TEST6 Flashcards
Question ID #51: The research has found that individual therapy, group therapy, and family therapy are effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa. With regard to individual therapy, the research has shown that:
Select one:
A. behavior therapy is superior to either cognitive-behavior therapy or interpersonal therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects.
B. cognitive-behavior therapy is superior to either behavior therapy or interpersonal therapy in terms of both short-term and long-term effects.
C. cognitive-behavior therapy is superior to either interpersonal therapy or behavior therapy in terms of short- term effects, but cognitive-behavior therapy and interpersonal therapy are about equally effective in terms of long-term effects.
D. behavior therapy, cognitive-behavior therapy, and interpersonal therapy are about equally effective in terms of short-term effects, but cognitive-behavior therapy is superior in terms of long-term effects.
C
Question ID #19174: Berkowitz (1971) added which of the following to the original frustration-aggression hypothesis?
Select one:
A. the role of aggressive cues
B. the impact of the model’s attractiveness
C. the role of the individual’s level of frustration tolerance
D. the likelihood that aggressive behavior will be rewarded or punished
A
Question ID #1734: Dr. Blue, a psychologist, is hired by a company to administer tests for the purpose of evaluating current employees to determine if they should be considered for promotion. In this situation:
Select one:
A. an informed consent from examinees should be obtained.
B. an informed consent is not required since the employer is Dr. Blue’s “client.”
C. an informed consent from examinees is not required, although they should be reminded about the limits of confidentiality.
D. it is up to Dr. Blue to decide whether any information about the test should be given to examinees.
A
Question ID #10331: Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman (1994) has linked criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling to a high risk for:
Select one:
A. divorce in the first seven years following marriage.
B. child abuse.
C. delinquency in girls in early adolescence.
D. acting out behaviors by boys following the divorce of their parents.
A
Question ID #1867: Which of the following is true about the standard error of the mean?
Select one:
A. It increases as the standard deviation decreases.
B. It is not affected by the size of the standard deviation.
C. It decreases as sample size increases.
D. It decreases as the number of samples increases.
C
Question ID #1753: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) has been implicated in the control of circadian rhythms. The SCN is located in the:
Select one: A. thalamus. B. hypothalamus. C. amygdala. D. caudate nucleus.
B
Question ID #265: The National Campaign on Teen Pregnancy (Kirby, 2001) concluded that which of the following has the strongest evidence of success for reducing teen pregnancy rates?
Select one: A. abstinence-only programs B. service learning programs C. school condom distribution programs D. community-wide programs and initiatives
B
Question ID #15065: predicts that the decision to remain or leave a relationship depends on the relative costs and rewards of that relationship.
Select one: A. Social comparison theory B. Self-verification theory C. Social exchange theory D. Gain-loss theory
C
Question ID #36758: The most consistent evidence for neurogenesis in human adults has been provided for which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one: A. reticular formation B. hippocampus C. medulla oblongata D. hypothalamus
B
Question ID #300: In discussing a depressed client, a therapist says the client’s problems are due to the fact that she did not experience normal grief following the death of her mother three years ago. He says that the focus of treatment will be on helping the client go through the grieving process and restore her interests and friendships so that she can overcome her loss. Apparently, this therapist is a practitioner of:
Select one: A. rational-emotive therapy. B. interpersonal therapy. C. object-relations therapy. D. reality therapy.
B
Question ID #150: Research on the effects of divorce on the parent-child relationship has generally shown that, during the initial period following divorce, the relationship between the custodial parent and his/her child often changes. Specifically, during this period, the custodial mother most often:
Select one:
A. provides harsher but more inconsistent punishment.
B. becomes overindulgent and overpermissive.
C. spends more time with her child.
D. is more concerned about the effectiveness of her parenting skills.
A
Question ID #970: Item response theory is considered a useful technique for constructing all of the following types of tests except:
Select one:
A. criterion-keyed tests.
B. tailored (computerized) tests.
C. diagnostic or employment screening tests.
D. teacher-made (classroom) achievement tests.
D
Question ID #1779: The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by:
Select one:
A. controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made.
B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison.
C. permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results.
D. requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two- tailed tests.
B
Question ID #19164: In the context of factor analysis, “specificity” refers to:
Select one:
A. the proportion of variability in a test that has not been explained by the factor analysis.
B. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by a single factor.
C. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by all of the identified factors.
D. the proportion of variability in a test that is attributable to measurement error.
from the perspective of factor analysis, variability in test scores is due to a combination of communality, specificity, and error.
a. CORRECT In factor analysis, a test’s specificity is the variability that is due to factors that are specific to the test and not measured by any other test included in the analysis – i.e., variability that is not accounted for by the identified factors.
Question ID #1278: For the treatment of migraine headaches: Select one:
A. autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback.
B. thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training.
C. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone.
D. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either treatment alone.
C
Question ID #410: Phallic is to initiative vs. guilt as latency is to: Select one: A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. B. identity vs. role confusion. C. industry vs. inferiority. D. generativity vs. stagnation.
C
Question ID #325: The psychoanalyst Adolph Stern provided the first organized clinical description of the borderline patient. Of the ten basic characteristics Stern delineated, which of the following did he consider to be the most primary?
Select one: A. inhibited aggression B. fixation C. emotional dysregulation D. narcissism
D
Question ID #230: Dr. Bill sets his clients’ fees on the basis of a “sliding scale” that is based on their current income. This practice is:
Select one:
A. acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.
B. unacceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.
C. explicitly recommended in the Ethics Code.
D. explicitly prohibited in the Ethics Code.
A
Question ID #1938: If a health care provider is faced with a conflict between state law and the HIPAA requirements:
Select one:
A. state law would preempt the HIPAA requirements.
B. the health care provider should respond based on the best interests of the client.
C. the HIPAA requirement would preempt state law when it provides the client with greater privacy protection or control over access to his/her records.
D. the health care provider has the discretion to resolve the issue in any appropriate manner.
C
Question ID #10933: Studies investigating anxiety over the lifespan suggest that, when compared to younger adults, older adults are:
Select one:
A. more likely to be misdiagnosed as having an anxiety disorder.
B. much less likely to benefit from pharmacotherapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C. less likely to have comorbid symptoms of depression.
D. more likely to believe their symptoms are due to physical health problems.
D
Question ID #96: As a consequence of head trauma caused by a serious car accident, a middle-aged woman experiences a loss of sensation for touch, temperature, and pain in her left hand. Most likely the damage responsible for this deficit is in her right lobe.
Select one: A. frontal B. temporal C. occipital D. parietal
D
Question ID #342: Increasing age is LEAST likely to have which of the following effects on a man’s sexual response cycle?
Select one:
A. The time to achieve an erection will increase.
B. Complete penile erection may not occur until just prior to orgasm.
C. The resolution phase and refractory period will both increase.
D. All of the above occur.
C
Question ID #234: Research on the impact of cultural identification on substance abuse among Native American youth has found that the risk for abuse is:
Select one:
A. lowest for those who are acculturated into the non- Native American (mainstream) culture.
B. lowest for those who can adapt to both Native American and non-Native American cultures.
C. highest for those who strongly identify with the Native American culture and reject the non-Native American culture.
D. highest for those who do not strongly identify with either the Native American or non-Native American culture.
B
Question ID #287: A worker whose job consists primarily of handling customer complaints will be happier if she blames the customer’s problems on:
Select one:
A. external, stable, and global factors.
B. internal, stable, and specific factors.
C. external, unstable, and global factors.
D. external, unstable, and specific factors.
D
Question ID #565: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Piaget’s preoperational stage of development?
Select one: A. magical thinking B. insight learning C. finalism D. decentration
d. CORRECT In the preoperational stage, children exhibit centration, or an inability to mentally hold two dimensions at the same time. Decentration occurs in the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve.
Question ID #1395: A client says she is upset because her doctor has suggested she undergo tests for a possible hyperactive thyroid. She says she believes that doctors are always looking for excuses to perform unnecessary procedures in order to make more money. You should:
Select one:
A. read up on hyperthyroidism so that you can give her an informed opinion.
B. have her sign a release of information and contact her physician.
C. refer her to an endocrinologist to discuss the purpose of the tests.
D. explore the source of her hostility toward doctors.
C
Question ID #1482: The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-IV consists of which of the following subtests?
Select one:
A. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing
B. Vocabulary, Similarities, Information, and Comprehension
C. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
D. Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles, Figure Weights, and Picture Completion
A
Question ID #1758: Lawler’s (1973) model of facet satisfaction:
Select one:
A. is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others.
B. is similar to need hierarchy theory and assumes that job satisfaction is related to the fulfillment of one’s most prepotent needs.
C. is similar to two factor theory and views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent factors.
D. is similar to goal setting theory and proposes that participation in the setting of work objectives is crucial for job satisfaction.
a. CORRECT Like equity theory, Lawler’s model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker’s own ratio is larger than that of comparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker’s ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.
Question ID #17554: The “risky shift phenomenon” is a potential problem when:
Select one:
A. employees are low in both motivation and ability.
B. employees work together to derive a work-related decision.
C. a subjective rating scale is used to evaluate employee performance.
D. a controversial message is delivered by a highly credible communicator.
B
Question ID #17374: Arthur Jensen’s (1998) research on sources of variability in IQ indicated that the average IQ difference within families (as measured by the difference in IQs of full siblings living together) is points.
Select one: A. 4 B. 11 C. 18 D. 26
B
Question ID #38658: When using the DSM-5, level of severity of Intellectual Disability is based on:
Select one:
A. The individual’s score on a standardized intelligence test.
B. The individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
C. The degree of discrepancy between the individual’s cognitive and adaptive functioning.
D. The degree of discrepancy between the individual’s IQ and academic achievement.
B
Question ID #151: A client taking Parnate, an MAO-inhibitor, should be warned against eating all of the following except:
Select one: A. yogurt. B. soy sauce. C. cottage cheese. D. over-ripe avocados.
C
Question ID #8035: In adults, the early motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease most often involve:
Select one:
A. tingling, numbness, and weakness in one limb.
B. repetitive movements in the extremities and face.
C. slowness and poverty of movement.
D. difficulty swallowing and speaking.
B
Question ID #17358: The diagnosis of a spinal cord injury generally relies on which of the following?
Select one: A. X-ray and MRI or CT B. X-ray and CPAP C. actigraphy and MRI or CT D. actigraphy and PET or SPECT
A
Question ID #245: When using the survey feedback method in an organization, the purpose of the feedback is to:
Select one:
A. inform individual employees about their individual areas of strength and weakness.
B. inform employees about their progress toward meeting organizational goals.
C. provide employees with information about the organization’s strengths and weaknesses.
D. provide managers with information about employees’ strengths and weaknesses.
C
Question ID #12890: Your new client, Elwood E., age 28, says that, for as long as he can remember, he has had trouble finishing projects because of his tendency to repeatedly check for mistakes and desire to achieve perfection in whatever he does. He says that, because of these tendencies, he received several “incompletes” when he was in college and was fired from his last job. Elwood also reports that he has constant thoughts and impulses that he knows are inappropriate, that make him very anxious, but that he cannot control. He says he’s afraid he’s going to hurt one of his family members by forgetting to turn off the stove or by accidentally leaving a door or window unlocked at night and that, for this reason, he spends a great deal of time checking and rechecking the stove, doors, and windows. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis or diagnoses for Elwood is/are:
Select one:
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive- Compulsive Personality Disorder.
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and Impulse Control Disorder NOS.
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder only.
B
Question ID #17549: Scoring and interpretation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) usually involves considering which of the following?
Select one: A. form quality and content B. emotional control/lability C. needs and press D. general and specific attitudes
C
Question ID #668: Research by Kaye, Gendall, and Strober (1998) suggests that food restriction associated with Anorexia Nervosa reduces levels.
Select one: A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. dopamine D. glutamate
a. CORRECT Kaye proposes that high levels of serotonin cause anxiety and that starvation reduces tryptophan, which then reduces brain levels of serotonin and temporarily relieves anxiety.
Question ID #33: Brousseau and Driver’s (1994) notion of “career concept” refers to an individual’s:
Select one: A. work-related values. B. career-related identity. C. work-related personality characteristics. D. career decisions.
d. CORRECT Career concept refers to an individual’s career decisions, which vary along three dimensions: frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Brousseau and Driver distinguish between four career concepts
- steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory.
Question ID #78: A partial seizure is characterized by: Select one:
A. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with or without a loss of consciousness.
B. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain without a loss of consciousness.
C. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with a loss of consciousness.
D. a simultaneous onset in both hemispheres of the brain without a loss of consciousness.
a. CORRECT Partial seizures begin in one hemisphere and affect movement and sensations beginning on one side of the body. Simple partial seizures do not affect consciousness, while complex partial seizures do alter consciousness.
Question ID #17343: To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
Select one: A. eta B. biserial C. tetrachoric D. contingency
c. CORRECT The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe.
Question ID #815: The expression of some of our traits is restricted by our genetic make-up. In other words, for these traits, genotype restricts phenotype to a small number of outcomes. This is referred to as:
Select one: A. equilibration. B. canalization. C. niche-picking. D. epigenesis.
a. Incorrect Equilibration is the term Piaget used to describe the drive toward cognitive equilibrium, which he considered to be the motivating force for cognitive development.
b. CORRECT Canalization occurs when phenotype is restricted by genotype to a small number of developmental outcomes.
c. Incorrect Niche-picking is an alternative term for active genotype-environment correlation and refers to the tendency of individuals to seek experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions.
d. Incorrect Epigenesis refers to the bidirectional and continuous influences of heredity and environment on developmental outcomes.
Question ID #648: Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety?
Select one: A. Herbert Simon B. Edgar Schein C. Leon Festinger D. Geert Hofstede
B
Question ID #15051: Research by Baker and Green (2005) found that, when compared to older adults with chronic pain, younger adults with chronic pain tend to report:
Select one:
A. more pain intensity but fewer symptoms of depression.
B. less pain intensity and fewer symptoms of depression.
C. more pain intensity and more symptoms of depression.
D. less pain intensity but more symptoms of depression.
C
Question ID #1966: When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a 100-item speed test:
Select one:
A. the split of the test into halves should be done in a random way.
B. the test should be split so that the first 50 items are grouped together and the second 50 items are grouped together.
C. the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
D. the resulting reliability coefficient will underestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
C
Question ID #501: With regard to the termination of professional services, the Ethics Code requires psychologists to:
Select one:
A. offer to help the client locate alternative services.
B. take actions that protect the best interests of the client.
C. provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative services.
D. take action that is consistent with the reason(s) for the termination.
C
Question ID #1704: A client you have been seeing in therapy for three months tells you that her former therapist made repeated sexual advances toward her. She tells you that she does not want you to say anything about it to anyone and that she just wants to “get over it.” As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A. inform the client that you are ethically obligated to make a report to the state licensing board.
B. convince the client that she should make a report to the appropriate authorities.
C. tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality.
D. tell the client that you must file a complaint with APA but that you will not reveal her name.
C
Question ID #859: A graduate student is extremely anxious about a lecture he has to give to undergraduate students the next morning. To reduce his anxiety, he drinks two beers.
According to Steele and Joseph (1990), the student’s anxiety will actually increase in this situation if he:
Select one: A. relaxes and "does nothing." B. performs a simple task. C. performs a moderately demanding task. D. performs a very demanding task.
A
Question ID #1282: The most effective intervention for cigarette smoking combines nicotine replacement therapy with:
Select one:
A. antidepressants and bibliotherapy.
B. support from a clinician and skills training.
C. covert sensitization and relapse prevention.
D. stimulus control and habit reversal training.
B
Question ID #1074: In Piaget’s model of cognitive development, which stage is associated with the development of object permanence?
Select one: A. sensorimotor stage B. preoperational stage C. concrete operational stage D. formal operational stage
A
Question ID #38663: Augustine, age 5, is in foster care and enrolled in a therapeutic nursery school. He and his older sister were removed from their home after they were found wandering in the park asking people for food and their parents were both found to have a drug problem. While observing Augustine at school, you notice that he impulsively approaches strangers, tends to be overly familiar with people he has just met, and quickly becomes attached to any adult who pays attention to him. Before assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of
to Augustine, you will want to confirm that his symptoms are attributable to .
Select one:
A. Reactive Attachment Disorder, disinhibited type; developmental delays
B. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder; developmental delays
C. Reactive Attachment Disorder, disinhibited type; early neglect or deprivation
D. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder; early neglect or deprivation
D
Question ID #1583: As defined by Beck, "schemas" are: Select one: A. cognitive structures. B. logical errors. C. innate predispositions. D. automatic interpretations.
A
Question ID #17407: Secondary reinforcers are:
Select one:
A. stimuli that increase a behavior through their accidental pairing with that behavior.
B. stimuli that gain their reinforcing value through their association with an unconditioned reinforcer.
C. high-frequency behaviors that are used to reinforce low- frequency behaviors.
D. reinforcers that are removed (rather than applied) following a behavior.
B
Question ID #10952: According to Super’s lifespan model of career development, a major task of the stage is to update one’s skills through training.
Select one: A. growth B. disengagement C. exploration D. maintenance
a. Incorrect A primary task for the initial growth stage is to develop an understanding of the meaning and purpose of work.
b. Incorrect A primary task of the final disengagement phase is to gradually separate from paid employment.
c. Incorrect The tasks of the exploration phase include becoming aware of one’s abilities and interests and learning about the different types of work.
d. CORRECT During the maintenance stage, the primary tasks are staying competitive with younger workers by obtaining necessary training and developing plans for retirement.
Question ID #1422: You would be concerned about a selection test’s differential validity for males and females when you discover that:
Select one:
A. the Y-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females.
B. the X-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females.
C. the slope of the regression lines for males and females are different.
D. females consistently obtain lower scores than males on the predictor.
c. CORRECT The slope of the regression line is directly related to the magnitude of the validity coefficient. If the slopes differ for males and females, this indicates that the validity coefficients are different for males and females.
Question ID #1208: A man who smokes two packs a day says he has decided to stop smoking the day after his birthday, which is two weeks away. According to Prochaska and DiClemente (1992), this man is in which of the following stages of the change process?
Select one: A. precontemplation B. contemplation C. preparation D. action
C
Question ID #1784: To encourage college students to participate in her research study, Dr. LaPlace offers students free admittance to a popular four-hour workshop (“Finding a Meaningful Relationship and Keeping It”) that is offered by a colleage of hers. This policy:
Select one:
A. is unacceptable since it is coercive and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
B. is unacceptable since it represents a multiple relationship and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
C. is unacceptable since it represents a “conflict of interest” and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
D. may be acceptable as long as Dr. LaPlace is careful to clarify any risks, obligations, and so on with the students.
D
Question ID #286: In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would most likely “test the limits”:
Select one:
A. before administering the test using standardized procedures.
B. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
C. after administering the test using standardized procedures.
D. whenever it seems appropriate to do so.
c. CORRECT Testing the limits is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized conditions. It is used to obtain additional information about an examinee and may involve providing cues or asking questions.
Question ID #36752: A practitioner of Rogers’s client-centered therapy would use the Q-sort technique to:
Select one:
A. facilitate identifying a client’s diagnosis.
B. help the client identify specific therapy goals.
C. help identify solutions to a client’s presenting problems.
D. evaluate a clients progress in therapy.
D
Question ID #37757: For Kohler and other Gestalt psychologists, learning is the result of which of the following?
Select one:
A. the development of mental models
B. the formation of associations between stimuli and responses
C. the perception of relationships among elements of the problem
D. observation and imitation of the behavior of others
C
Question ID #963: To use two or more categorical variables to predict status on a single categorical variable, you would use which of the following?
Select one: A. path analysis B. logit analysis C. multiple regression analysis D. canonical correlation analysis
B
Question ID #520: Transformational leaders:
Select one:
A. are likely to have a “dark side.”
B. use their legitimate status to gain compliance.
C. appeal to the self-interest of their followers.
D. seek to empower their followers.
D
Question ID #1103: Hypnagogic hallucinations are: Select one:
A. misperceptions of real stimuli.
B. sensations perceived in the wrong sensory modality.
C. false perceptions that occur when falling asleep.
D. false perceptions associated with hallucinogenic use.
C
Question ID #681: A nine-year old child with Panic Disorder: Select one:
A. has been misdiagnosed because Panic Disorder does not occur in preadolescent children.
B. is most likely to manifest his disorder as crying, freezing, and clinging to his parents.
C. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart palpitations and saying that he “feels like he’s going crazy.”
D. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal.
D
Question ID #1792: Calculation of the utility of a training program in terms of dollar value includes which of the following?
Select one: A. T x d x C B. T - d x C C. T x C - d D. T + C + d
A
$U = utility measured in terms of dollar value
T = number of years duration of the training program’s effects on performance
N = number of people trained
d = effect size of the training program
SD = standard deviation of job performance in dollars C = per person cost of training
Question ID #15044: Which of the following information- processing strategies is characteristic of the reintegration status of Helms’s (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model?
Select one:
A. suppression of information and ambivalence
B. obliviousness and denial
C. flexibility and complexity
D. selective perception and negative out-group distortion
D
Question ID #17555: In organizations, quality circles (QCs): Select one:
A. consist of workers who make work-related decisions that were previously made by management.
B. consist of workers who make suggestions to management about solutions to work-related problems.
C. include a designated internal change agent who is responsible for initiating, guiding, and evaluating a change effort.
D. include an external change agent who helps employees adapt to change.
B
Question ID #17415: An existential therapist is most likely to describe “existential anxiety” as:
Select one:
A. the result of unresolved intrapsychic conflicts.
B. a potential stimulus for growth.
C. the result of a boundary disturbance.
D. a manifestation of incongruence between self and experience.
B
Question ID #12930: Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning?
Select one: A. implosive therapy B. overcorrection C. response cost D. covert sensitization
D
Question ID #998: An intern at a large mental health clinic decides to work at another agency and makes appointments to see several of her previous clients at her new place of employment. Her actions are:
Select one:
A. commendable since it makes it possible for the clients to have continuity in therapy.
B. ethical as long as adequate supervision is available at the agency.
C. unethical because she has previously worked with the clients.
D. unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic.
D
Question ID #14361: Research on the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy with older adults has found that it is:
Select one:
A. less effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy for younger adults and, consequently, is generally contraindicated.
B. usually most effective when it is conducted at a slower pace and at higher levels of abstraction.
C. usually most effective when it is short- (versus long) term and conducted at lower levels of abstraction.
D. usually most effective when it focuses on replacing negative cognitions with positive ones and on the present rather than on the past.
B
Question ID #338: Freud argued that the “work of the mental apparatus is directed toward keeping the quantity of excitation low.” If the mental apparatus is unsuccessful in doing so, the result is likely to be which of the following?
Select one: A. anxiety B. ego decompensation C. psychosis D. object-cathexis
A
Question ID #1448: When applying Bandura’s social learning theory to training in the workplace, you would use which of the following techniques?
Select one: A. vestibule training B. job rotation C. behavioral modeling D. miniature job training
C
Question ID #953: An electrolyte imbalance is a possible complication of Bulimia Nervosa. The danger of this complication lies in the fact that it can lead to:
Select one: A. cardiac arrhythmia and arrest. B. blood dyscracias. C. permanent memory loss. D. dehydration.
A
Question ID #59: Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in:
Select one: A. coordination and balance. B. speech. C. self-awareness. D. visual perception.
C
Question ID #1805: According to Cross (2001), an African American adult in which of the following stages of identity development is likely to say that racial discrimination is not a contributor to his problems and that he prefers to see a White therapist?
Select one: A. disintegration B. pre-encounter C. emersion D. pseudo-independence
B
Question ID #38695: When using the DSM-5, a clinician would code which of the following to indicate that a client has symptoms that do not meet the diagnostic criteria for a specific disorder but does not want to specify the reason why?
Select one: A. [Disorder] not otherwise specified B. [Disorder] provisional C. other specified disorder D. unspecified disorder
D
Question ID #17372: When a test has high sensitivity, this means that there is a:
Select one:
A. low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
B. low chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
C. high chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
D. high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
A
Question ID #852: A licensed psychologist who is working in an isolated rural community finds that some of his clients have problems that are beyond his training and expertise. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A. continue seeing the clients only if there is no other psychologist available.
B. use only those interventions he feels competent to use in treating the clients.
C. obtain appropriate consultation by phone.
D. refuse to see the clients until he receives adequate training.
C
Question ID #19160: When using , examinees who obtain scores that fall within a specified range of scores are considered to have received identical scores.
Select one: A. top-down selection B. within-group norming C. separate cutoff scores D. banding
D
Question ID #12912: Dr. Chang evaluates the relationship between a child’s behavior and rejection of the child by peers by observing the behavior of children previously classified as rejected or non-rejected in free-play situations over several days. During each observation period, Dr. Chang observes the first child on a list for 10 seconds and then records the child’s behavior, observes the next child on the list for 10 seconds and records his/her behavior, and so on until all children have been observed. Dr. Chang is using which of the following strategies?
Select one: A. time sampling B. time series C. sequential act coding D. multiple baseline
a. CORRECT Time sampling involves observing an individual or group of individuals during prespecified periods of time and, at the end of each observation, recording whether or not the target behavior(s) occurred. Time sampling is usually categorized as a type of interval recording.
b. Incorrect When using a time series design, the dependent (outcome) variable is assessed several times at regular intervals before and after administration of the independent variable.
c. Incorrect Sequential act coding involves recording events or behaviors in the order in which they occur.
d. Incorrect A multiple baseline design is single-case (single- subject) design that involves sequentially applying a treatment across baselines - i.e., across participants, behaviors, or settings.
Question ID #503: A caller to a suicide helpline is most likely to be which of the following?
Select one: A. an African-American male B. an African-American female C. a White male D. a White female
D
Question ID #1696: A(n) would be most likely to agree that the basic structure of memory, attention, and other aspects of cognition are similar throughout the lifespan and that increasing complexity of these abilities during childhood are due to increases in capacity and efficiency.
Select one: A. Piagetian B. Vygotskian C. information processing theorist D. ecological systems theorist
C
Question ID #905: Which of the following approaches in family therapy encourages the therapist to develop a “therapeutic triangle” with family members?
Select one: A. extended family systems therapy B. communication/interaction family therapy C. adaptive family therapy D. strategic family therapy
a. CORRECT Bowen’s extended family systems therapy encourages the therapist to become a member in a therapeutic triangle with two family members (usually the spouses/partners).
b. Incorrect In communication/interaction family therapy, the therapist serves as a facilitator and teacher.
c. Incorrect Adaptive family therapy is a “made up” term.
d. Incorrect Although strategic family therapy involves an active therapist, the role of the therapist is to assess the problems, not to become a member of the family’s triangles.
Question ID #1121: During the first few sessions with a male client, you learn that he has trouble maintaining friendships and is disturbed by this since he doesn’t like being alone, has frequent mood shifts, gets very angry about even minor irritations, isn’t sure what he wants to do with his life, and has had three different jobs in the past two years. Based on this information, the best diagnosis is:
Select one: A. Borderline Personality Disorder. B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder. C. Histrionic Personality Disorder. D. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
A
Question ID #1833: The most commonly-prescribed drugs for Tourette’s syndrome are drugs that:
Select one: A. increase dopamine levels. B. block dopamine transmission. C. increase acetylcholine levels. D. block acetylcholine transmission.
B
Question ID #1147: A client you have been seeing for eight months says he wants to quit therapy. He feels that the original problems he came to therapy for have all been resolved. You disagree and feel that there is good reason for the man to continue seeing you. You should:
Select one:
A. get the client to agree to a few more sessions.
B. discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate.
C. discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he should continue.
D. let him terminate but let him know he can come back if he desires.
C
Question ID #797: At months of age, infants begin to search for a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location.
Select one: A. 4 to 8 B. 8 to 12 C. 12 to 18 D. 18 to 24
b. CORRECT At about eight months of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about 12 months of age.
Question ID #829: For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, an individual has to exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. purging following binge eating for at least one month
B. binge eating for at least two months
C. lack of control over eating plus either purging or excessive exercise for at least two months
D. binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months
D
Question ID #1430: Childhood-onset Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:
Select one:
A. is about equally common in boys and girls.
B. is four times more common in girls than boys.
C. is two times more common in girls than boys.
D. is more common in boys than girls.
D
Question ID #1928: Transformational leaders: Select one:
A. appeal to the self-interest of their followers.
B. help followers recognize that their goals are compatible with the organization’s goals.
C. induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization.
D. redefine the organization’s goals to better coincide with the self-interest of followers.
C
Question ID #36745: Fairburn’s (2008) CBT-E (cognitive- behavioral therapy - enhanced) adds which of the following to traditional cognitive-behavioral therapy for individuals with Bulimia Nervosa?
Select one:
A. interventions aimed at boundary disturbances
B. interventions aimed at interpersonal relationships
C. interventions that foster insight into the cause of the disorder
D. interventions derived from Rogerian therapy
B
Question ID #10326: Longitudinal studies of individuals who receive a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder in adolescence or early adulthood indicate that these individuals often exhibit a reduction or remission in symptoms over time. However, recovery varies for type of symptom, with
symptoms showing the least amount of improvement with increasing age.
Select one: A. impulsive B. interpersonal C. affective D. cognitive
C
Question ID #119484: Which of the following are related to the psychology of oppression?
Select one:
A. Strength, learning, knowledge, and cultural individuality.
B. Perceptions, willpower, self-surrender, and power status.
C. Apathy, individualism, loss of identity, and group think.
D. Motivation, emotions, ambitions, and ideals.
D
Question ID #1480: According to Donald Super, “career maturity” refers to:
Select one:
A. the final stage of career development.
B. the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development.
C. the ability to make realistic career choices.
D. the acquisition of skills needed to successfully perform one’s chosen job.
B
Question ID #1413: A supervisor administers a test on the material covered in a training program to employees who have just completed the program in order to assess its effectiveness. Six months later, the same supervisor rates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two sets of scores. She obtains a correlation coefficient of .65. Most likely, the magnitude of the coefficient has been biased by which of the following?
Select one: A. shrinkage B. criterion contamination C. a contrast effect D. demand characteristics
B
Question ID #193: The court offers a defendant the choice of jail or an in-patient alcohol treatment program after he is found guilty of driving while intoxicated. As the clinician who will be working with the man at the treatment center, you should keep in mind that:
Select one:
A. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because treatment has been court-ordered.
B. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by committing the crime.
C. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by choosing the treatment program instead of jail.
D. a waiver of confidentiality is required and should be obtained before you release any information about the man’s treatment to the court.
D
Question ID #17516: The traditional Hawaiian practice of ho’oponopono is best described as a:
Select one: A. primary prevention. B. family intervention. C. type of individual psychotherapy. D. method for promoting relaxation.
b. CORRECT Ho’oponopono (“setting it right”) is a traditional Hawaiian spiritual healing ritual for restoring harmony among family members by resolving a current conflict or other interpersonal problem. It is a structured process that is led by a senior family member or other respected elder and incorporates prayer, discussions aimed at identifying and resolving the problem, and a closing ceremony.
Question ID #37778: When the results of test developer’s validity study confirm that her new measure of an attribute correlates highly with an established measure of the same attribute and does not correlate highly with established measures of unrelated attributes, the test developer has evidence of her test’s:
Select one: A. content validity. B. construct validity. C. internal validity. D. external validity.
B
Question ID #10203: Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by an intellectual disability and extreme obesity. It is caused by which of the following chromosomal abnormalities?
Select one: A. an extra chromosome B. a missing chromosome C. a chromosomal translocation D. a chromosomal deletion
a. Incorrect Down Syndrome and Klinefelter Syndrome are two disorders attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome.
b. Incorrect Turner Syndrome is an example of a disorder caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome.
c. Incorrect Translocation occurs when a section of a chromosome is attached to another chromosome.
d. CORRECT Deletion occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion.
Question ID #510: Dr. Agape uses a dismantling strategy to identify the “active ingredient” of systematic desensitization. He is most likely to find that which of the following is the critical component?
Select one: A. stimulus control B. reciprocal inhibition C. extinction D. behavior rehearsal
c. CORRECT Systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of reciprocal inhibition. However, studies using the dismantling strategy have found that its effects are due to repeated exposure to the CS without the US (i.e., to classical extinction).
Question ID #17411: As defined by Alfred Adler, refers to a person’s goals and the ways in which he or she attempts to achieve those goals.
Select one: A. homeostasis B. success identity C. self-actualization D. style of life
D
