PT2 Flashcards

1
Q

Question ID #38671: Which of the following is NOT included as an Alcohol-Related Disorder in the DSM-5?
Select one:
A. Alcohol Dependence
B. Alcohol Intoxication
C. Alcohol Withdrawal
D. Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder

A

A

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2
Q

Question ID #528: In comparison to bilateral ECT, unilateral ECT to the right (nondominant) hemisphere:
Select one:
A. produces similar levels of anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
B. produces greater anterograde amnesia for nonverbal tasks only.
C. produces greater anterograde and retrograde amnesia for both verbal and nonverbal tasks.
D. produces less anterograde amnesia for both verbal and nonverbal tasks.

A

D

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3
Q

Question ID #38690: As described in the DSM-5, the characteristic symptoms of Substance Use Disorder can be categorized in terms of which of the following?
Select one:
A. impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria
B. functional impairment, denial of consequences, impaired control, and pharmacological criteria
C. impaired control, tolerance, withdrawal, and functional impairment
D. functional impairment, tolerance and withdrawal, risky use, and marked distress

A

A

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4
Q
Question ID #1731: The intense "sleep attack" associated with Narcolepsy is often accompanied by: 
Select one: 
A. cataplexy.  
B. dyskinesia. 
C. ataxia. 
D. muscular rigidity.
A

A

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5
Q
Question ID #39855: Psychological autopsies suggest that about \_\_\_\_% of people who complete suicide had one or more mental disorders at the time of their death. 
Select one: 
A. 25  
B. 55 
C. 70 
D. 90
A

D

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6
Q

Question ID #38688: A DSM-5 diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder or Acute Stress Disorder requires the development of characteristic symptoms following exposure to:
Select one:
A. actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence.
B. actual or threatened death, serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others.
C. one or more severe psychosocial stressors.
D. a threat to the physical integrity of self or others.

A

A

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7
Q

Question ID #38676: Which of the following is not a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion for Conversion Disorder?
Select one:
A. one or more symptoms that involve an alteration in sensory or motor functioning
B. evidence of incompatibility between the symptoms and known medical conditions
C. symptoms are not better explained by a medical condition or other mental disorder
D. evidence that the symptoms are related to a psychological need or conflict.

A

D

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8
Q

Question ID #1717: The use of Haloperidol or other dopamine blocking agent for the treatment of Tourette’s Disorder:
Select one:
A. is uncommon since these drugs are rarely effective for alleviating tics.
B. can be problematic in many cases because of the severe side effects of these drugs.
C. is contraindicated because these drugs exacerbate tics in most patients.
D. should be considered only in the presence of psychotic symptoms.

A

B

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9
Q

Question ID #17326: Depression has been linked to:
Select one:
A. decreased REM latency and increased REM density.
B. decreased REM latency and decreased REM density.
C. increased REM latency and increased REM density.
D. increased REM latency and decreased REM density.

A

A

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10
Q
Question ID #404: Which of the following terms is least descriptive of the Lockean tradition underlying the Western approach to individual psychotherapy? 
Select one: 
A. linear-cause effect 
B. reductionistic 
C. individualistic 
D. relativistic
A

D

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11
Q
Question ID #8019: An African American adult in which stage of Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model denigrates all aspects of White culture while idealizing all aspects of African American culture? 
Select one: 
A. internalization 
B. encounter 
C. immersion-emersion  
D. reintegration
A

C

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12
Q

Question ID #1917: Nonsexist therapy, in comparison to feminist therapy, places greater emphasis on:
Select one:
A. the impact of sex roles and sexism.
B. modification of personal behavior.
C. treating men and women the same.
D. the egalitarian nature of the therapeutic relationship.

A

B

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13
Q
Question ID #462: An emphasis on contact, awareness, and experimentation is central to which of the following? 
Select one: 
A. Gestalt therapy  
B. solution-focused therapy 
C. Adlerian therapy 
D. rational-emotive therapy
A

A

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14
Q

Question ID #1271: Sue and Sue (1990) describe the worldview of counselors and their clients in terms of two dimensions - locus of control and locus of responsibility - and propose that members of minority groups are becoming increasingly more likely to exhibit which of the following worldviews?
Select one:
A. internal locus of control/internal locus of responsibility
B. external locus of control/internal locus of responsibility
C. internal locus of control/external locus of responsibility
D. external locus of control/external locus of responsibility

A

C

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15
Q

Question ID #1165: For Salvador Minuchin, “psychosomatic families” (e.g., those in which asthma, diabetes, or anorexia threaten the life of one child) are most likely to be characterized by which of the following?
Select one:
A. frequent intense open conflicts between family members
B. weak boundaries between family members and limited opportunities for individual autonomy
C. family roles that are inflexible and stereotyped
D. marked emotional distance between the husband and wife who are both emotionally immature

A

B

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16
Q

Question ID #17801: A therapy client’s negative transference is most likely to be manifested in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A. The client will criticize the therapist and be pessimistic about the outcomes of therapy.
B. The client will be more willing to talk about anxiety-arousing events.
C. The client will say whatever comes to his/her mind.
D. The client will express unrealistic positive expectations for the outcomes of therapy.

A

A

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17
Q

Question ID #1258: For members of minority groups, long-term exposure to racial oppression is most likely to result in:
Select one:
A. downplaying the importance of ethnicity and adopting a “culture-free” identity.
B. focusing on satisfying physiological needs and acquiring basic survival skills.
C. attempting to earn acceptance by acquiring material goods and other signs of status.
D. becoming socially withdrawn and isolated.

A

C

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18
Q
Question ID #36754: Harry Stack Sullivan's interpersonal approach to psychiatry identifies \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as the primary cause of psychopathology. 
Select one: 
A. unconscious conflicts 
B. excessive anxiety  
C. obstacles to self-actualization 
D. avoidance of ultimate concerns
A

B

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19
Q
Question ID #144: "Vicarious liability" is most likely to be of concern when a psychologist is acting in the role of: 
Select one: 
A. collaborator. 
B. consultant. 
C. advocate. 
D. supervisor.
A

D

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20
Q

Question ID #16914: The APA’s (2007)Record Keeping Guidelines recommends that, in the absence of superseding laws or regulations, psychologists should retain:
Select one:
A. the full record of an adult client until seven years after termination of therapy.
B. the full record of an adult client until 12 years after termination of therapy.
C. the full record of an adult client until three years after termination and a summary of the record for at least four additional years.
D. the full record of an adult client until five years after termination and a summary of the record for at least seven additional years.

A

A

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21
Q

Question ID #1263: A client reveals to you that he and a friend robbed a convenience store six months ago. He says he knows that what he did was wrong and will never do it again. He also says that he notices that you “make notes” while he is talking, and he asks that you not keep any written record of the robbery. You should:
Select one:
A. agree to exclude information about the robbery from his file.
B. determine whether the robbery is clinically relevant before deciding whether or not to include information about it in his file.
C. inform the client that you are legally required to report the matter to the authorities before you actually do so.
D. reassure the client that anything he tells you is confidential and will not be revealed without his consent.

A

B

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22
Q

Question ID #993: When conducting group therapy, you should remind group members:
Select one:
A. that they are legally bound to maintain confidentiality.
B. that, since they are not legally bound to maintain confidentiality, they should not expect other members to do so.
C. that, as members of a therapy group, they are ethically required to maintain confidentiality.
D. of the importance of maintaining the confidentiality of statements made during group sessions.

A

D

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23
Q
Question ID #168: A psychologist is hired to develop a selection test that will be used to assist in the hiring of management trainees. The psychologist's first step in developing the selection test will be conducting a: 
Select one: 
A. needs assessment. 
B. job analysis. 
C. job evaluation.  
D. formative evaluation.
A

B

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24
Q

Question ID #7: As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, “unfairness” is a problem when:
Select one:
A. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the predictor but similar scores on the criterion.
B. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the criterion but similar scores on the predictor.
C. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.
D. the predictor is equally invalid for all groups.

A

A

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25
Q
Question ID #772: According to Herzberg's "two-factor theory," a disgruntled blue-collar worker is most likely to say he is satisfied with his job if he is: 
Select one: 
A. given a raise. 
B. given fewer tasks to do. 
C. put on a piece-rate pay system.  
D. given more responsibility.
A

D

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26
Q

Question ID #179: Studies investigating the relationship between job performance and job satisfaction have most consistently found that:
Select one:
A. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are positive, and coefficients are usually moderate to high.
B. correlations between satisfaction and performance are negative, although negative coefficients are usually low.
C. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are positive, although coefficients are usually low.
D. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are negative, and negative coefficients are usually quite high.

A

C

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27
Q

Question ID #845: Research on Total Quality Management suggests that, when it fails, this is often because:
Select one:
A. the manager didn’t adapt his/her style to the demands of the situation.
B. the employees were not given adequate training.
C. the employees were not sufficiently involved in problem-solving and decision-making.
D. the manager often had to “satisfice” rather than “optimize” because of limited resources.

A

C

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28
Q
Question ID #39872: According to Dawis, England, and Lofquist's (1964) theory of work adjustment, the probability that a person will be forced out of the work environment is inversely related to his/her: 
Select one: 
A. satisfaction. 
B. satisfactoriness.  
C. job commitment. 
D. organizational commitment.
A

B

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29
Q
Question ID #775: Overtraining is most associated with: 
Select one: 
A. peak performance. 
B. enhanced transfer of training.  
C. a drug-like "high." 
D. decreased motivation and performance.
A

D

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30
Q

Question ID #10951: According to Fiedler’s contingency model, which of the following is most important for maximizing a supervisor’s ability to effectively lead his or her employees?
Select one:
A. Each employee is highly motivated.
B. Each employee is very proficient at his/her job.
C. The leader has good relationships with his/her employees.
D. The leader is highly experienced.

A

C

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31
Q
Question ID #19357: The behavioral technique known as response cost makes use of which of the following to alter a person's behavior? 
Select one: 
A. positive punishment 
B. negative punishment  
C. positive reinforcement 
D. negative reinforcement
A

B

32
Q

Question ID #884: Underlying the technique known as stress inoculation is the assumption that:
Select one:
A. exposure to stressful situations reduces the stress reaction as the result of habituation.
B. exposure to stressful situations leads to catharsis, which results in reduced reactivity.
C. successful coping with stress in the present strengthens the ability to cope with stress in the future.
D. expecting exposure to a stressful stimulus reduces its impact.

A

C

33
Q

Question ID #1570: Relaxation training seems to be less effective than biofeedback for treating which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A. chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting
B. tension headaches
C. lower back pain
D. Raynaud’s disease

A

D

34
Q
Question ID #296: Subjects learn a task while under the influence of a CNS stimulant. Three days later, half of the subjects are tested while under the influence of the drug; the other half are tested while drug-free. Subjects who have been given the drug perform better on the task during testing. This result is predicted by which of the following? 
Select one: 
A. state dependent learning  
B. proactive facilitation 
C. drug-dependence effect 
D. priming
A

A

35
Q

Question ID #17347: The research has confirmed that working memory is negatively affected by increasing age. According to Baddeley (1986), this decline is due primarily to:
Select one:
A. reduced efficiency of sensory register.
B. reduced capacity of short-term memory.
C. the susceptibility of older adults to proactive and retroactive interference.
D. the negative impact of aging on the central executive.

A

D

36
Q
Question ID #19326: In classical conditioning, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when human or animals subjects are unable to form an association between a new neutral stimulus and a unconditioned stimulus because the new neutral stimulus provides redundant information (i.e. it provides the same information as the original conditioned stimulus). 
Select one: 
A. overshadowing 
B. blocking 
C. experimental neurosis  
D. reciprocal inhibition
A

B

37
Q
Question ID #17346: When using aversion therapy to eliminate a client's shoe fetish, an electric shock or other unpleasant stimulus acts as a(n): 
Select one: 
A. negative punishment. 
B. negative reinforcement. 
C. conditioned stimulus. 
D. unconditioned stimulus.
A

D

38
Q

Question ID #1771: Generally speaking, the psychological adjustment of children with chronic illness is most dependent on:

Select one:
A.	peer acceptance.
B.	family attitudes toward the illness.
C.	the child's personality type. 
D.	the child's level of functional disability.
A

D

39
Q

Question ID #1406: Alcohol consumption by a pregnant woman is likely to have the most adverse effects on her baby’s prenatal development when the woman drinks during:

Select one:
A.	the first trimester.  
B.	the second trimester.
C.	the third trimester.
D.	the first or the third trimester.
A

A

40
Q

Question ID #1699: Offense history has been found to be a good predictor of re-offense among juvenile offenders. Of the offense history factors, which is least predictive of re-offense?

Select one:
A.	age of first contact with the law
B.	length of first incarceration  
C.	age at commencement of the first offense
D.	number of prior arrests
A

D

41
Q

Question ID #19275: According to , gender role development involves developing conceptual frameworks (schemas) of masculinity and femininity as the result of sociocultural experiences.

Select one:
A.	Bem  
B.	Kohlberg
C.	Freud
D.	Mischel
A

A

42
Q

Question ID #858: Patterson and his colleagues focus on the family in describing the origins of aggressiveness in children. Specifically, they relate high aggressiveness in children to:

Select one:
A. attachment insecurity in infancy.
B. parental permissiveness and overindulgence.
C. parental rejection and lack of warmth.
D. coercive exchanges between parent-child.

A

D

43
Q

Question ID #10189: Huntington’s disease, Marfan’s syndrome, and Von Willebrand’s disease are due to:

Select one:
A.	an autosomal dominant gene.  
B.	an autosomal recessive gene.
C.	an X-linked dominant gene.
D.	an X-linked recessive gene
A

A

44
Q

Question ID #1709: In response to the cries of an infant:

Select one:
A. only the infant’s mother exhibits an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.
B. only the infant’s caregivers and older siblings exhibit an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.
C. only experienced parents exhibit an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.
D. most adults (both parents and non-parents) exhibit an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.D

A

D

45
Q

Question ID #15033: Which of the following aspects of memory is most negatively impacted by increasing age in adulthood?

Select one:
A.	sensory memory
B.	secondary memory  
C.	memory span
D.	implicit memory
A

B

46
Q

Question ID #1204: A child who has just progressed into Kohlberg’s conventional level of moral development has been caught stealing from other children at school. The child’s parents would be best advised to do which of the following to discourage the child’s stealing?

Select one:
A. Tell her that she will receive a present at the end of each week that she does not steal.
B. Help her understand how the children she steals from feel about having their things taken.
C. Tell her that stealing is against the law.
D. Have her personally return the stolen items to their owners.

A

B

47
Q

Question ID #208: In females with , part or all of one X chromosome is missing.

Select one:
A.	Mullerian syndrome
B.	Fragile X syndrome
C.	Cushing syndrome
D.	Turner syndrome
A

D

48
Q

Question ID #14341: Research has found maternal depression to be a risk factor for the emotional, behavioral, and cognitive development of children. For example, there is evidence that toddlers of mothers with severe depression tend to be:

Select one:
A.	excessively acquiescent.
B.	hypervigilant and anxious.
C.	antagonistic and belligerent.
D.	passively noncompliant.
A

D

49
Q

Question ID #375: Research suggests that, in comparison to popular children, less popular children tend to be all of the following except:

Select one:
A.	less intelligent.
B.	less physically attractive.
C.	less friendly and sociable.
D.	less cooperative.
A

C

50
Q

Question ID #830: Jerome Kagan has related the basic temperament quality of inhibition (degree of approach or withdrawal in new situations) to which of the following?

Select one:
A.	prenatal development
B.	intellectual capacity
C.	caregiver behaviors  
D.	CNS reactivity
A

D

51
Q

Question ID #16885: Data from the National Health Care Survey indicate that, in general, central nervous system medications are most often prescribed for patients in which of the following ambulatory care settings?

Select one:
A.	primary care offices
B.	medical specialty offices
C.	hospital outpatient departments  
D.	hospital emergency departments
A

A

52
Q

Question ID #1409: Following a stroke, a 71-year-old woman exhibits loss of vision in her right visual field. Most likely, this impairment is the result of damage to the:

Select one:
A. visual cortex in her left hemisphere.
B. visual cortex in her right hemisphere.
C. left posterior temporal lobe.
D. right posterior temporal lobe.

A

A

53
Q

Question ID #1617: Tactile sensation and visuospatial functions are mediated primarily by the:

Select one:
A.	frontal lobe.
B.	occipital lobe.
C.	parietal lobe.  
D.	temporal lobe.
A

C

54
Q

Question ID #119455: A young six-year-old boy is having severe behavioral problems. He is physically aggressive, shouting and misbehaving constantly. There is no prior history of the child having any kind of behavioral problems and there has been no trauma in the child’s past. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of the boy’s behavior?

Select one:
A. The passing on of certain genes from both parents causing this behavior in their son
B. A brain tumor growing that is pushing on various parts of the brain which in turn is affecting the child’s behavior
C. The child could be experiencing developmental difficulties that are causing him to become frustrated and lash out at those around him
D. None of the above

A

B

55
Q

Question ID #39867: Which of the following is a type of nonfluent aphasia that involves deficits in both receptive and expressive language?

Select one:
A.	conduction aphasia
B.	global aphasia  
C.	anomic aphasia
D.	transcortical motor aphasia
A

B

56
Q

Question ID #743: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by:

Select one:
A. ataxia, cardiac arrhythmia, and delirium.
B. headache, tremor, and confusion.
C. nausea and vomiting, loss of coordination, and seizures.
D. muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and stupor.

A

D

57
Q

Question ID #1375: One of the most common impairments following brain injury is memory loss. Although the nature of the disturbance depends on the locus and extent of the damage, most often it involves:

Select one:
A. an inability to recall information stored in remote long-term memory.
B. profound deficits in memory for events that occurred in the days to weeks prior to the incident that caused the injury.
C. spotty deficits in memory for both recent and past events.
D. problems related to retaining new information.

A

D

58
Q

Question ID #17368: As defined in Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, refers to a person’s evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with a situation that has been identified as stressful.

Select one:
A.	primary appraisal
B.	secondary appraisal  
C.	tertiary appraisal
D.	re-appraisal
A

B

59
Q

Question ID #212: The anterior cingulate cortex is believed to be involved in:

Select one:
A.	color vision.
B.	spatial memory.  
C.	emotional reactions to pain.
D.	the physiological component of anxiety.
A

C

60
Q

Question ID #39137: Up to 50% or more of individuals who experience a minor brain injury develop postconcussional syndrome. The majority of these individuals fully recover within . However, for those whose symptoms last for more than , symptoms may be permanent.

Select one:
A.	one to three weeks; six months
B.	one to two months; nine months
C.	one to three months; one year
D.	three to six months; two years
A

C

61
Q

Question ID #12907: Which of the following conditions is not accurately described?

Select one:
A. ALS is a progressive peripheral nerve disorder that causes muscle weakness, tremor, and spasticity.
B. Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular autoimmune disorder that produces weakness in the eye and facial muscles, difficulty swallowing, and slurred speech.
C. Multiple sclerosis is a musculoskeletal syndrome that produces muscular pain, stiffness, and spasms and is often accompanied by fatigue, gastrointestinal disorders, and depression.
D. Huntingtons disease is a hereditary disease that causes involuntary jerky movements, impaired memory and judgment, and depression.

A

C

62
Q

Question ID #1831: Prolonged exposure to stress may lead to chronic by the adrenal glands.

Select one:
A.	suppression of cortisol release
B.	secretion of cortisol  
C.	suppression of oxytocin release
D.	secretion of oxytocin
A

B

63
Q

Question ID #1913: Hemiplegia affecting the right side of the body suggests damage to the:

Select one:
A. motor cortex in the left hemisphere.
B. motor cortex in the right hemisphere.
C. somatosensory cortex in the left hemisphere.
D. somatosensory cortex in the right hemisphere.

A

A

64
Q

Question ID #8034: Central achromatopsia is caused by bilateral lesions in the occipitotemporal region of the brain and is characterized by an inability to:

Select one:
A.	name colors.  
B.	distinguish between different hues.
C.	associate a color with an object.
D.	perceive variations in brightness.
A

B

65
Q

Question ID #452: Which of the following approaches was used to derive the “Big Five” personality traits?

Select one:
A.	theoretical
B.	empirical criterion keying
C.	lexical  
D.	multitrait-multimethod matrix
A

C

66
Q

Question ID #17427: Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study which of the following phenomena?

Select one:
A.	conformity  
B.	affiliation
C.	psychological reactance
D.	locus of control
A

A

67
Q

Question ID #1418: A listener is most likely to process a persuasive message peripherally (i.e., use the “peripheral route”) if she is:

Select one:
A.	bored.
B.	in a good mood.
C.	in a bad mood.  
D.	emotionally unstable.
A

B

68
Q

Question ID #37776: Byrne’s law of attraction emphasizes the role of as an essential determinant of our attraction to others.

Select one:
A.	physical attractiveness
B.	reciprocal liking  
C.	propinquity
D.	attitude similarity
A

D

69
Q

Question ID #17542: The “sleeper effect” (Hovland & Weiss, 1952) is useful for understanding:

Select one:
A. why people might reject a persuasive message immediately after it is delivered by a low credible communicator but accept the message six weeks later.
B. why people are more likely to accept a persuasive message that they accidentally overheard than a message that was intentionally delivered to them.
C. why a decision-maker chooses the first solution that meets minimum criteria of acceptability rather than obtaining the information needed to choose the optimal solution.
D. why group decisions are often more extreme (riskier or more conservative) than the decision each group member would make alone.

A

A

70
Q

Question ID #10363: Advocates for prayer in school hope to persuade other members of the community to support their position. According to social judgment theory, other community members are most likely to be convinced if the discrepancy between their initial position on this issue and the position of the advocates of school prayer:

Select one:
A.	is low.
B.	is moderate.  
C.	is high.
D.	varies from member to member.
A

B

71
Q

Question ID #10215: In team sports, the “home advantage” phenomenon has most consistently been linked to:

Select one:
A. the demoralization of the opposing team.
B. the impact of a supportive home audience.
C. the players expectations.
D. the players familiarity with the home court.

A

B

72
Q

Question ID #1625: A factorial ANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when:

Select one:
A. the study includes two or more dependent variables.
B. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable.
C. the study includes two or more independent variables.
D. the effects of a confounding variable must be statistically removed.

A

C

73
Q

Question ID #142: The ANCOVA enables an experimenter to:

Select one:
A. statistically remove error variance that is attributable to a known extraneous variable.
B. determine if the effects of an extraneous variable moderate the relationship between the IV and DV.
C. simultaneously assess more than one hypothesis about the IV’s effects on the DV.
D. test the effects of an IV on more than one DV without increasing the experimentwise error rate.

A

A

74
Q

Question ID #19152: A distribution of scores is when it is more “peaked” than a normal distribution.

Select one:
A.	platykurtic
B.	leptokurtic  
C.	mesokurtic
D.	endokurtic
A

B

75
Q

Question ID #1138: To evaluate the impact of an educational program on each student’s mastery of the information presented, which of the following would be most useful?

Select one:
A.	norm-referenced scores
B.	criterion-referenced scores
C.	standard scores
D.	ipsative scores
A

B

76
Q

Question ID #16908: When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate the construct validity of a newly developed test, a coefficient provides evidence of the test’s divergent (discriminant) validity.

Select one:
A.	large  monotrait-heteromethod
B.	large  heterotrait-monomethod
C.	small monotrait-heteromethod
D.     small heterotrait-monomethod
A

D