TEST7&8 Flashcards

1
Q

Question ID #1871: A research study examined the relationship between television viewing habits and academic achievement test scores. The results showed that children who watched more television generally had lower test scores. The Pearson- product moment correlation coefficient was -.81. What is the proportion of variance of achievement test scores that is accounted for by television viewing?

Select one:
A. 0.9
B. 0.66
C. -0.81
D. -0.9
A

B

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2
Q

Question ID #1760: A problem with establishing “comparable worth” is that:

Select one:
A. job evaluation techniques are not as useful for very complex jobs.
B. males and females may use different strategies to reach the same decision or solution.
C. the job evaluation techniques themselves may be gender-biased.
D. it is difficult to compare achievement across different domains.

A

C

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3
Q

Question ID #14334: REM (rapid eye movement) sleep accounts for about of a newborn’s total sleep period and of an adult’s total sleep period.

Select one:
A. 75%; 10%
B. 50%; 20%
C. 30%; 40%
D. 10%; 50%
A

B

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4
Q

Question ID #1601: In contrast to Korsakoff’s Syndrome, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with:

Select one:
A.	more severe anterograde amnesia.
B.	greater confabulation.
C.	less severe working memory impairment.
D.	a wider range of cognitive deficits.
A

D

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5
Q

Question ID #405: A person with transcortical aphasia will:

Select one:
A. be able to communicate verbally but will have deficits in comprehension.
B. have intact comprehension but exhibit a number of grammatical errors and labored speech.
C. have significant difficulties in both producing and comprehending speech.
D. exhibit minor peculiarities in speech and a total lack of verbal comprehension.

A

C

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6
Q

Question ID #757: The “storm and stress theory” of adolescent mental health proposes that most adolescents experience extensive physical, social, and psychological turmoil. Research conducted in the past three or four decades on this topic:

Select one:
A. confirms that most adolescents do experience substantial “storm and stress.”
B. demonstrates that “storm and stress” is characteristic of adolescents in westernized cultures only.
C. indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant “storm and stress.”
D. shows that “storm and stress” is largely due to increases in family conflicts during

A

C

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7
Q

Question ID #1268: Prosopagnosia is believed to be due to lesions in the:

Select one:
A. junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes.
B. junction of the frontal and occipital lobes.
C. precentral gyrus.
D. central sulcus.

A

A

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8
Q

Question ID #36767: Research on the serial position effect has provided evidence for which of the following?

Select one:
A. the presence of hemispheric specialization.
B. the distinction between short- and long-term memory.
C. the effects of proactive and retroactive interference.
D. the effects of latent learning.

A

B

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9
Q

Question ID #17362: Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of clozapine, carbamazepine, and a number of other psychiatric drugs. Early symptoms of this disorder include:

Select one:
A. fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and lethargy.
B. nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and a metallic taste in the mouth.
C. sweating, palpitations, headache, tremulousness, and cardiac arrhythmia.
D. constricted pupils, decreased visual acuity, sweating, constipation, and nausea.

A

A

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10
Q

Question ID #10218: According to , successful intelligence is composed of three components – analytical, creative, and practical.

Select one:
A.	Sternberg's triarchic model
B.	Gardner's multiple intelligences model
C.	the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory
D.	Carroll's three-stratum theory
A

A

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11
Q

Question ID #1894: You are working in a correctional facility and are asked to evaluate a prisoner to determine his eligibility for parole. In this situation, you should:

Select one:
A. conduct the evaluation as requested since it is part of your job.
B. conduct the evaluation only if you believe it will serve a useful dispositional function.
C. conduct the evaluation after reminding the prisoner that anything he says can be shared with prison authorities.
D. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless it has been court-ordered.

A

B

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12
Q

Question ID #17563: As defined in the APA’s Ethics Code, uninvited in-person solicitation of business by a psychologist is:

Select one:
A. acceptable as long as the solicitation is not coercive.
B. acceptable when it involves providing disaster or community outreach services.
C. acceptable as long as the person’s “best interests” are of paramount concern.
D. never acceptable.

A

B

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13
Q

Question ID #39874: When scoring the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE), it’s important to keep in mind that the use of the standard cutoff score (below 24) as an indication of cognitive impairment may produce a spuriously high rate of false positives for:

Select one:
A.	adults with a college education.
B.	adults with Alzheimer's disease.
C.	White adults.
D.	African American and Hispanic adults.
A

D

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14
Q

Question ID #1457: Obtaining research participants for a study on the sexual practices of single young adults from computer dating services, “singles’ clubs,” and activities for singles sponsored by a variety of organizations would help increase:

Select one:
A.	statistical power.
B.	statistical significance.
C.	internal validity.
D.	external validity.
A

D

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15
Q

Question ID #553: According to Helms’s White Identity Development Model, the reintegration stage is characterized by:

Select one:
A. a realization that whites have a responsibility for racism.
B. adoption of a “culture-blind” perspective.
C. embracing white identity while rejecting racist views of minorities.
D. adopting a belief in white superiority and minority inferiority.

A

d. CORRECT The disintegration phase, which is marked by considerable conflict, may be resolved by adopting traditional racist views, which in turn characterizes the reintegration phase.

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16
Q

Question ID #10341: PET scans of people with
show that these individuals often have increased activity levels in the orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate cortex, and caudate nucleus.

Select one:
A.	Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
B.	Narcolepsy
C.	Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D.	Schizophrenia
A

C

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17
Q

Question ID #39865: Classically conditioned reflexes are an example of implicit memory and are mediated primarily by the:

Select one:
A.	suprachiasmatic nucleus
B.	hippocampus
C.	arcuate fasciculus
D.	cerebellum
A

D

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18
Q
Question ID #1733: Kegel exercises are used to: Select one:
A.	decrease performance anxiety.
B.	treat insomnia.
C.	establish a state of relaxation.
D.	increase muscle tone.
A

D

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19
Q

Question ID #319: To evaluate an intervention designed to increase the time a hyperactive child stays on-task when doing schoolwork, the best technique would be:

Select one:
A.	situational sampling.
B.	event recording.
C.	interval recording.
D.	sequential analysis.
A

a. Incorrect Situational sampling is used when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts.
b. Incorrect Event recording is used primarily to investigate rare events (behaviors) and usually involves counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event, which wouldn’t be appropriate in this case.
c. CORRECT Interval recording involves dividing a period of time into equal intervals and recording whether or not the target behavior occurred during each interval. This technique could be easily used to assess time-on-task.
d. Incorrect Sequential analysis is used to study complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions).

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20
Q

Question ID #16884: Patients who have recently started taking naltrexone (ReVia) as a treatment for alcohol dependence are most likely to experience which of the following drug side effects?

Select one:
A. dizziness, ataxia, visual disturbances, nausea, and rash
B. blurred vision, sexual dysfunction, weight gain, edema, and tremor
C. shortness of breath, increased dreaming, nausea, diarrhea, and bradycardia
D. abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness, and headache

A

D

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21
Q

Question ID #16875: Taking to treat the symptoms of the flu, chickenpox, or other viral illness can produce Reyes syndrome.

Select one:
A.	ibuprofen
B.	aspirin
C.	an antihistamine
D.	an antibiotic
A

b. CORRECT Although the cause of Reyes syndrome is still unknown, it has been linked to the use of aspirin and other salicylate-containing medications during or shortly after a viral, fever-causing illness. Early symptoms include persistent vomiting, listlessness, and drowsiness.

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22
Q

Question ID #1404: Virginia Satir’s approach to family therapy emphasizes:

Select one:
A.	styles of communication.
B.	family projection processes.
C.	boundary disturbances.
D.	transferences between family members.
A

a. CORRECT Satir distinguishes between five communication styles–placater, blamer, super-reasonable, irrelevant, and congruent.

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23
Q

Question ID #862: Roe and Holland share in common an emphasis on the role of in career choice.

Select one:
A.	aptitude
B.	personality
C.	social pressure
D.	vocational interests
A

B

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24
Q

Question ID #19159: The minimum and maximum values of the standard error of estimate are:

Select one:
A. -1 and +1.
B. 0 and 1.
C. 0 and the standard deviation of the criterion.
D. 0 and the standard deviation of the predictor.

A

C

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25
Q

Question ID #37766: For most children, holophrastic speech begins between the ages of:

Select one:
A.	8 to 12 months.
B.	12 to 18 months.
C.	18 to 24 months.
D.	24 to 36 months.
A

B

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26
Q

Question ID #1325: Although the nature-nurture controversy has not been resolved, many theorists now view development as involving both factors. More specifically, theorists who take a middle ground with regard to this issue:

Select one:
A. view some traits as being due primarily to nature and others as being due primarily to nurture.
B. believe that genetic potentials (nature) cannot be realized unless the appropriate environmental experiences (nurture) occur.
C. believe that most traits reflect about equal contributions of nature and nurture.
D. view individual differences as due to genetic factors (nature) and group differences as due to environmental factors (nurture).

A

B

27
Q

Question ID #205: A solution-focused therapist is working with a family whose conversations frequently escalate to intense arguments. The therapist will most likely:

Select one:
A. reduce tension during therapy sessions by having family members talk directly to her rather than to each other.
B. appoint one family member to act as “referee” whenever the family fights at home.
C. ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing.
D. instruct the family members to argue with each other for at least one hour each evening.

A

C

28
Q

Question ID #1001: One difference between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and nonpathological anxiety is that Generalized Anxiety Disorder is more likely to be accompanied by physical symptoms. In addition, a person with Generalized Anxiety Disorder:

Select one:
A. feels he or she caused the problems underlying current worries.
B. makes repeated, but unsuccessful, attempts to avoid anxiety-arousing stimuli.
C. experiences anxiety that is unrelated to specific events or actions.
D. finds it difficult to control his or her worrying.

A

D

29
Q

Question ID #10939: To calculate an effect size (Cohen’s d), you need:

Select one:
A. the standard error of estimate of the criterion.
B. the median scores for the pre- and post-tests.
C. the means of the experimental and control groups.
D. the actual and predicted scores for the outcome measure.

A

c. CORRECT Cohen’s d indicates the magnitude of the effect of a treatment in terms of the difference between the means of the experimental (treatment) and control (no treatment) groups. It is calculated by subtracting the mean of the control group from the mean of the experimental group and dividing the result by a pooled standard deviation or by the control group standard deviation.

30
Q

Question ID #45: Berscheid’s (1989) “emotion-in-relationships” model predicts that strong emotions in close relationships are:

Select one:
A. related to the degree to which prepotent needs are mutually satisfied.
B. a function of each partners level of differentiation.
C. moderated by personal beliefs about the acceptability of emotional expression.
D. elicited by unexpected interruptions in routine interactions.

A

问题 ID #45:Berscheid (1989) 的“关系中的情绪”模型预测亲密关系中的强烈情绪是:

选择一项:
A. 与优势需求相互满足的程度有关。
B. 每个合作伙伴的功能差异化程度。
C. 受个人对情绪表达可接受性的看法的影响。
D. 由日常互动中的意外中断引起。

D

31
Q

Question ID #1184: Dr. Street, a clinical psychologist, has been treating Bob B. for about five months. Bob originally came to therapy to resolve the depression he had been experiencing since his divorce and, in the past few weeks, Dr. Street has noticed a marked improvement in Bob’s symptoms. During one session, Bob says that, for some time, he has been having trouble going anywhere that requires him to use an elevator since being confined in small spaces with other people makes him very anxious. He says he has had this problem for some time, but that it seems to have gotten worse recently. Dr. Street has not had much experience in treating phobic reactions and therefore decides to refer Bob to a behavioral therapist.
However, even though Bob has started behavioral therapy with another therapist, Dr. Street continues to see Bob in order to continue working on Bob’s depression. In terms of ethical practices, this arrangement is:

Select one:
A. unethical since Dr. Street should have offered Bob a choice of therapists.
B. unethical since Dr. Street should terminate his relationship with Bob while Bob is receiving treatment from another therapist.
C. ethical as long as the therapists cooperate with one another during the course of Bob’s treatment.
D. ethical but therapeutically questionable since Bob’s phobia is probably related to his divorce.

A

C

32
Q

Question ID #17518: An African American individual in the immersion substage of the immersion-emersion stage of Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model will exhibit which of the following?

Select one:
A. a lack of interest in race or racial issues
B. identification with the White (dominant) culture
C. functional paranoia
D. intense involvement in African American culture

A

D

33
Q

Question ID #17363: Ataxia is a common symptom of advanced multiple sclerosis and is characterized by:

Select one:
A. a complete or almost complete loss of movement.
B. an uncomfortable sense of restlessness or agitation.
C. impaired coordination and balance.
D. slow writhing involuntary movements of the extremities.

A

a. Incorrect A complete or almost complete loss of movement is referred to as akinesia.
b. Incorrect An uncomfortable sense of restlessness or agitation is referred to as akathisia.
c. CORRECT Ataxia involves a loss of balance and coordination. It is one of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis and can be caused by damage to the cerebellum, dorsal spinal cord, or vestibular system. Although its symptoms depend on the area affected, they often include unsteady gait, difficulty with fine motor tasks, abnormal eye movements, slurred speech, and difficulty swallowing.
d. Incorrect Athetosis involves slow writhing involuntary movements.

34
Q

Question ID #17553: Taylor’s (1911) scientific management is based on the premise that which of the following is most useful for maximizing employee motivation?

Select one:
A. opportunities for advancement
B. opportunities to satisfy prepotent needs
C. satisfying relationships with co-workers
D. pay that is directly linked to performance

A

D

35
Q

Question ID #17365: A 42-year-old woman who has just begun taking lithium carbonate as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder will most likely experience which of the following side effects?

Select one:
A. constipation, abdominal pain, and excessive salivation
B. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
C. increased appetite, carbohydrate craving, and weight gain
D. nausea, vomiting, constipation, and salt craving

A

B

36
Q

Question ID #119475: Why does the most pervasive modern form of supervision tend to be the triangular model?

Select one:
A. Because organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, while the relationship with the supervisor forms the core.
B. Because the relationship with the supervisor and professional experience form the foundation while care of clients forms the core.
C. Because the relationship with the clients and counseling theory form the foundation and the organizational policies form the core.
D. Because the relationship with the organization and the supervisor literature form the foundation and personal experience form the core.

A

A

37
Q

Question ID #1623: The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following?

Select one:
A.	latent learning
B.	positive reinforcement
C.	higher-order conditioning
D.	successive discrimination
A

B

38
Q

Question ID #732: Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that:

Select one:
A. syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list.
B. when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning.
C. overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect.
D. rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting.

A

D

39
Q

Question ID #1405: Self-in-relation therapy is an approach to:

Select one:
A. family therapy that emphasizes the multiple transferences that affect current relationships among family members.
B. group therapy that focuses on interpersonal interpretations and misinterpretations that affect individual functioning.
C. feminist therapy that emphasizes the role of the mother- son versus mother-daughter relationship in creating gender differences in behavior.
D. biopsychosocial therapy that recognizes the interacting impact of biological and sociocultural factors on male and female development.

A

C

40
Q

Question ID #39880: Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations?

Select one:
A. Subjects do not have to be debriefed about the nature of a research study following their participation unless doing so is required by the institutional review board.
B. Subjects do not have to be debriefed about the nature of a research study following their participation unless the study involved the use of deception.
C. Subjects must be debriefed about the nature of a research study following their participation in a way that minimizes harm.
D. Subjects must always be debriefed about the nature of a research study immediately following their participation.

A

C

41
Q

Question ID #277: As defined by Minuchin, triangulation is a: Select one:
A. healthy adaptation by family members to unexpected change.
B. way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflict.
C. method used by the therapist to diagnose the family structure.
D. method used by the therapist to reduce stress in the family.

A

B

42
Q

Question ID #443: As defined by Donald Super, “career maturity”:

Select one:
A. is achieved by most people by the time they reach their late 20s or early 30s.
B. is not fully achieved until mid-life or later.
C. refers to the individual’s mastery of tasks at each developmental stage.
D. refers to the degree of match between the individual’s “self-concept” and current occupational aspirations.

A

C

43
Q

Question ID #326: A child living in the United States is exposed to both English and a second language between the ages of six months and three years and, as result, becomes fluent in both languages. If the child had not been exposed to the second language until after the age of 4 or 5, she would have had more trouble acquiring the second language. This provides evidence for:

Select one:
A.	the concept of critical periods
B.	the concept of sensitive periods
C.	the Whorfian hypothesis
D.	the notion of imprinting
A

B
A critical period refers to a time when, if certain developmental events don’t happen, later aspects of development will not occur. A sensitive period refers to an optimal period rather than a necessary period.

44
Q

Question ID #36751: A practitioner of Minuchin’s structural family therapy uses which of the following to alter the hierarchical relationships within a family system or subsystem?

Select one:
A.	unbalancing
B.	tracking
C.	reframing
D.	mimesis
A

A

45
Q

Question ID #17364: When a person’s hypertension is not adequately alleviated through lifestyle changes, a hypertension drug may be prescribed. These drugs include all of the following except:

Select one:
A.	NSAIDs.
B.	beta blockers.
C.	ACE inhibitors.
D.	calcium channel blockers.
A

A

46
Q

Question ID #10955: Which of the following is most useful for explaining why so many people believe that their horoscopes accurately describe them?

Select one:
A.	Barnum effect
B.	false consensus bias
C.	Zeigarnik effect
D.	illusory correlation
A

a. CORRECT The Barnum effect (also known as the Forer effect) predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate. The Barnum effect has been attributed to a number of factors including gullibility, wishful thinking, and a confirmation bias.
b. Incorrect The false consensus bias is the tendency to overestimate the degree to which others agree with you.
c. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect is the tendency to remember interrupted or uncompleted tasks better than completed ones.
d. Incorrect Illusory correlation is the belief that there is a relationship between events when there actually isn’t one.

47
Q

Question ID #486: A drive for order that involves the testing of patterns and structures against the real world is referred to as:

Select one:
A.	elaboration.
B.	deduction.
C.	equilibration.
D.	accommodation.
A

a. Incorrect Elaboration refers to the process of increasing the number of associations between items of information which enhances the meaningfulness of the information and is associated with improvements in retention and retrieval.
b. Incorrect Deduction refers to reasoning from the general to the specific.
c. CORRECT As defined by Piaget equilibration involves a combination of assimilation and accommodation and is motivated by a drive for balance or order.
d. Incorrect Accommodation is only one aspect of equilibration.

48
Q

Question ID #1230: Escape and avoidance conditioning both involve:

Select one:
A.	positive reinforcement.
B.	negative reinforcement.
C.	positive punishment.
D.	negative punishment.
A

b. CORRECT In escape and avoidance conditioning, the individual’s behavior increases because it enables him/her to escape or avoid a stimulus (i.e., a stimulus is taken away following the response). Escape conditioning is simply a straightforward application of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is more complex and involves a combination of negative reinforcement and classical conditioning. See the Learning Theory chapter for additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning.

49
Q

Question ID #1608: Kochanska’s (1997) research suggests that, during the toddler years, the optimal parental behavior for ensuring the development of conscience in a child depends on the child’s:

Select one:
A.	activity level.
B.	level of fearfulness.
C.	intelligence.
D.	attachment.
A

b. CORRECT A number of researchers have found that fearful children score higher on measures of conscience, and Kochanska extended this finding by showing that the relationship between fearfulness and conscience development is affected by caregivers’ socialization practices. Specifically, she found that, among fearful toddlers, conscience development is fostered when the mother uses “gentle discipline.” In contrast, among fearless toddlers, conscience development depends more on a secure mother-child attachment and maternal responsiveness.

50
Q

Question ID #1745: An ongoing debate in the literature centers on a therapist’s responsibility when working with a client who is HIV-positive and is engaging in risky sexual behavior. A central issue in this debate is:

Select one:
A.	social responsibility.
B.	client abandonment.
C.	foreseeability of harm.
D.	vicarious liability.
A

C

51
Q

Question ID #10219: Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is likely to have the most detrimental effect on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?

Select one:
A.	Working Memory
B.	Processing Speed
C.	Perceptual Reasoning
D.	Verbal Comprehension
A

B

52
Q

Question ID #1161: You are working in a community mental health center that employs two other psychologists, a social worker, and a psychiatrist. One Saturday, as you’re talking to your neighbor over the backyard fence, she tells you that the wife of one of your co-workers (one of the psychologists) is a close friend of hers and has told her that her husband (the psychologist) has started to physically abuse her. As an ethical psychologist, your best course of action would be to:

Select one:
A. tell the neighbor to have your co-worker’s wife call your office to set up an appointment.
B. call the wife of the co-worker yourself to confirm the charge before filing a complaint with the Ethics Committee.
C. discuss the situation with the accused co-worker as soon as possible.
D. report the matter to the director of the mental health center (the psychiatrist).

A

C

53
Q

Question ID #19243: A researcher compares the effectiveness of two different relaxation techniques for relieving test anxiety by randomly assigning 30 students who have high levels of anxiety to one of the treatments so that each group includes 15 students. If the researcher uses the t-test for independent (unrelated) samples to analyze the data she obtains, the degrees of freedom will be:

Select one:
A.	13
B.	14
C.	28
D.	29
A

C

54
Q

Question ID #1444: It is generally believed that, of the lobes of the cerebral cortex, the lobes are the last to fully develop and myelinate.

Select one:
A.	frontal
B.	temporal
C.	parietal
D.	occipital
A

A

55
Q

Question ID #8091: When using a , the rater is provided with a list of behavioral examples and asked to indicate whether the ratee’s performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the performance described in each example.

Select one:
A.	critical incident technique
B.	behavioral observation scale
C.	forced-choice method
D.	mixed standard scale
A

d. CORRECT When using the mixed standard scale, three critical incidents representing good, average, and poor performance for several dimensions of job performance are identified. They are then listed in the rating scale in a random order, and the rater indicates, for each incident, whether the rater’s performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the described behavior.

56
Q

Question ID #12901: The refers to the tendency to ignore relevant statistical data when making a probability judgment and to rely, instead, on irrelevant information.

Select one:
A.	Von Restorff effect
B.	Forer effect
C.	availability heuristic
D.	base rate fallacy
A

D

57
Q

Question ID #275: A drug that would be most useful for treating Bulimia Nervosa.

Select one:
A.	increases sensitivity to cortisol
B.	reduces glutamate levels
C.	decreases sensitivity to acetylcholine
D.	increases serotonin levels
A

D

58
Q

Question ID #878: In training, providing “identical elements” is most useful for:

Select one:
A. maximizing overlearning.
B. reducing the probability of proactive and retroactive interference.
C. ensuring transfer of training.
D. providing opportunities for active practice.

A

C

59
Q

Question ID #1624: Polly Pooch teaches her son to feed the dog by first showing him how to put the dog food into the dog dish. Once the boy has mastered that task, she teaches him to open a can of dog food and then put it into the dish. Finally, she teaches her son to open the cupboard, take out a can of dog food, open it, and put the dog food in the dog dish. The procedure that Mrs. Pooch has used is best described as:

Select one:
A.	backward chaining.
B.	forward chaining.
C.	stimulus control training.
D.	sequential training.
A

A

60
Q

Question ID #266: Studies on information processing during the first two years of life indicate that infants first exhibit recognition memory for up to 24 hours following presentation of a stimulus at about months of age.

Select one:
A.	3
B.	5
C.	7
D.	9
A

A

61
Q

Question ID #1490: Research conducted by Mamie and Kenneth Clark in the 1940s led to their conclusion that:

Select one:
A. for young Black children, recognition of their race is linked to low self-esteem.
B. distrust of Whites by adolescent and adult Blacks is a healthy, adaptive response to racism.
C. young Black children do not begin to form a racial identity until they enter school.
D. when compared to White children, Black children exhibit accelerated motor development during the first three years of life.

A

A

62
Q

Question ID #896: During the fourth session, a therapy client says he “is already feeling much better.” Most likely:

Select one:
A. this is simply a transitory placebo effect.
B. this reflects the initial development of insight.
C. the client is beginning to feel more hopeful about his situation.
D. the client is starting to benefit from newly acquired coping skills.

A

C

63
Q

Question ID #14344: “I have two feets” and “I runned fast” are examples of the grammatical error known as:

Select one:
A.	telegraphic speech
B.	holophrastic speech
C.	overextension
D.	overregularization
A

D