
Elevated C-peptide points to DM 2.
Decreased c-peptide points towards
DM 1.

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110
Q

What role does c-peptide play in the diagnosis of

diabetes?

A

it is a marker of insulin production.
Elevated C-peptide points to DM 2.
Decreased c-peptide points towards
DM 1.

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111
Q

What is a test for lactose intolerance?

A

hydrogen breath test

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112
Q

Sjogrens syndrome has what antibody markers?

A

Ro and Lo

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113
Q

acute sinusitits is most commonly caused by what 2 pathogens?

A

Strep pneumo and h. flu

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114
Q

List the time of year when each of the following
allergens is most prominent: pollen, grass, mold
and ragweed.

A

Pollen tree and flower = spring,
grasses are the summer, mold and
ragweed are fall.

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115
Q

List the four things that suggest group A beta

hemolytic strep in a patient with pharyngitis.

A

Fever, tender anterior cervical
adenopathy, no cough and an
exudate in the throat.

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116
Q

tx for epiglottits

A

2nd or 3rd gen cephalopsorin (cefuroxime, ceftriaxone)

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117
Q

What virus causes mumps?

A

Paramyxovirus

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118
Q

Acute swelling and pain in the cheek that increases

at meals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sialadenitis (salivary gland infection)

- Staph aureus.

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119
Q

A pateint with a history of smoking presents with
a new onset hoarsness. This has been persistant
for the past two weeks. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma

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120
Q

A patient presents with acute onset of continuous
severe vertigo for the past five days. He does have
a history of URI 2 weeks ago. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Labrynthitis

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121
Q

Both testicles should be descended by what age?

A

3 months

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122
Q

Maltese crosses in the urine should make you think

of what diagnosis?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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123
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a free floating,
painless, cystic mass found posterior and superior
to the testis?

A

spermatocele

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124
Q

tx for epididymitis?

A

ceftriaxone and doxycycline

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125
Q

1st line abx for prostatitis?

A

bactrim for 4-6 weeks

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126
Q

most common bladder cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma

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127
Q

painless hematuria usually indicates what?

A

bladder cancer

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128
Q

painless hematuria usually indicates what?

A

bladder cancer

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129
Q

Name the condition in which the head of the penis
curves downward or upward, at the junction of
the head and shaft of the penis. (Hint: It is often
associated with hypospadias.)

A

Chordee

130
Q

A 3 year old boy presents with hematuria and a
painless palpable abdominal mass. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

Wilms tumor

131
Q

Muddy brown sediment in the urine should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

acute tubular necrosis

132
Q

Tea colored urine with red cell casts should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

glomerularnephritis

133
Q

A urine protein of >3.5 grams/day should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

nephrotic syndrome

134
Q

A urine protein of >3.5 grams/day should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

nephrotic syndrome

135
Q

At what age do you begin screening patients for

prostate cancer? What two tests are used?

A

At age 50 an annual digital rectal

exam and a PSA are recommended.

136
Q

What is the most common type of testicular

cancer?

A

Nonseminoma

137
Q

What molecule binds iron in the blood stream?

A

Transferrin

138
Q

A low retic count and a normal serum ferritin

should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

anemia of chronic disease

139
Q

How do you treat a sickle cell crisis?

A

Fluids, oxygen, pain medication,

transfusion may be necessary

140
Q

Will unconjugated bilirubin be high or low in a

patient with sickle cell disease?

A

high

141
Q

Which anemia should you think of if you see the

term Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Sickle cell due to the functional
asplenia, but it may also show up in
folic acid deficiency.

142
Q

G6PD deficiency follows what pattern of

inheritance?

A

x-linked

143
Q

List the three diagnosis you should be thinking of if

a question includes Heinz bodies.

A

G6PD deficiency anemia, chronic liver

disease, alpha thalassemia.

144
Q

What is Schilling’s test used for?

A

test for cause of B12 deficiency

145
Q

disease states with basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning, Beta or alpha
thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia,
arsenic poisoning.

146
Q

disease states with basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning, Beta or alpha
thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia,
arsenic poisoning.

147
Q

Owl eye inclusion bodies should make you think of

what diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

148
Q

What is the treatment for pertussis?

A

erythromycin x 7 days

149
Q

A leukemia patient has a CT of the liver which
shows punched out lesions. What diagnosis should
you be thinking of?

A

hepatsplenic candida

150
Q

What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

151
Q

An inda ink stain showing cysts should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcosis

152
Q

A COPD patient has apical cavities and calcified
nodes on his chest x-ray. You also discover he has
a pet bat and a few birds. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

153
Q

What type of organism causes botulism?

A

gram + rod clostrdium botulinum

154
Q

tx for botulism

A

antitoxin

155
Q

Rice water stool should make you think of what

diagnosis?

A

cholera

156
Q

A stuck on grey membrane in the pharynx should

make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Diphtheria

157
Q

What type of organism is tetanus?

A

A Gram + rod, Clostridium tetani

158
Q

A patient ate out last night and today has cramping
and bloody diarrhea. What is the most likely
organism?

A

Salmonella

159
Q

Diarrhea with blood and mucus should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

shigella

160
Q

What is the best test to diagnose malaria?

A

peripheral blood smear

161
Q

tx for shigella

A

Bactrim or fluoroquinolones and

hydration.

162
Q

What organism causes lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

163
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat Lyme disease in

kids or pregnant women?

A

amoxicillin

164
Q

What drug is used for the treatment or prophylaxis

of malaria?

A

chloroquine

165
Q

A patient was camping a few days ago and now
has a rash that began on his wrists and ankles.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

166
Q

DOC for rocky mountain spotted fever

A

doxycycline

167
Q

Any reference to dark field microscopy should make

you think of what organism?

A

treponema pallidus (syphillis)

168
Q

A patient being treated with penicillin for a syphilis
infection develops fever, chills, muscle pain and
headaches. Do you stop treatment?

A
No this is Jarisch-Herxheimer
reaction. The patient must be closely
monitored, but it is a response to
released endotoxin from the death
of the spirochetes and not an allergic
reaction.
169
Q

tx for cholera

A

fluids

170
Q

What is the current drug of choice for the

cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir

171
Q

What is the current drug of choice for the

cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir

172
Q

What is the first symptom of a rabies infection?

A

pain and anesthesia at the site of the bite

173
Q

Name three serious reactions a patient may have

with the use of vancomycin??

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity and

Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

174
Q

What tests are done to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA and then if the positive
diagnosis is confirmed with a western
blot test.

175
Q

What is the treatment for a tetanus infections?

A

Penicillin, immune globulin
and supportive care (especially
respiratory support)

176
Q

How do hookworm larvae enter the body?

A

They penetrate the skin usually

through the soles of the feet.

177
Q

DOC for toxoplasmosis (ring enhancing lesions on CT scan in an HIV positive patient)

A

bactrim

178
Q

What drug do you use to treat pinworm?

A

You treat everyone in the house with
albendazole. Two weeks later you
treat them again.

179
Q

A Gram positive organism in chains should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

strep

180
Q

A Gram negative diplococci should make you think

of what diagnosis?

A

neisseria

181
Q

What is the most common prophylactic antibiotic

used preoperatively?

A

Cephalexin (Ancef)

182
Q

What oral antibiotic can be used for pseudomonas?

A

ciprofloxacin

183
Q
What class of antibiotics should you start with for
community acquired pneumonia?
A

macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithrymycin)

184
Q

Pizza pie retinopathy should make you think of

what diagnosis?

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

185
Q

A patient presents complaining of a metallic taste
in her mouth and dark brown urine. What antibiotic
might she be on?

A

metronidazole (flagyl)

186
Q

Name one oral medication that can be used for

MRSA.

A

linezolid and bactrim

187
Q

Gummas or granulomatous nodules should make

you think of what diagnosis?

A

tertiary syphillis

188
Q

Community acquired carditis is most often caused
by one of the HACEK organisms. List the HACEK
organisms.

A

Haemophilus, Actinobacillus,

Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella.

189
Q

What is the best test for diagnosing rocky mountain

spotted fever?

A

Indirect Immunofluorescent

antibodies.

190
Q

A Gram negative coccobaccili found in the sputum
of patient with pneumonia should make you think
of what diagonsis?

A

H. flu

191
Q

A Gram negative coccobaccili found in the sputum
of patient with pneumonia should make you think
of what diagnosis?

A

H. flu

192
Q

Purulent cervical discharge should make you think

of what diagnosis?

A

N gonorrhea

193
Q

What three labs should you order if you are

considering secondary amenorrhea?

A

beta HCG, TSH, Prolactin

194
Q

What is the most common uterine tumor?

A

Leiomyoma, also known as fibroids.

195
Q

At what age is primary amenorrhea diagnosed?

A

Age 14 if no secondary sex
characteristics. Age 16 if some
secondary development.

196
Q

What is the first line treatment for mastitis?

A

Dicloxacillin is fist line. Cephalexin or

erythromycin are second line.

197
Q

At how many weeks of pregnancy can an

amniocentesis be done?

A

15-20 weeks

198
Q

list some risk factors for breast cancer

A

BRCA1 or BRCA2 positive, unopposed
estrogen, nulliparity, early menarche,
late menopause

199
Q

List two medications commonly used for

hypertension in pregnancy.

A

Methyldopa and labetalol

200
Q

What is the classic triad of pre-eclampsia?

A

HTN, edema and proteinuria

201
Q

preterm labor

A

20-37 weeks

202
Q

A patient with primary amenorrhea and a low FSH

should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Hypothalamic pituitary insufficiency.

203
Q

risk factors for ovarian cancer

A

BRCA1, Family history, Nulliparity,

late menopause, caucasian, asian.

204
Q

when does quickening occur

A

Nulliparous 18-20 weeks, multiparous

14-16 weeks.

205
Q

RF for placental abruption

A

HTN, smoking, AMA, cocaine use,

PROM.

206
Q

RF for placental abruption

A

HTN, smoking, AMA, cocaine use,

PROM.

207
Q

What is the most common endometrial cancer?

A

75% are adenocarcinomas

208
Q

A strawberry cervix with copious yellow/green
discharge should make you think of what
diagnosis?

A

trichomonas

209
Q

What organism causes us to warn pregnant
patients to stay away from deli meats and soft
cheeses?

A

Listeria

210
Q

What are two medications used to induce labor?

A

Cervidil (prostoglandin gel applied
to the cervix) which encourages
cervical rippening and oxytocin which
encourages uterine contractions.

211
Q

As part of the antepartum testing a baby has a

positive stress test. What does that mean?

A
They have had two heart rate
accelerations in a 20 minute period
of 15 beats above baseline for at
least 15 seconds. This is a good
thing.
212
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian cyst?

A

Functional cyst - no treatment

necessary.

213
Q

risk factors for endometrial cancer.

A

Chronic unopposed estrogen,
nulliparity, early menarche, late
menopause, Tamoxifen, DM, obesity,
HTN, breast CA, ovarian CA

214
Q

How many days after conception is a serum beta

HCG positive?

A

8

215
Q

Grape like vesicles or a sack of grapes on
ultrasound should make you think of what
diagnosis?

A

Hydatidiform mole

216
Q

What medication is used to increase surfactant
levels and help with lung maturity if you are
worried about preterm labor?

A

betamethasone

217
Q

What are two tocolytic medications you should be

aware of?

A

Magnesium sulfate and calcium

channel blockers

218
Q

Gestational diabetes puts mom and baby at

increased risk of for what three things?

A

Preeclampsia, macrosomia (traumatic
birth), slowing in fetal lung
development.

219
Q
What medication(s) are used to treat a postpartum
metritis?
A

Clindamycin and gentamicin together

220
Q

Define procidentia.

A

Uterine prolapse beyond the the

introitus.

221
Q

What is the formula for calculating estimated date

of confinement or due date?

A

First day of last menstrual period + 7

days - 3 months.

222
Q

What is the formula for calculating estimated date

of confinement or due date?

A

First day of last menstrual period + 7

days - 3 months.

223
Q

What is the #1 cause of retinal artery occlusion?

A

Carotid atherosclerotic disease.

224
Q

A fundal exam shows a cherry red spot. What

diagnosis should you be thinking of?

A

central retinal artery occlusion

225
Q

What should a primary care provider do for

presumed central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Ophthalmic emergency! Refer and
intermittent pressure and release of
the eye.

226
Q

A patient presents with unilateral blurriness
developing over a few days. Fundal exam shows
a “blood and thunder” pattern. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Central vein occlusion

227
Q

What is appropriate treatment for central vein

occlusion?

A

Typically self limited. Treat underlying

disease.

228
Q

Give two risk factors for glaucoma.

A

African American descent and

diabetes

229
Q

What is the yellow, brown fleshy mass on the
conjunctiva which usually does not interfere with
vision?

A

Pinguecula

230
Q

A fundal exam shows a cup to disc ratio of >0.5.
There are also vessels bending over the disc. What
is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Glaucoma

231
Q

A patient has metamorphopsia and a central blind

spot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Macular degeneration

232
Q

What is the most likely quadrant for a retinal

detachment?

A

Superior temporal

233
Q

A patient presents with pain in one eye. The cornea
is hazy and the pupils are fixed. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Glaucoma

234
Q

You notice drusen deposits on fundal exam. What

is the most likely diagnosis?

A

macular degeneration

235
Q

type of distorted vision in which a grid of straight lines appears wavy and parts of the grid may appear blank. It is mainly associated with macular degeneration,

A

metamorphopsia

236
Q

What is the most common way of testing for

metamorphopsia?

A

Amsler grid

237
Q

A patient presents with irritated, burning and
tearing eyes. You notice some scurf and scales.
Where do you begin treatment?

A

This is blepharitis. Treatment begins
with good hygiene and moves on to
topical antibiotics if necessary.

238
Q

A fundal exam shows an opalescent retina and
boxcarring of arterioles. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion.

239
Q

What is the most common preceding event for

orbital cellulitis?

A

URI

240
Q

You notice a bowing of the iris on exam. What is

the most likely diagnosis?

A

glaucoma

241
Q

A patient presents with watery bilateral discharge
from the eyes and nontender preauricular
adenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the most common pathogen?

A

Viral conjunctivitis. Adenovirus.

242
Q

What is the name for the the triangular or wedge
shaped growth on the conjunctiva that may
interfere with vision?

A

Pterygium

243
Q

A patient having recently undergone cataract
surgery presents complaining of vision loss in the
operative eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

retinal detachment

244
Q

A patient presents with sudden painless complete
unilateral vision loss. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

245
Q

Which nerve is involved in herpes zoster

ophthalmicus?

A

Trigeminal nerve, CN 5

246
Q

A patient presents with a dense corneal infiltrate
and an epithelial defect seen with fluorescein stain.
What diagnosis should you be thinking of?

A

corneal ulcer

247
Q

A feathery border in an eye exam should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

fungal infection

248
Q

What is the first thing you should be thinking of if a
pediatric patient comes in with blood in the anterior
chamber of the eye (hyphema).

A

child abuse

249
Q

What is the term for being nearsighted? What type

of lens do you use to correct it?

A

Myopia, concave lenses

250
Q

What is the first line treatment for orbital cellulitis?

A

IV antibiotics, followed by 2 weeks of

oral antibiotics

251
Q

What is the term for being farsighted? What type

of lens do you use to correct it?

A

Hyperopia, convex

252
Q

What is the term for being farsighted? What type

of lens do you use to correct it?

A

Hyperopia, convex

253
Q

A patient without a functioning spleen is more

susceptible to what type of organisms?

A

Encapsulated organisms most
commonly Strep pneumoniae and
H. Flu.

254
Q

What occupations are associated with berylliosis?

A

Aerospace and nuclear plant

workers.

255
Q

A noncaseating granuloma should make you think

of what diagnosis?

A

Sarcoidosis

256
Q

A pearl formation on CXR should make you think of

what diagnosis?

A

squamous cell lung cancer

257
Q

Mesothelioma is most commonly found in what

lung location?

A

80% are found in the pleural lining

258
Q

What organism is the most common cause of

pneumonia in a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas

259
Q

A college student presents with pneumonia. What

two organisms should you be thinking of?

A

Chlamydia and Mycoplasma

260
Q

You suspect a pneumothorax. What instructions

should go along with the order for a chest x-ray?

A

It should be an end expiratory view
in order to look for visceral pleural
air.

261
Q

Nodular opacities in the upper lung fields should

make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Silicosis

262
Q

Caseating granulomas should make you think of

what diagnosis?

A

TB

263
Q

What is the best test to diagnose bronchiectasis?

A

CT

264
Q

What are the main side effects of isoniazid?

A

Hepatitis and peripheral neuropathy

265
Q

Ethambutol has what major side effects?

A

Optic neuritis, red green vision loss

266
Q

If you see a question with anything to do with rats
and the patient has pneumonia, what organism
should you be thinking of?

A

Yersinia pestis

267
Q

If you see a question with anything to do with rats
and the patient has pneumonia, what organism
should you be thinking of?

A

Yersinia pestis

268
Q

What is the most common organism causing

pneumonia in COPD patients?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

269
Q

A patient has pneumonia with rust colored sputum.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Strep pneumonia

270
Q

Any question about rabbits and pneumonia should

make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Tularemia

271
Q

List six extrapulmonary complications of lung

cancer.

A

SPHERE - SVC syndrome, Pancoast
tumor, Horner’s syndrome, Endocrine
problems, Recurrent laryngeal
symptoms, Effusions (exudative)

272
Q

What will the likely findings be on a CXR of a

patient with asbestosis?

A

Linear opacities at the bases with

pleural plaques.

273
Q

What are the three most common cancers to

metastasize to the lungs?

A

Breast, liver and colon

274
Q

Post tussive rales should make you think of what

diagnosis?

A

TB

275
Q

Parenchymal metastasis and blebs on CXR should

make you think of what diagnosis?

A

emphysema

276
Q

What two lung cancers are typically found centrally

on chest x-ray?

A

Small cell lung cancer and squamous

cell

277
Q

What two lung cancers are typically found

peripherally on chest x-ray?

A

adenocarcinoma and Large cell

278
Q

What two lung cancers are typically found

peripherally on chest x-ray?

A

adenocarcinoma and Large cell

279
Q

Pertussis is most commonly treated with what

antibiotic?

A

erythromycin

280
Q

List the four most common lung cancer will

metastasize to.

A

Bone, brain, adrenals and liver

281
Q

If you come across a question where the patient
has erythema nodosum and an enlarged parotid
gland what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sarcoidosis

282
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Tender red nodules usually found on

the shins.

283
Q

Paradoxical pulses may be found in what

pulmonary disorder?

A

asthma

284
Q

An older patient presents with pneumonia and

diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Legionella pneumonia

285
Q

Eggshell opacities on the CXR should make you

think of what diagnosis?

A

Silicosis

286
Q

List three causes of decreased tactile fremitus.

A

COPD, Asthma, pleural effusion,

pneumothorax

287
Q

CXR shows vascular redistribution and blurred

vascular outlines. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

CHF

288
Q

most common location for an anal fissure?

A

posterior midline

289
Q

what does hep b surface antigen (HBsAG) indicate?

A

active hep B infection

290
Q

treatment for mallory weiss tear?

A

watchful waiting

291
Q

2 treatments for esophageal strictures (from long term GERD)

A

PPIs, dilation of the esophagus

292
Q

where is peptic ulcer disease most common

A

duodenum

293
Q

with a gastric ulcer does food make the symptoms better or worse

A

worse

294
Q

what levels will be elevated with gastrinoma

A

gastrin level >150

295
Q

most gallstones are what type?

A

cholesterol

296
Q

what is charcot’s triad? what does it suggest?

A

RUQ pain, fever, jaundice; cholangitis

297
Q

what is reynolds pentad?

A

charcots triad + HPOTN and altered mental status. indicates high risk of sepsis

298
Q

most common cause of peptic ulcer disease

A

H pylori

299
Q

what does anti-HBc (hep B core antibody) indicate?

A

previous or ongoing Hep B infection

300
Q

what antibody indicates immunization against Hep B?

A

Anti-HBs (hep B surface antibody)

301
Q

what antibody indicates immunization against Hep B?

A

Anti-HBs (hep B surface antibody)

302
Q

good beta blocker to reduce portal HTN

A

propranolol

303
Q

umbilical ecchymosis often related to pancreatitis

A

Cullen sign

304
Q

tumor marker for panceatric cancer

A

CA 19-9

305
Q

term for painful swallowing

A

odynophagia

306
Q

amoutn of fiber one should eat each day

A

30 grams

307
Q

most common cause of a lower GI bleed

A

diverticulosis

308
Q

is a direct or indirect hernia more likely to pass thorugh the scrtu

A

indirect

309
Q

what does a string sign on barium swallow indicate?

A

pyloric stenosis

310
Q

a patient on sulfasalazine for IBD should also receive what vitamin?

A

folate

311
Q

most common cause of folate deficiency

A

alcoholism

312
Q

most common cause of folate deficiency

A

alcoholism

313
Q

other name for german measles

A

rubella

314
Q

premature infant w/ hylaine membrane disease will have what on chet x-ray

A

atelectasis or ground glass appearance

315
Q

seizures + mouse like urine odor =

A

PKU

316
Q

pink rings on the trunk and inner surface of the limbs seen in rheumatic fever

A

eryethema marginatum

317
Q

another names for measles

A

rubeola

318
Q

staccato cough and no fever indicates what type of pneumona

A

chlamydia pneumo

319
Q

what age should a child be able to use a spoon and stack 3-4 blocks?

A

18 months

320
Q

by what age should a child be able to roll over?

A

4 months

321
Q

adduct and internal rotation of the hips to check for hip dysplasia in a infant (name of test)

A

Barlow

322
Q

medical term for crossed eyes

A

strabismus