PT3 Flashcards
Question ID #25: Recent research has shown that single-session Psychological Debriefing (PD):
Select one:
A. is as effective as, or in some cases more effective than, multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD.
B. is as effective as multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD only when the session is sufficiently long to elicit a cathartic reaction.
C. is effective for preventing PTSD only when it is administered within 24 hours following exposure to the traumatic event.
D. is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually exacerbate PTSD symptoms.
D
Question ID #380: The mother of a 35-year-old man says that, for the past five weeks, he has been acting very uncharacteristically. He seems perplexed and nervous much of the time, his tone of voice varies between flat and shrill, and his speech is sometimes like "word salad." The mother says that sometimes it seems like he is listening to voices or sounds that she cannot hear. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis is: Select one: A. Schizophrenia. B. Schizoid Personality Disorder. C. Schizoaffective Disorder. D. Schizophreniform Disorder.
D
Question ID #1124: Information on which of the following would be most useful for determining whether a client’s impotence has a physiological or psychological etiology?
Select one:
A. the presence of nocturnal erections
B. the experience of pain during intercourse
C. the client’s level of performance anxiety
D. the presence of diabetes
A
Question ID #15022: Research on characteristics associated with successful smoking cessation suggests that which of the following individuals is most likely to relapse following an attempt to stop smoking cigarettes?
Select one:
A. a 51 year old married man who started smoking at age 32
B. a 25 year old single man who started smoking at age 16
C. a 34 year old married woman who started smoking at age 25
D. a 42 year old divorced woman who started smoking at age 20
B
Question ID #10178: A number of investigators have attempted to identify the factors that reduce the likelihood that a woman will seek or remain in substance abuse treatment. Of the factors that have been studied, which of the following has most often been identified as a primary barrier to substance-abuse treatment for women?
Select one:
A. child and childcare concerns
B. sexual harassment from male counselors
C. denial of a substance abuse problem
D. a perception that treatment is ineffective
A
Question ID #38899: As defined in the DSM-5, the essential feature of Delirium is:
Select one:
A. impaired ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory.
B. a disturbance in attention and awareness.
C. a disturbance in psychomotor behavior.
D. disorientation.
B
Question ID #38665: A clinician notices that her client, age 28, experiences frequent periods in which she is very irritable, sensitive, anxious, and self-deprecating; but that, between these times, the client seems to be fairly well adjusted and even-tempered. When the clinician asks the client about these mood changes, the client says she has always become very moody during the week before her menstrual period. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 disorders? Select one: A. Dysmenorrhea B. Cyclothymic Disorder C. Premenstrual Syndrome D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome
D
Question ID #38885: For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder, the onset of symptoms must be prior to \_\_\_ years of age. Select one: A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. 18
B
Question ID #10932: Research on high expressed emotion has linked it to a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for several psychiatric disorders including Schizophrenia, Bipolar Disorder, Major Depressive Disorder, and Eating Disorders. Select one: A. high risk for relapse B. better response to pharmacotherapy C. lower motivation for treatment D. increased potential for misdiagnosis
A
Question ID #931: The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s disease is an ongoing process due to the degenerative nature of the disease and the consequent need to alter the nature of the treatment plan. During the 4th or 5th year of the disorder, an assessment is most likely to find which of the following?
Select one:
A. deficits in new learning with remote memory mildly to moderately impaired; anomia; sadness
B. severe impairments in recent and remote memory; fluent aphasia; indifference or irritability; restlessness
C. severe impairments in memory and executive functioning; motor rigidity; confusion and delusions
D. severely disturbed intellectual functioning; limb rigidity and flexion posture; apathy; seizures
B
Question ID #14335: The most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea is:
Select one:
A. tracheostomy.
B. oral appliances.
C. adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV).
D. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
D
Question ID #38679: During your first session with Mr. and Mrs. Desvelo, Mr. Desvelo says his wife has insisted that he get “some help” with his sleep problems. Mrs. Desvelo states that she’s awakened by his frightening screams at least once a week, usually a few hours after they go to sleep, and that this is having a negative effect on her mood and their relationship. Mr. Desvelo has no history of trauma or substance abuse, and he says he recently had a physical and his health is good. In response to your questions, Mrs. Desvelo tells you that her husband sometimes wakes up when he screams and seems agitated but usually goes right back to sleep and doesn’t respond to her attempts to calm him; and Mr. Desvelo says that, in the morning, he has no memory of the episode and usually can’t recall having had any dreams. Mr. Desvelo’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses?
Select one:
A. Nightmare Disorder
B. Sleep Terror Disorder
C. Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder
D. Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder
D
Question ID #36749: Studies on effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa have found that:
Select one:
A. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective but, in most cases, combining the two treatments does not improve outcomes.
B. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective and, in many cases, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.
C. treatment with an SSRI alone is superior to cognitive behavior therapy alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.
D. cognitive behavioral therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.
D
Question ID #38890: For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Binge-Eating Disorder, an individual must have engaged in binge eating, on average:
Select one:
A. once a week for at least one month.
B. once a week for at least three months.
C. twice a week for at least one month.
D. twice a week for at least three months.
B
Question ID #15018: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the likely DSM diagnosis for a mother when her child's persistent vomiting stops whenever the child is removed from the mother's care for several days. Select one: A. Malingering B. Factitious Disorder C. Ganser syndrome D. folie a deux
B
Question ID #17412: A therapist who has adopted an etic perspective:
Select one:
A. believes that mental disorders may be manifested differently by people from different cultural groups.
B. believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group.
C. adopts a psychodynamic model to describe the causes of mental disorders.
D. adopts a behavioral model to describe the causes of mental disorders.
B
Question ID #512: A structural family therapist’s interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to:
Select one:
a. foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries.
b. create stress in order to unbalance the family’s homeostasis.
c. dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation.
d. alter the family’s implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.
B
Question ID #1030: According to Troiden (1988), homosexual identity development involves which of the following stages?
Select one:
A. confusion, comparison, acceptance, synthesis
B. feeling different, confusion, assumption, integration
C. dissonance, immersion, introspection, integrated awareness
D. dissonance, acceptance, assumption, integration
B
Question ID #17755: The notion that there are three major life tasks - friendship, occupation, and love - is MOST consistent with the philosophy of: Select one: A. Perls. B. Berne. C. Rogers. D. Adler.
D
Question ID #1987: “Culturally encapsulated” therapists:
Select one:
A. have become immersed in another culture at the expense of their own culture.
B. exhibit an overt type of racism while denying that they are prejudiced against members of other cultures.
C. define the reality of their clients according to their own cultural assumptions.
D. maximize cultural differences by consistently distinguishing between “us” and “them.”
C
Question ID #1555: Traditional American Indian social organization and decision-making is best described as: Select one: A. linear. B. bilateral. C. nuclear. D. collateral.
D
Question ID #17517: The traditional explanation for the beneficial effects of acupuncture is that it promotes healing by:
Select one:
A. restoring the flow of energy in the body.
B. creating a state of mental calmness.
C. altering the balance between cell growth and cell death.
D. restoring balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
A
Question ID #36753: The stages of change (transtheoretical) model identifies two factors as the primary predictors of successful transition from one stage to the next. These are:
Select one:
A. perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance.
B. locus of control and level of commitment.
C. motivation and persuasibility.
D. outcome expectancies and outcome value.
A
Question ID #17519: A number of studies have found that African American patients are less likely than White patients to complete advance directives. This research also indicates that this is due to:
Select one:
A. a low level of trust in the health care system.
B. techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy
C. reliance on family members to make end-of-life decisions.
D. the belief that advance directives violate cultural or religious values.
A
Question ID #798: The provisions of APA’s General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services require that “Professional Psychologists” have:
Select one:
A. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology.
B. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology plus appropriate professional experience.
C. a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school.
D. an appropriate license or certificate in psychology.
C
Question ID #8963: In its statement on Legal Liability Related to Confidentiality and the Prevention of HIV Transmission, the American Psychological Association (1991) recommends that:
Select one:
A. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS.
B. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS as long as psychologists are also protected from civil and criminal liability for doing so.
C. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS but only after they obtain the patients permission to do so.
D. psychologists not be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS.
D
Question ID #229: You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should:
Select one:
A. not comply with the Committee’s request initially and claim privilege on behalf of your client.
B. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case.
C. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release.
D. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is obsolete and that you’re ethically obligated not to forward it to them.
C
Question ID #376: Mental health professionals are sometimes called upon to assist the court in assessing a person's potential for violent behavior. In general, the predictions made by psychologists and psychiatrists yield an abundance of: Select one: A. false negatives. B. false positives. C. true negatives. D. true positives.
B
Question ID #517: You are asked by the court to evaluate a 70-year old woman to help determine her competence. She is apparently disoriented and confused and has substantial memory loss. You have recently taken a weekend workshop on the use of a new computerized assessment technique for people with symptoms like those exhibited by this woman, and you feel this method of assessment would be especially valid in this situation. Further, you had taken the workshop specifically because you want to expand your practice by being qualified to conduct competency-related evaluations for the court. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A. use the program to assess the woman.
B. use the program to assess the woman but, when testifying in court, discuss the potential limitations of your conclusions.
C. use the program to assess the woman but confirm your conclusions before testifying by consulting with the developer of the assessment technique.
D. refer the woman to someone who is more familiar with this type of evaluation.
D
Question ID #469: A transactional leader is LEAST likely to agree with which of the following statements:
Select one:
A. employee behavior is goal directed and employees will act rationally to achieve their goals.
B. contingent rewards are effective for motivating good performance.
C. the best idea for a boss is to adopt a laissez-faire leadership style.
D. each employee will function best if he/she is viewed as an individual and is given personal attention.
D
Question ID #1320: One criticism of BARS is that:
Select one:
A. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed.
B. it requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past.
C. there is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured.
D. it overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance.
A
Question ID #119480: Regarding self-assessments that are utilized to promote organizational development, what is key when implementing the findings?
Select one:
A. Stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process.
B. Lower level management of the organization is included in the discovery process.
C. Only the CEO and executive officers should be included in the discovery process.
D. Only management should be included in the discovery process.
A
Question ID #36769: The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of:
Select one:
A. a neutral job evaluation procedure.
B. a valid needs analysis procedure.
C. an unbiased job analysis procedure.
D. an unbiased personnel selection procedure.
A
Question ID #1206: According to Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963), career development involves two phases - anticipation and preoccupation - which each consist of several stages. During these stages, the individual:
Select one:
A. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation.
B. compares his/her own abilities and performance to an external standard to help decide future goals.
C. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of self-awareness.
D. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are determined primarily by family and other environmental factors.
A
Question ID #17339: Fiedler and Garcia's (1987) cognitive resource theory predicts that the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness is moderated by: Select one: A. the leader's stress level. B. the leader's self-efficacy beliefs. C. the employees' motivation. D. the employees' experience.
A
Question ID #619: In the development of a job performance measure, the “ultimate” criterion is:
Select one:
A. a measure of performance that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor.
B. a measure of performance that is unaffected by measurement error.
C. a measure of performance that is theoretical and cannot actually be measured.
D. the actual measure of the empirically identified conceptual criterion.
C
Question ID #649: To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need information about which of the following?
Select one:
A. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate
B. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio
C. base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient
D. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff
C
Question ID #952: Research comparing younger and older workers has found that:
Select one:
A. younger workers tend to be more satisfied than older workers are.
B. younger workers have more realistic expectations about their jobs than older workers do.
C. younger workers are more concerned about pay and job security than older workers are.
D. younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.
D
Question ID #1848: For Bowlby, an “internal working model” derives from:
Select one:
A. an innate, biologically-based predisposition.
B. early interpersonal interaction patterns.
C. early problem-solving experiences.
D. the self-concept.
B
Question ID #10202: The offspring of women who drink during pregnancy are most likely to have structural abnormalities in various organs including the central nervous system, heart, eyes, legs and arms, and external genitalia when the mother consumes alcohol during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of her pregnancy. Select one: A. first trimester B. second trimester C. third trimester D. second or third trimester
A
Question ID #1607: As defined by Piaget, a child is exhibiting “horizontal decalage” when he/she:
Select one:
A. reasons from one particular event to another particular event.
B. can perform a task with assistance but not alone.
C. gradually makes finer and finer distinctions between stimuli over time.
D. manifests inconsistency in exhibiting a particular type of ability.
D
Question ID #238: Research on the development of depth perception in infants has shown that sensitivity to depth cues emerges in which of the following sequences (from first to last)?
Select one: A. binocular, pictorial, kinetic B. kinetic, pictorial, binocular C. binocular, kinetic, pictorial D. kinetic, binocular, pictorial
D
Question ID #1116: Which of the following is generally considered to be most important in the early development of attachment between an infant and his or her caretaker?
Select one:
A. pleasant tactile stimulation of the infant by the caretaker
B. satiation of the infant’s hunger by the caretaker
C. provision of a structured, nonchanging environment by the caretaker
D. provision of consistent auditory stimulation by the caretaker’s voice
A
Question ID #17416: Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) ecological model describes the as consisting of cultural values, beliefs, and customs.
Select one: A. mesosystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. mezzosystem
C
Question ID #8053: Lawrence Kohlberg describes reasoning in his sixth (last) stage of moral development as involving consideration of universal ethical principles. In contrast, the last stage in Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development emphasizes:
Select one:
A. avoiding harm to oneself and to others.
B. sacrificing ones own desires to those of others.
C. a desire to uphold social contracts.
D. the ability to take the perspective of others.
A
Question ID #882: A teenage girl who has a scar on her forehead feels like people are always looking at her and talking about her scar. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one: A. psychological reactance B. imaginary audience C. identity foreclosure D. personal fable
B
Question ID #19358: As described by Bandura (1968), inhibition and disinhibition are two of the possible effects of:
Select one: A. vicarious learning. B. instrumental learning. C. insight learning. D. overlearning.
A
Question ID #927: Children normally begin to talk somewhere around their first birthday. Studies investigating the nature of a child’s language development have shown that a large proportion of a child’s first words refer to:
Select one: A. objects that the child wants. B. objects that the child can hold. C. objects that are static and invariable. D. objects that move or change.
D
Question ID #19145: Lewinsohn (1974) originally focused on which of the following as a treatment for depression?
Select one: A. attribution re-training B. self-instructional training C. increasing activity levels D. improving problem-solving and coping skills
C
Question ID #19168: Skinner found that can lead to “superstitious” behaviors.
Select one: A. higher-order conditioning B. two-factor learning C. noncontingent reinforcement D. noncontingent punishment
C
Question ID #344: Tolman’s demonstration of latent learning suggests that:
Select one:
A. a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry.
B. a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it.
C. a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided.
D. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.
D
Question ID #8056: In terms of age at which it occurs, Erikson’s autonomy versus shame and doubt stage is comparable to Freud’s stage.
Select one: A. anal B. oral C. genital D. phallic
A
Question ID #1284: In their reformulation of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989):
Select one:
A. de-emphasize the role of punishment and emphasize the role of reinforcement.
B. de-emphasize the role of helplessness and emphasize the role of attributions.
C. de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness.
D. de-emphasize the role of subjective feelings and emphasize the role of actual stressful events.
C
Question ID #564: While treating a client for snake phobia, a therapist handles the snake and then guides the client through a series of steps until she is able to handle the snake herself. This technique is referred to as:
Select one: A. symbolic modeling. B. participant modeling. C. in-vivo desensitization. D. overcorrection.
B
Question ID #416: Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the “serial position effect”?
Select one:
A. the levels of processing model of memory
B. the multi-store (three-box) model of memory
C. the distinction between implicit and explicit memory
D. the concept of overlearning
B
Question ID #787: Research on maternal employment has found that it is associated with:
Select one:
A. lower school grades for both boys and girls.
B. lower school grades for middle- and upper middle-class boys.
C. lower school grades for lower-class boys.
D. lower school grades for middle-class boys and girls.
B
Question ID #1652: A researcher investigating implicit memory will most likely use which of the following tasks?
Select one: A. free recall B. paired-associate C. word-stem completion D. verbal recognition
C
Question ID #1203: In a research study, participants are divided into two groups. Members of the first group are first given a list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, are then given a new list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, and are subsequently asked to recall the first list. Members of the second group are given the same initial list of syllables but, instead of being given the second list, are asked to count backwards by threes (377, 374, 371, etc.) before being asked to recall the list of words. Apparently, the purpose of this study is to investigate the effects of:
Select one: A. retroactive interference. B. proactive interference. C. overlearning. D. cue-dependent forgetting.
A
Question ID #14359: Albert Bandura’s initial Bobo doll experiment found that:
Select one:
A. boys (but not girls) imitate an aggressive model.
B. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when the model has been reinforced for acting aggressively.
C. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when they are told they will receive a reward for doing so.
D. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model even when there is no reinforcement for them or for the model for doing so.
D
Question ID #8045: As the result of brain damage, a 37-year-old woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
Select one: A. dysarthria. B. dysosmia. C. dyspraxia. D. dysprosody.
D
Question ID #18880: The patient known as H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, he exhibited which of the following?
Select one:
A. severe expressive aphasia.
B. severe expressive and receptive aphasia.
C. extensive loss of remote long-term memories.
D. an inability to form new memories.
D
Question ID #1643: Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as:
Select one: A. Kluver-Bucy syndrome. B. Gerstmann's syndrome. C. Gerschwind syndrome. D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
A
Question ID #17952: The neurotransmitter glutamate is believed to be responsible for:
Select one:
A. the effects of alcohol on cognitive abilities.
B. the increased sociability that sometimes accompanies alcohol use.
C. alcohol cravings in alcohol abusers.
D. dietary changes associated with chronic alcohol use.
A
Question ID #19362: As reported by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), the largest number of reported cases of chlamydia and gonorrhea is for:
Select one: A. males ages 15 to 19. B. males ages 20 to 24. C. females ages 15 to 19. D. females ages 20 to 24.
C
Question ID #1478: Research on visual imagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one: A. putamen B. hippocampus C. reticular formation D. basal ganglia
B
Question ID #610: Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are referred to as:
Select one: A. hypnotics. B. endorphins. C. pheromones. D. catecholamines.
B
Question ID #1832: According to Hans Selye, the body’s reaction to sustained stress can be described in terms of three phases: These phases, in order, are:
Select one: A. arousal, readiness, fight or flight. B. alarm, resistance, fight or flight. C. arousal, readiness, exhaustion. D. alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
D
Question ID #926: You are picnicking in Yellowstone National Park and are approached by a large bear who seems to be interested in your cold cuts. You notice that the bear is two feet taller than you, has long teeth, and is drooling. You decide to run away as fast as you possibly can. Which of the following glands produces the substance that will help you successfully evade the bear?
Select one: A. pituitary B. adrenal C. thyroid D. pancreas
A
Question ID #17420: Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in both long-term potentiation and the “excitotoxcity” that is believed to underlie several neurodegenerative disorders?
Select one: A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. glutamate
D
Question ID #10193: is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by a virus and involves blisters on or near the genitals, painful urination, a burning or tingling sensation, and, in some cases, headache, fatigue, chills, fever, and other flu-like symptoms.
Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Candidiasis C. Trichomoniasis D. Genital warts
A
Question ID #8036: Left-right confusion is most likely to be caused by a lesion in the:
Select one: A. corpus callosum. B. basal forebrain. C. left parietal region. D. right occipital region.
C
Question ID #1068: The symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor, and ataxia that characterize multiple sclerosis are due to:
Select one: A. lesions in the basal ganglia. B. demyelination. C. degeneration of ACh receptors. D. cerebellar atrophy.
B
Question ID #17547: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a culture-fair test of intellectual ability?
Select one: A. Leiter-3 B. KABC-II C. Ravens Progressive Matrices D. Woodcock-Johnson III
D
Question ID #916: The scale of the MMPI-2 consists of 64 items that were answered in the deviant (scored) direction by less than 10% of the standardization sample. A high score on this scale suggests carelessness in responding, malingering, or an attempt to look bad.
Select one: A. L B. F C. K D. D
B
Question ID #17550: With regard to IQ, the average reported correlation coefficient for identical (monozygotic) twins reared together is .85, while the coefficient for a parent and biological child when the child is reared by the parent is approximately:
Select one: A. .68. B. .40. C. .25. D. .18.
B
Question ID #17544: Singh and Young (1995) found that, when men were asked to rate women in terms of attractiveness, health, and desirability as a romantic partner, they gave the highest ratings to females with:
Select one: A. large breasts and narrow hips. B. large breasts and broad hips. C. small breasts and narrow hips. D. small breasts and broad hips.
A
Question ID #1076: Research on attraction suggests that we are most likely to join a group when members are:
Select one:
A. similar in terms of attitudes and ability.
B. dissimilar in terms of attitudes and ability.
C. similar in terms of attitude but diverse in terms of ability.
D. diverse in terms of attitude but similar in terms of ability.
A
Question ID #1417: According to Sherif’s social judgment theory, a person’s “latitude of acceptance” is greatest when:
Select one:
A. the person has high ego-involvement with the target issue.
B. the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.
C. the person has high enjoyment of critical thinking.
D. the person has low enjoyment of critical thinking.
B
Question ID #1388: When the homogeneity of variance assumption for the analysis of variance is violated, the results of your statistical analysis are least likely to be invalid when:
Select one:
A. the groups contain the same number of participants.
B. the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C. alpha is increased from .01 to .05.
D. a between-groups design has been used.
A
Question ID #561: Which of the following would NOT be useful for determining whether it is more appropriate to use a parametric or a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data you collect in a research study?
Select one:
A. knowing that the distribution of scores for the dependent variable is negatively skewed
B. knowing that the scores to be analyzed have equal intervals between adjacent units and an absolute zero point
C. knowing that the subjects have not been randomly selected from the population
D. knowing that the purpose of the analysis is to determine if an observed frequency distribution differs from an hypothesized distribution
C
Question ID #16906: Which of the following research designs would be useful for controlling the effects of a potential confounding organismic variable on the results of a research study when participants’ scores on that variable are known at the beginning of the study?
Select one: A. counterbalanced B. randomized block C. Solomon four-group D. nonequivalent groups
B
Question ID #8080: A researcher wants to investigate the effects of a brief treatment for a group of 10 therapy clients before and after the treatment is applied. She will measure symptom severity three times at regular intervals before administering the treatment to the clients and then three times at regular intervals after the clients complete the 10 sessions. The researcher is using which of the following research designs?
Select one: A. multiple baseline B. ABAB C. interrupted time-series design D. nonequivalent control group
C
Question ID #1939: The owner of several used-car lots wants to determine the effectiveness of sales training for his salespeople. He randomly assigns one of his lots to Training Program #1, another to Training Program #2, and a third to a no-treatment condition. It turns out that one of the training group lots is in a low-income neighborhood, while the other two lots are in a middle-income neighborhood. The owner will compare the gross sales of the three lots during a randomly-chosen week in the middle of the summer after the training programs have been completed. The effects of the location of the car lots:
Select one: A. is a source of unreliability. B. is a source of reactivity. C. is a threat to internal validity. D. is a threat to statistical validity.
C
Question ID #36772: The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a research study’s:
Select one: A. internal validity only. B. external validity only. C. internal and external validity. D. statistical conclusion validity.
C
Question ID #10352: A researcher conducts a study to compare three different strategies for increasing students’ understanding of statistics. After administering each strategy to a different group of students, she realizes that students with the highest level of math aptitude were accidentally assigned to Strategy #1. Consequently, to compare the statistics knowledge test scores obtained by participants in the three groups, the researcher should use which of the following statistical techniques?
Select one: A. analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) B. randomized block ANOVA C. multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) D. split-plot ANOVA
A
Question ID #355: Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate method of determining the reliability of a test if the test is designed to assess which of the following?
Select one: A. general intelligence B. mood C. state anxiety D. reading level
A
Question ID #8070: An item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates:
Select one:
A. the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee’s level on the attribute measured by the test.
B. the expected number of scale items answered correctly as a function of the attribute(s) measured by the scale.
C. the expected range within which an examinee’s obtained score is likely to fall given the effects of measurement error.
D. the degree to which the item is actually measuring the attribute purportedly measured by the test.
A
Question ID #557: Which of the following would be most useful when a test administrator wants to use test scores to determine how much a person has learned during the course of a six-week training program?
Select one: A. expectancy tables B. stanine scores C. percentile ranks D. percentage scores
D
