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Mammography Registry > TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST 2 > Flashcards

TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

RL

A

rolled lateral

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2
Q

short purporse of RL

A

localize define

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3
Q

RM

A

roller medial

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4
Q

short purpose of RM

A

localize define

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5
Q

RS

A

Rolled superior

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6
Q

RI

A

rolled inferior

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7
Q

Short purpose of RS

A

localize define

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8
Q

Short purpose of RI

A

localize

define

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9
Q

LMO

A

lateromedial oblique

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10
Q

TAN

A

tangential

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11
Q

M

A

magnification

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12
Q

ID

A

implant displaced breast

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13
Q

short purpose of LMO

A

define

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14
Q

short purpose of TAN

A

define

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15
Q

short purpose of M

A

define

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16
Q

short purpose of ID

A

compression

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17
Q

What are the two types of breast implants

A

saline

silicone

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18
Q

Which type of breast implants have a greater chance of deflation

A

saline

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19
Q

Which implants hae a harder feel, more natural, and are slightly heavier

A

saline

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20
Q

What type of implant has a greater risk of ripples

A

saline

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21
Q

What type of implants are most common in the US

A

silicone gel

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22
Q

What type of breast implant has a autoimmune controversy surrounding it

A

silicone gel

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23
Q

What type of implant has a greater risk of capsular contracture

what percent

A

silicone gel

15-40%

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24
Q

What type of implants are difficult to determine if they are leaking

A

silicone gel

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25
Q

What type of implants are referred to as “gummy bear” implants

A

silicone gel

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26
Q

Implants that are placed prepectoral is called

A

subfacial

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27
Q

implants that are placed behind the glandular tissue

A

subglandular

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28
Q

implants that are place behind the muscle

A

subpectoral

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29
Q

What implant placement is best for mammograms

A

subpectoral

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30
Q

What type of implants are obsolete

A

silicone injections

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31
Q

augmentation incision under the armpit

A

transaxillary incision

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32
Q

augmentation incision under the nipple

A

pariareolar

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33
Q

augmentation incision that is under the breast

A

inframammary incision

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34
Q

augmentation incision near the belly button

A

transumbilical incision

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35
Q

True or False

technologists must have training specific to imaging patients with breast implants as part of the initial training

A

true

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36
Q

True or false

Except when contraindicated or unless modified by a physician patients with breast implants undergoing mammography shall have mammographic views to maximize the visualization of breast tissue

A

true

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37
Q

True or false

Each facility shall have a procedure to inquire whether or not the patient has breast implants prior to the actual mammographic exam

A

true

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38
Q

How much compression should be used on implants

A

enough to only immobilize

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39
Q

What views are required for implants by the MQSA unless contraindicated

A

CC and MLO with implant and displaced implant

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40
Q

Normally a thin layer of ___ ____ , called a ____ develops around the implant

A

scar tissue

capsule

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41
Q

A capsule layer that develops excessively and rightens around the breast implant is called

A

capsular contracture

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42
Q

What is the most common complication with breast implants

A

capsular contracture

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43
Q

Envelope and capsule rutpture and implant leaks into the surrounding tissue is called

A

extracapsular rupture

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44
Q

Evelope ruptures inside the fibrous capsule is called

A

intracapsular rupture

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45
Q

If you are unable to displace an implant what view should be added for maximum tissue inclusion

A

90 degree lateral

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46
Q

Ruptured implant patients sometimes present with an active ____ secondary to the rupture

A

infection

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47
Q

What is the purpose of the implant displacement

A

compression and visualization of breast tissue normally obscured by the implant

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48
Q

Implants are displaced _____ and ____ against the chest wall

A

posteriorly

superiorly

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49
Q

What is the label code for craniocaudal implant displacement

A

CCID

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50
Q

In the CCID you should instruct the patient to lean their torso

A

forward

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51
Q

In the CCID hold the breast tissue ____ and the implant ___

A

anterior

posterior

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52
Q

In a CCID waht holds the implant back

A

the airgap between the IRSD and chest wall

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53
Q

What is the label code for mediolateral oblique implant displacement

A

MLOID

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54
Q

The MLOID may be positioned with the technologist____ or ___ of the patient

A

behind or in front

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55
Q

Beginning with a full implant MLO helps maintain what for the MLOID

A

axillary placement

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56
Q

What pathology that depresses the sternum will cause exclusion of medial tissue on the CC and MLO

A

pectus excavatum

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57
Q

For a patient with pectus excavatum what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO to include all of the medial tissue

A

XCCM

LM

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58
Q

What pathology with a protruding sternum will cause exclusion of medial and lateral tissue on the CC and MLO

A

pectus carinatum

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59
Q

pectus excavatum causes loss of ____ tissue on the CC and MLO

A

medial

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60
Q

Pectus carinatum causes loss of ___ and ___ tissue on the CC and MLO

A

medial and lateral

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61
Q

What are some supplemental views that can be done for the CC and MLO with a patient with pectus carinatum

A

CC: XCCL, XCCM, CV

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62
Q

Post surgical irradiated breast may cause ____, _____ and may limit ___ tissue visualization

A

tenderness

scarring

posterior

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63
Q

When imaging a patient with a medical device what do you want to avoid

A

compression of device

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64
Q

When imaging a patient with a medical device you may use a large ___ device to compress _____ to the device

A

spot

inferior

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65
Q

When imaging a patient with a medical device what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO

A

CC: AC,FB
MLO: AC, LM, ML, LMO

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66
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in women

A

breast cancer

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67
Q

What cancer is the number 1 cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states

A

lung cancer

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68
Q

What is the second cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states

A

breast cancer

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69
Q

What is the lifetime risk of women for breast cancer

A

1 in 8

(12%)

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70
Q

Approximately how many deaths will occur amongst women due to breast cancer in 2021

A

43,600

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71
Q

Breast cancer diagnosis and eath in mean is approximately ___ % of what it is for women

A

1%

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72
Q

Breast cancer death rates have been ____ since 1989

A

decreasing

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73
Q

What are the 3 reasons for breast cancer cases decreasing since 1989

A
  1. advances in breast cancer treatment
  2. earlier brest cancer detection through screening
  3. increased breast cancer awareness
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74
Q

What are the 3 most significant uncontrollable risk factors for breast cancer

A
  1. gender (being a woman)
  2. age (growing older)
  3. inherited gene mutations
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75
Q

What are 4 controllable risk factors of breast cancer

A
  1. obesity
  2. hormone replacement
  3. alcohol consumption
  4. physical inactivity
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76
Q

A woman with cancer in one breast has a __-___ times higher risk of developing new cancer in the other breast or another part of the same breast

A

3-4 times

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77
Q

Women who have been diagnosed with cancer of the ___, ___, _____ are at a higher risk of breast cancer

A

ovary

colon

endometrium

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78
Q

A woman with a 1st degree relative with breast cancer increases her risk by

A

double

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79
Q

If a woman has 2 1st degree relatives with breast cancer her risk of breast cancer

A

triples

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80
Q

True or False

women with a father or brother who have had breast cancer also have a higher risk of breast cancer

A

true

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81
Q

Approximately ___% of women who get breast cancer have a family member diagnosed with it

A

15%

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82
Q

About ___% of breast cancers occur in women with no family history

What are their causes

A

85%

genetic mutations that are a result of aging

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83
Q

about __-___% of breast cancers can be linked to gene mutations inherited from ones mother or father

A

5-10%

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84
Q

What gene mutation is the most common

A

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

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85
Q

On average, women with a BRCA1 mutation have about a ___% lifetime risk

A

70%

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86
Q

Women with BRCA1 and BRCA2 genemutation are also at a higher risk for developing what other type of cancer

A

ovarian

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87
Q

___ women are more likely to deveope breast CA over ___ ___ women

A

caucasian

african american

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88
Q

In women under 45 breast CA is more common in ___ ___ than ____ women

A

african america

caucasian

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89
Q

What race is most likely to die from breast cancer

A

african american

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90
Q

What three races have the lowest risk of breast cancer

A

asian

hispanic

native american

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91
Q

Women diagnosed with what 5 benign breast conditions have a higher risk of breast cancer, and what category of lesion to they fall under

A

Category: proliferative lesions without atypia:

ductal hyperplasia

fibroadenoma

scherosing adenosis

several papillomas

radial scar

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92
Q

Excessive growth of cells in the ducts or lobules of the breast but the cells dont look very abnormal

A

proliferative lesions without atypia

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93
Q

Cells in teh ducts or lobules of the breat tissue that grow excessively and some of them no longer look normal

A

proliferative lesions with atypia

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94
Q

What two types of proliferative lesions with atypia increase your risk of breast cancer

A

atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)

atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH)

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95
Q

Women with proliferative lesions with atypia have a ___ to ___ times higher risk

A

4-5

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96
Q

What is another name for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

A

lobular neoplasia

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97
Q

True or False

lobular carcinoma in situ doesnt become invasive if its not treated

A

true

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98
Q

True or False

women with LCIS have a much higher risk of developing breast cancer in either breast

A

true

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99
Q

Women who had mensus ____ have a higher chance of breast cancer

A

early

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100
Q

Women who go through menopause ____ have a higher risk

A

later

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101
Q

A woman who has never given brith

A

nulliparity

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102
Q

A woman who has given birth to one child

A

primiparity

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103
Q

Women who havent had children or had children after 20 have a ___ risk

A

higher

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104
Q

Having many pregnancies and becoming pregnant early ____ risk

A

reduces

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105
Q

True or False

the effect of pregnancy seems to be different for different types of breast cancer

A

true

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106
Q

Women who are treated with radiation therapy to the chest for disease such as ____ and ___ _____ have a higher risk

A

hodgkin disease

non-hodgkins lymphoma

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107
Q

Radiation exposure to the chest at a younger age ___ your risk

A

increases

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108
Q

Mammographic screening is recommended to begin ___ to ___ years after treatment of hodgkins dieases but not before age ___

A

8-10

25

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109
Q

True or False

Radiation treament after the age of 40 seems to increase breast cancer risk

A

false- it doesnt increase it

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110
Q

HRT increases the risk and the chances of ___ from breast cancer

A

dying

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111
Q

Combined HRT inceases the likelihood that cancer may be found when

A

at a more advanced stage

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112
Q

Women with dense breasts on mammogram have a risk of breast cancr that is about ___ to ___ times higher

A

1.5 to 2

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113
Q

What 5 things can affect breast density

A

age

menopausal status

use of certain drugs

pregnancy

genetics

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114
Q

<25 % density

A

fatty

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115
Q

25-50% density

A

fibro glandular

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116
Q

51-75% density

A

heterogenoesouly

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117
Q

>75% density

A

dense

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118
Q

The xrays that are generated pass through the breast and are captured by the ___ ___

A

image receptor

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119
Q

In digital mammography the receptor is the ___ ___

A

digital detector

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120
Q

The image detector converts the ___ ____ to ___ ___ which is sent to the computer

A

analog signals

digital information (1’s and 0’s)

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121
Q

In what capture is a light step involved

A

indirect digital capture

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122
Q

In indirect digital capture a ___ step is involved

A

light

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123
Q

In direct digital capture no ___ step is involved

A

light

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124
Q

The digital detector measure the _____ of xray photons that pass through the breast and converts those xrays into ___ _____

A

quantity

electrical charge

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125
Q

What are the two types of digital receptors

A

indirect

direct

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126
Q

An indirect digital receptor has a ____ flat panel

A

phosphor

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127
Q

In direct digital receptor the flat panel is made up of ____ ____ _

A

amorphous selenium

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128
Q

In indirect digital detectors the xrays pas through the breast, into the detection material which is made of ____

A

phosphor

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129
Q

In indirect digital detectors the phosphor is made up of what

A

cesium iodide

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130
Q

In indirect digital detectors the xrays are converted into ____ by the ___

A

light

scintillator

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131
Q

In indirect digital detectors once the xrays are converted into light they hit the ___ ____ and are converted into an ___ ____ that is sent ot the computer

A

photo diodes

electrical signal

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132
Q

Name the steps of indirect capture

A

xrays to light by the cesium iodide

the light is converted to electrical signal by the photo diodes

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133
Q

In direct capture the xrays detection material is a ______ made of ____ ____

A

photoconductor

amorphous selenium

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134
Q

In direct capture the photoconductor absorbes xrays and converts it into ___ ___

A

electrical charge

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135
Q

In direct capture the electrical charges are measured by a ___ and _____ are sent to the computer to create the image

A

transistor

signals

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136
Q

Name the steps of direct capture

A

x-rays to electrival signal by photoconductor

electrical charges absorbed and measured by transistor

signals sent to computer

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137
Q

____ detectors creat the image via light production that is coverted to an electrical signal that is sent to the computer

A

indirect

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138
Q

_____ detectors create the image through conversion of xray photons into electrical signals that are sent to the computer

A

direct

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139
Q

What are the two purposes of digital detectors

A
  1. to absorb xray energy
  2. convert that energy to electrical charge
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140
Q

What 4 properties to look for in a digital detector

A
  1. high efficiency
  2. low noise
  3. pixel size
  4. wide latitude
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141
Q

High efficiency is determined by ____

A

DQE

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142
Q

Smaller pixels yield ___ ___ in direct capture

A

better detail

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143
Q

Indirect digital caputre detail depends on ___ ___

A

light spread

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144
Q

Wide latitude is determined by what

A

number of bits

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145
Q

in wide latitude the more bits the more

A

shades of gray

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146
Q

One of the fundamental physical variables related ot image quality in radiography and refers to teh efficiency of a detector in converting incident xray energy into an image signal

A

DQE

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147
Q

DQE

A

detective quantum efficiency

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148
Q

The better the conversion for DQE the ___ the image quality of the resulting image on the monitor

A

better

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149
Q

high noise ____ contrast and resolution

A

lowers

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150
Q

high noise lowers ____ and ___

A

contrast and resolution

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151
Q

lower contrast impedes what

A

the ability to see early breast cancer

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152
Q

pixel size limits ___ ___ or ___ ___

A

spatial resolution

image detail

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153
Q

in theory, with no other factors involved, the smaller the pixel size the better the ___

A

detail

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154
Q

The intersection of a column and a row in a detector forms a ____

A

pixel

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155
Q

The largest pixel size in mammography detectors is ___ ____

A

100 microns

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156
Q

Latitude is determiend by how man ___ ____ ___

A

bits per pixel

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157
Q

bits per pixel determiens the ___

A

contrast or shades of gray available in teh iamge

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158
Q

review workstations are between ___-____ bits deep

A

10-12

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159
Q

mammography detectors are __ bits deep

A

14

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160
Q

pixel depth determines

A

how many shades of grey will be available for the image

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161
Q

The aquisition workstation is the _____ computer

A

technologist

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162
Q

HIS

A

hospital information system

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163
Q

RIS

A

radiology information system

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164
Q

When patient information is entered into the computer goes into either the ____ or ___

A

HIS

RIS

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165
Q

Patient information is converted into ____ from HIS and RIS

A

HL7 (health level seven)

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166
Q

HL7

A

health level seven

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167
Q

Schedling information is used to create a worklist ___ that is sent to the mammo unit AWS

A

MWL

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168
Q

MWL

A

mammography worklist

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169
Q

window width controls the ___

A

contrast

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170
Q

window level contols the ___

A

brightness

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171
Q

RWS

A

review interpretation workstation

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172
Q

The review interpretation workstation is also known as

A

the radiologist workstation

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173
Q

The digital reading room needs to be ___ than the film reading room

analog is ___ lux or less

digital is ____ lux or less

A

darker

50

20

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174
Q

Per MQSA reading room monitors have to be a minimum of ___ megapixels

A

5

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175
Q

The newest monitors can be __,___,__ megapixels

A

10

11

12

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176
Q

Priors are retrieved in one of 3 ways

A
  1. manually retrieved
  2. prefetch through a broker
  3. autofetch through a server
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177
Q

Prefetched through a broker works how

A

triggered by scheduled usually the night before

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178
Q

autofetch through a server works how

A

triggered by first image arriving into PACS on day of exam

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179
Q

How were ROI marked on analog images

A

with a wax pencil

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180
Q

Digital images use ___ ___ and ___ for ROI

A

electronic markings and annotations

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181
Q

What two ways can digital images with electronic markings be stored

A
  1. as an overlay of the original image
  2. as a secondary capture (screen shot)
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182
Q

Which of the two ways is the preferred method of saving a electronically marked image

A

secondary capture (screenshot)

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183
Q

Software program desined to manage all aspects of the hospitals operations ( medical, administrative,financial,legal)

A

HIS (hospital information system)

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184
Q

a computerized database utlized to track, manipulate, and distribute patietn data and imagery

A

RIS (radiology information system)

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185
Q

A digital version of a paper chart that contains all of a patients medical history in one practice

A

EMR (electronic medical record)

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186
Q

Universal language for the storage and transmission of patient information (data) for the medical community

A

HL7 (health level 7)

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187
Q

Universal language for the storage and tramission of images for the medical community

A

DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine)

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188
Q

DICOM

A

digital imaging and communications in medicine

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189
Q

The standard for handling, storing, printing and transmitting images in medical imaging

A

DICOM

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190
Q

Enables integration of scanners, servers, workstations, printers, network hardware and PACS from multiple manufacturers

A

DICOM

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191
Q

PACS

A

picture archiving and communication system

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192
Q

What contains electronic images and reports

A

PACS

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193
Q

The universal image format for PACS is ___

A

DICOM

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194
Q

PACS consists of what 4 major components

A
  1. imaging modalities
  2. secured network for transmission
  3. workstations for interpreting and reviewing
  4. archives for storage
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195
Q

What is the purpose of data compression

A

allows data to be stored in a smaller package

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196
Q

Data compression requires less ___ and less ___ to store

A

space

money

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197
Q

Data compression allows images to move ___ over the network

A

faster

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198
Q

What are the two type of data compression

A

lossy compression

lossless compression

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199
Q

What type of compression has a greater degree of compression

A

lossy

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200
Q

what type of compression is up to 30:1 ratio

A

lossy

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201
Q

What type of compression has some data loss upon retrieval

A

lossy

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202
Q

What type of compression is not allowed for FFDM

A

lossy

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203
Q

what type of compression has a 2:1 ratio

A

lossless

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204
Q

What type of compression is the only format for FFDM

A

lossless compression

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205
Q

What type of compression has no data loss

A

lossless compression

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206
Q

CAD

A

computer aided detection

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207
Q

What are the two major roles of CAD

A

detection

classification

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208
Q

CAD is directed towards finding ____ and ___

A

microcalcifications

masses

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209
Q

What is the goal of CAD

A

improve mammographic sensitivity by increasing detection

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210
Q

What are the 4 reconstruction options

A
  1. breast reconstruction with implants
  2. breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue
  3. no reconstruction
  4. prophylactic surgery
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211
Q

Breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue is called

A

flaps

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212
Q

what is the most common type of flap surgery

A

tram

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213
Q

TRAM

A

transverse rectus abdominous muocutaneous

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214
Q

Surgical removal of one or both breasts in a woman at high risk of breast cancer to reduce her risk

A

prophylactic surgery

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215
Q

prophylactic surgery reduced risk by __ %

A

90%

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216
Q

What are 4 nonsurgical treatment options

A
  1. radiation
  2. brachytherapy
  3. systemic therapy
  4. proton beam therapy
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217
Q

Radiation uses an ___ beam

A

external

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218
Q

brachytherapy uses a ___ ____

A

radiation seed

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219
Q

What are three types of systemic therapy

A

chemotherapy

hormone therapy

anti-HER2 therapy

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220
Q

Proton beam therapy is a new type of ____ beam therapy

A

external

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221
Q

What type of therapy is most used for DCIS

A

radiation - external beam

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222
Q

Radiation- external beam can treat breast cancer at what stage

A

any

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223
Q

What are the contradintiation of radiation with an external beam

A

pregnancy

previous radiation to the chest

prior connective tissue disease (lupus, sclerodermas)

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224
Q

Radiation with an external beam is usually given ___ for how many weeks

A

daily

5-6 weeks

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225
Q

True or false

If no radiation is given, the patient has a lower chance of breast cancer recurring in the same breast

A

false-higher

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226
Q

mastectomy patients have a __ % chance of recurrance

A

2

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227
Q

The whole breast is removed

A

mastectomy

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228
Q

Radiation is indicated if the patient has a high risk of recurrence, what 4 things make a patient high risk

A

positive lymph nodes

tumor size > 5cm

positive margins

tumor that extends to the skin, nipple or chest wall

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229
Q

What therapy is 3-5 days/twice a day

A

brachytherapy

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230
Q

What therapy uses a catheter that is connected to a machine to insert a radiation seed to deliver higher dose radiation directly to the site

A

brachytherapy

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231
Q

In brachytherapy, once its complete what happens to the seed

A

its removed

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232
Q

In brachytherapy when is the catherer and balloon removed

A

the final day

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233
Q

What therpay deposits energy directly to the site and spares the surrounding tissue

A

proton beam therapy

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234
Q

What therpay can be given either via IV or oral

A

chemotherapy

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235
Q

How long is chemotherpay given

A

6-12 months

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236
Q

what is the most common anit-estrogen therapy

A

tamoxifen

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237
Q

what type of therapy is usually recommended if the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes

A

chemotherapy

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238
Q

Breast cancer tends to be more aggressive in ____ women

A

premenopausal

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239
Q

HER2 positive cancer is___ aggressive

A

more

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240
Q

what additional risks does tamoxifen carry

A

blood clots

uterine ca

cataracts

stroke

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241
Q

Hormone therapy has shown to reduce the risk of recurrence in ____ breast cancer

A

early

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242
Q

What reduces the risk of metatstic cancer growth and progression

A

hormonal therpay

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243
Q

what type of therapy has shown to strengthen bones in postmenopausal women

A

hormonal therapy

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244
Q

Hormone receptors are ___

A

proteins

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245
Q

Hormone receptors are found where

A

on the surface and inside some cancer cells

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246
Q

When hormones attach to hormone receptors it causes what

A

cancer to grow

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247
Q

ER/PR ____ tumors have many hormone receptors

A

positive

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248
Q

ER/PR ____ tumors have few to no hormone receptors

A

negative

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249
Q

Arimidex, femara, aromasin are what type of drugs

A

aromatase inhibitors

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250
Q

What do aromatase inhibitors do

A

reduce the amount of estrogen in the body

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251
Q

Aromatase inhibitors are most effective in ___ women with ER/PR ___ tumors

A

postemenopausal

positive

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252
Q

what is the most common side affect of aromatase inhibitors

A

joint stiffness/pain

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253
Q

HER2+

A

human epidermal growth factor receptor 2

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254
Q

HER2 is a ___ that stimulates cell growth

A

protein

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255
Q

HER2 is overproduced in __ -___% of breast cancer

A

20-25

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256
Q

What does herceptin do

A

blocks HER2 receptor overstimulation

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257
Q

___ ____ breast cancer is a tumor that does not have any protein receptors

A

triple negative

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258
Q

Triple negative breast cancer has a ___ diagnosis

A

poorer

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259
Q

what treatment works best for tripple negraive brest cancer

A

chemotherapy

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260
Q

Triple negative accounts for __-___% of breast cancers

A

10-20%

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261
Q

The ___ of breast cancer and the _____ of the tumor will influene prognosis

A

stage

grade

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262
Q

In the treament of early breast cancer a ____ +_____ has an equal survival rate as a ____

A

lumpectomy + radiation

mastectomy

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263
Q

Regrowth of cancer cells at the original sites

A

local

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264
Q

Cancer cells travel from original site to settle in nearby nodes

A

regional

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265
Q

Cancer cells from the original site have traveled to distant parts of the body

A

metastatic

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266
Q

whart 4 risks increase the change of recurrence

A

varies from person to person

characteristics of tumor

stage

treatment

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267
Q

BRCA 1 gene mutation occurs in ____% of hereditary cases

A

30%

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268
Q

Patients with a positive BRCA 1 gene have an increased chance of also getting ___ cancer

A

ovarian

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269
Q

Men with a positive BRCA 1 have a ___ times higher chance of ___ cancer

A

3

prostate

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270
Q

BRACA 2 gene mutation accounts for __% of hereditary cases

A

15%

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271
Q

Patients with a positve BRCA 2 gene have an _____ risk of other cancers

A

increased

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272
Q

Males with a positive BRCA 2 gene have a higher chance of ___ cancer

A

breast

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273
Q

DBT

A

digital breast tomosynthesis

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274
Q

What are the 7 inverventional procedures

A

cyst aspiration

fine needle aspiration

core biopsy

clip placement

needle localization

specimen radiography

sentinel node procedure

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275
Q

what are the 5 limitation to 2D imaging

A
  • summation artifact and superimposed tissue
  • malignancies hidden in glandular tissue
  • false positives
  • false negatives
  • limited to 2D imaging
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276
Q

__ -___% of breast canccercs are not detected using 2D

A

15-30

277
Q

DBT can find ___% more invasive breast cancers

A

41%

278
Q

What are the 5 advantages of DBT

A
  • takes multiple images from many angles
  • positioning is the same as 2D
  • images are perpendicular to the beam
  • images are parallel to the detector
  • xray tube moves in an arc taking 4-27 second images
279
Q

In DBT the images are ___ to the DETECTOR

A

parallel

280
Q

____ are the angles in degrees from the neative to the positive side

A

projections

281
Q

____ are the images initially taken that are set by the vender

A

projections

282
Q

___ are the number of images created from the projections to create the 3D mammogram

A

slices

283
Q

the number of ____ depends on how much the breast is compressed in mm

A

slices

284
Q

slices are created from ____

A

projections

285
Q

Research indicates DBT makes it easier to detect ____ in ____ tissue

A

malignancies

dense

286
Q

The digital images are prcessed by a computer to produce

A

3D images

287
Q

Each projection is a small fraction of the total ___

A

dose

288
Q

The MQSA states that each view can be what dose

A

3 mGy

289
Q

The averge DBT dose per view is

A

1.81 mGy

290
Q

A 2D image created from tomosynthesis is called a

A

synthetic 2D

291
Q

Sythetic 2D is created from the 3D tomo slices and can cut 2D/3D exam dose by how much

A

in half

292
Q

what are 5 indications for a breast ultrasound

A
  • screening
  • abnormal mammogram
  • diagnostic mammogram (symptoms)
  • guidance for intervention
  • second look after mri
293
Q

On ultrasound a lesion with well defined margins is likely

A

benign

294
Q

On ultrasound a lesion with smooth borders is considered to be

A

benign

295
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated is considered to be

A

benign

296
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is round or oval is considered to be

A

benign

297
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is wider than tall is considered to be

A

benign

298
Q

Ultrasound: anechoic

A

no interal echoes - black

299
Q

On ultrasound when there are no interal echoes (black)

A

anechoic

300
Q

anechoic appears as what on an ultrasound

A

black

301
Q

On ultrasound echos that are darker gray than fat

A

hypoechoic

302
Q

hypoechoic

A

darker gray than fat

303
Q

On ultrasound echoes that are brighter grey than fat

A

hyperechoic

304
Q

hyperechoic

A

eachoes brighter gray than fat

305
Q

benign lesions on ultrasound have posterior ____

A

posterior enhancement

306
Q

A thin watery fluid, with smooth borders, anechoic, round or oval, posterior enhancement

A

simple cyst

307
Q

Cystic and solid lesions that have thick walls and other suspicious features are not simple cysts and may need ____ or ___

A

aspiration

biopsy

308
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that has irregular borders is considered to be

A

suspicious

309
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated (bumpy) is considered to be

A

suspicious

310
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is taller than wide is considered to be

A

suspicious

311
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is anechoic is considered to be

A

benign

312
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is hypoechoic is considered to be

A

suspicious

313
Q

On ultrasound a lesion that is angular or ill-defined margins is considered to be

A

suspicious

314
Q

On ultrasound suspicious lesions have posterior ____

A

shadowing

315
Q

True or false

suspicious lesion on ultrasound will show bloodflow

A

true

316
Q

MRI can have improved ___ ___ of inconclusive masses on mammo and US

A

tissue contrast

317
Q

Because malignancies are hypervascular _____ (the most common contrast agent) causes the malignancy to enhance

A

gadolinium

318
Q

What are the downfalls of MRI

A
  • expensive
  • only effective in 50% of patients with DCIS
  • sonographic re-evaluation is necessary
319
Q

Permission granted in the knowledge of the possible consequences, typically that whcih is given by a doctor to the patient for treament with full knowledge of the possible risks and benefits

A

informed consent

320
Q

Cyst aspiration is used for what 3 things

A
  • testing if the cyst is not a simple cyst
  • symptom releif
  • eliminante mammographic masses
321
Q

after a cyst aspiration, cytology fluid evaluation is only done if what

A

the color of the fluid is suspicious

322
Q

What modality is usually used with a cyst aspiration

A

US

323
Q

What procedure is perfoemd when a patient with an infection is not responding to antibiotics

A

abscess drainage

324
Q

FNA

A

fine needle aspiration

325
Q

What gauge of needle is used for a fine needle aspiration

A

18-25

326
Q

What procedure is performed when a small needle is used to aspirate cells

A

fine needle aspiration

327
Q

During a FNA adequate sampling is usually assured by what

A

bedside evaluation of the cells

328
Q

True or false

during a fine needle aspiration only one pass is needed

A

false- multiple passes are usually needed

329
Q

What is the indication for a fine needle aspiration

A

when small lesions are not clearly malignant

330
Q

A fine needle aspiration yields ___ evaluations of cells rather than a ____ evaluation of a core

A

cytologic

histologic (tissue)

331
Q

FNA are ___ invasive than a core biopsy

A

less

332
Q

What are the 3 disadvantages of a fine needle biopsy

A
  • possible false negative due to small sample size
  • cytologic evaluation doesnt differentiate in situe from invasive
  • not used for microcalcifications
333
Q

Core biopsies (no vacuum) are done under who modality only

A

US

334
Q

What are the 3 indications for a core biopsy

A
  • solid lesion that need biopsied
  • lesions near the chest wall
  • patients with bleeding and clotting disorders
335
Q

What size needle is used for core biopsies

A

14-16 guage

336
Q

How many passes are needed for a core biopsy

A

3-5

337
Q

what are the 3 advantages of a core biopsy

A
  • less invasive than a surgical biopsy
  • requires only a small incision
  • sample volume is sufficient for histologic evaluation
338
Q

A core biopsy is ___ invasive and a surgical biopsy

A

less

339
Q

sample volume from a core biopsy is substatial for a ___ evaluation

A

histologic

340
Q

what are the three disadvantages of a core biopsy

A
  • risks of bleeding, infection, hematoma
  • dense lesions are difficult to sample
  • histologic evaluation usually take 24 hours
341
Q

What is the most common type of image guided biopsy used for stereotactic, US,MR and tomo guided biopsy

A

vacuum assisted core biopsy

342
Q

what guage needle is used for a vacuum assisted core biopsy

A

7-14 guage

343
Q

How big of an incision is made for a vacuum assisted core biopsy

A

1/4 inch

344
Q

How many passes are used for a vacuum core biopsy

A

one

345
Q

What is the most common use of a stereotatic guided core biopsy

A

calcifications

346
Q

What are the two disadvantages of a vacuum core biopsy

A

greater risk of bleeding, infection, hematomas

healthy tissue may be compromised

347
Q

When is a clip placed in the breast

A

after a bx

348
Q

Why is it necessary to place a clip after a biopsy

A

so it can continue to be surveillanced

349
Q

What is the indication for a wire localization

A

preoperative guidance

350
Q

After a wire localization what mammographic images are taken

A

CC and ML

351
Q

Waste that has the risk of carrying infectious diseases

A

biohazardous waste (AKA medical waste)

352
Q

During a wire localization a wire is placed ____ for pre-operative guidance

A

percutaneously

353
Q

What is the reason for doing a sentinel node

A

to check for breast cancer cells spreading (metastasizing)

354
Q

What nodes are taken in the sentinel node procedure

A

the first lymph node that drains lymph in a specific area

355
Q

During a sentinal node procedure ____ ____ and ___ ____ are injected at the site of the lesion __ hours before surgery

A

isosulfan blue

radioactive isotopes

2

356
Q

During a sentinal node procedure, a ____ ___ in surgery is used to locate the path of drainage from the tumor to the lymph nodes

A

gamma detector

357
Q

OSHA

A

occupational safety and health administration

358
Q

When was OSHA created

A

1970

359
Q

Human bodily fluids, blood or unfixed tissue is known as

A

infectious material

360
Q

An approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infections for HIV, HBV and othe rbloodborne pathogens

A

Universal precautions

361
Q

The MQSA requires that all facilites be accredited how often

A

once every 3 years

362
Q

MQSA accreditation must be done by a ____ approved accrediting body, certified by the ______

A

FDA

US department of health and human services

363
Q

For ACR accreditation you must submit ___ ____ for the same 30 day perior as patient images only if it the first time for the unit

A

QC charts

364
Q

ACR accreditation program grades your images on what 8 categories

A

positioning

compression

exposure

contrast

sharpness

noise

artifacts

labeling

365
Q

What is the #1 reason for ACR failure

A

poor positioning

366
Q

What is the #2 reason for ACR failure

A

submitting images that are not actually negative (BiRads1)

367
Q

What anatomical borders are fixed

A

medial

superior

368
Q

What anatomical borders are mobile

A

lateral

inferior

369
Q

What are the two benefits of using the function of the anatomical borders

A
  • minimal tissue is displaced during compression
  • maximizes amount of tissue visualized
370
Q

In the CC view you want to get all of the ____ tissue

A

posterior

371
Q

In the CC view what percent of time will you see muscle

A

30-40%

372
Q

In the CC view the PNL should be within ___ of the MLO

A

1cm

373
Q

In the CC view the _____ space should be seen

A

retro-mammary

374
Q

In the MLO all of the ___ tissue should be seen from the ___ to the ___

A

posterior

axilla

IMF

375
Q

In the MLO view the _____ fat should be seen

A

retromammary

376
Q

In the MLO the muscle should be what shape

A

convex

377
Q

In the MLO how far down should the muscle go

A

to the PNL

378
Q

In the MLO the ____ should be open

A

IMF

379
Q

What tissue is not well visualized in the CC view

A

lateral-posterior

380
Q

What tissue is not well visualized on the MLO

A

medial-posterior

381
Q

What is the #1 reason for failures on the CC view

A

PNL not within 1cm of MLO view

382
Q

What are the three top reasons for CC view failure

A
  • PNL not within 1 cm of MLO
  • excessive exaggeration
  • skin folds or artifacts
383
Q

What does a short PNL mean

A

that the posterior tissue is not well visualized

384
Q

What are the 7 top reasons for failure of the MLO view

A
  • poor visualization of posteriot tissue
  • improper demonstration of pectoral muscle
  • inadequate amount of muscle
  • drooping tissue
  • inadequate IMF
  • breast too high on image receptor
  • inadequate anterior breast compression
385
Q

What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a shorter/heavier person

A

30-40 degrees

386
Q

What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for an average height and weight

A

40-50 degrees

387
Q

What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a tall/slender

A

50-60 degrees

388
Q

The correct angle is when the IR is

A

parallel to the pec muscle

389
Q

For proper arm placement for the MLO the corner should be placed between the _____ and ____

A

pec muscle and latissimus

390
Q

On the MLO you want the front edge of the IR at the patients

A

mid axillary line

391
Q

Optimal compression is reached when the breast feels ____ or slightly less than painful

A

taut

392
Q

Improper compression results in what 3 errors

A

poor separation of glandular tissue

unequal exposure of tissue

allows for motion

393
Q

Adequate compression accomplishes what 3 things

A

uniform breast thickness

reduces noise

reduces unsharpness

394
Q

What is the min and max compression suggestions in

pounds

newtons

decanewtons

A

15-27 LBS

70-120 N

2-12 DaN

395
Q

Always check anterior portion is taut otherwise what will need to be done

A

an anterior compression view

396
Q

What is the most common problem in mammography

A

underexposure

397
Q

underexposure results in decreased radiographic _____ and when its only present in the densest part of the breast it will obscure ___ and_____

A

contrast

lesions

micro calcification

398
Q

If an image looks “washed out” it is ____

A

underexposed

399
Q

To determine if you image is underexposued fibroglandular tissue should look ___

A

gray

400
Q

In mammography you want high ___ and low ___

A

contrast

dose

401
Q

What are 8 common causes for poor contrast

A
  • inadequate exposure
  • processing deficiencies
  • inadequate compression
  • inappropriate target/filter material
  • excessive kVp
  • AEC photo cell placed wrong
  • improper breast positioning
  • implant or hardware in region of AEC
402
Q

The ability of the mammographic system to capture fine detail in an image is called

A

sharpness

403
Q

What are 5 causes of image unsharpness

A
  • patient motion
  • compression
  • focal spot size
  • increased OID
  • increased SID
404
Q

skin folds create air gaps resulting in ____ unsharpness

A

geometric

405
Q

___ decreases the ability of the radiologist to recognize tiny structures like calcifications and low contrast structures

A

noise

406
Q

Noise is mostly ____ with digital equipment and ___ to your machine

A

electronic

inherit

407
Q

___ should be a non-isse if your QC is passing

A

noise

408
Q

Anything we can see on a mammogrpahy image that does not reflect actual breast tissue

A

artifact

409
Q

presence of multiple artifacts can be a sign of ____ ____

A

deficient QC

410
Q

Other than deficient QC what are 3 other causes of artifacts

A
  • cleanliness
  • digital artifacts
  • grid lines
411
Q

What are 3 common artifacts

A

streaking/banding

ghosting

bad/dead pixel

412
Q

MQSA labeling requirements include what 8 things

A
  • pt name
  • pt identifying number
  • date of exam
  • view name on laterality
  • facility name and location
  • tech ID
  • cassette ID
  • unit ID
413
Q

What labeling recommendations does MQSA advise

A

-technical factors : target/filter,kvp and mas, exposure time, compressing force, compression breast thickness,degree of obliquity

414
Q

What is the most common labeling deficiency

A

inadequate ID of the facility

415
Q

EQUIP

A

enhancing quiality using inspection program

416
Q

When MQSA asks the question “ does the facility have proceducres for corrective action when clincal images are of poor quality” they also want to know

A

Does the procedure have :

  • ongoing feedback
  • documentation of the corretive action and its efficacy
417
Q

True or False

written dicumentation of clinical image review is required such as summary reports, written statement by LIP that review was done, image review meeting minutes, etc

A

true

418
Q

Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 1

A

IP determines image quality, may use tools such as software

419
Q

Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 2

A

IP, or designee, group, or organization under guidance of IP

420
Q

Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 3

A

LIP, or designee

421
Q

What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 1: Feeback and corrective action

A

Feedback: ongoing

Corrective Action: facilty determines approach, timeframes and retention

422
Q

What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 2: Image quality review

A

at least annual

minimum one exam per RT and IP

423
Q

What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 3: Oversight and corrective actions

A

Process should be appropriate to ensure QA/QC performed as required along with corrective action

424
Q

Is a written policy needed for an of the EQUIP questions

A

no

425
Q

What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 1: imaging quality feedback and corrective action

A

none, only discussion

426
Q

What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 2: image quality review

A

yes

dated memo, meeting notes, report, or signed statement by LIP

427
Q

What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 3: QA/QC oversight and corrective action

A

no

LIP attestation or verbal description of the process

428
Q

MQSA

A

mammography quality standards act

429
Q

When did MQSA becorm law

A

october 27, 1992

430
Q

Congress tasked who with developing and implementing the MQSA requirements

A

FDA

431
Q

Interim regulation became effective when, and when did the final regulations go into affect

A

10/01/ 1994

04/28/1999

432
Q

As of 2021 how many analog machines are left in the US

A

8

433
Q

MQSA has what facility requirements to perform mammography

A
  • meets quality standards for personnel, and equipment
  • accredited by a FDA approved accredidation
  • maintain accreditation by having an annual medical physicitst suvery and insepection done
434
Q

What are the personnel requirements by the MQSA

A
  • initial mammo training
  • continuing education
  • requalification
435
Q

How many document hours of training must you have to be a certified

A

40 hours

436
Q

How many exams must be under direct supervision of a MQSA qualified technologist to become certified

A

25

437
Q

The tech must have ___ hours of training in tomo before they are able to do them

A

8

438
Q

According to MQSA before a rad tech may independtly perform mammography using any modality in whcih the rad tech was not previsouly trained, the tech must have __ hours of training in that modality

A

8

439
Q

What 3 type of mammography machines exist

A

analog

2D digital

3D digital breat tomo

440
Q

The day the fully licensed xray tech completes both the __ _hours of mammogram educaton and ___ supervised mammograms, this become her qualification date as a legal mammo tech

A

40

8

441
Q

For continuing education you need __ CE per every __ years

A

15

3

442
Q

For continuing experience a mammo tech must have a min of ___ mammogram every ___ year

A

200

2

443
Q

__ of the 15 CEs you need have to be in the modality that you are using

A

6

444
Q

Your 15 continuing CE can also be used towards your ___ CE needed for ARRT

A

24

445
Q

All personnel requirements are monitored annually upon

A

MQSA inspection by the MQSA inspector

446
Q

Always keep copies of your mammography ___ at work

A

CEs

447
Q

Only send your mammo CE credits to the ARRT if

A

you are using them toward your 24 CE required every 2 year

448
Q

If you fall short on only your continuing education requirements, you only need to do the following

A

bring you total credits up to 15

449
Q

If you fall shour on continuing experience requirements you must do the following

A

perform 25 supervised mammograms, perform 200 mammograms in the 1st 6 months of the new 2 year period

450
Q

If the patient is a returning patient, the facility must retain imaes for a minimum of ___ years

A

5

451
Q

If the facility has only 1 study or the last study of the patient, the facility must reatin that 1 study for a min of __ years

A

10

452
Q

Medical reports must inlcude what 5 things

A
  • name of facility
  • name of patient
  • an addition patient qualifier
  • name interpreting physician
  • BIRAD category
453
Q

What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 0

A

must indicate what additional imaging study is recommended

454
Q

What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 1 and 2

A

continue routine screening based on practice guidelines

455
Q

What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 3

A

Receive short interval follow up imaging exam. Must indicate exam and interval

456
Q

What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 4 and 5

A

must indicate suggested biopsy method

457
Q

What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 6

A

confirms presence of cancer after biopsy, before or during treatment

458
Q

Written reports must be sent directly to the patient within __ days. If the report indicates suspicious or highly suggestive of malignancy, every atempt should be made to communicate these results within ___ days

A

30

5

459
Q

Once a year each interpreting physician needs to aprticipate in a ___ ___

A

medical audit

460
Q

The medical audit is confidential and reveals the following 3 categories

A

number of false negative (missed cancers)

number of false positives (suspected but turns out ok)

number of mammograms interpreted correctly

461
Q

True or False

The facility must mainting documentation to show that control procedures are being followed and carried out

A

true

462
Q

The facility must maintain a record of each serious complaint for __ years from the date of the complaint

A

3

463
Q

Each facility has to establish a written and documented system for collecting and resolving consumer ____

A

complaints

464
Q

What is the frequency of an FDA inspection

A

once a year

465
Q

What is the purpose of an FDA inspection

A

The GDA or state inspetor comes into your facility and spends the day reviewing documentation and practives

466
Q

What is the process of an FDA inspection

A

any issues are graded into one of 2 levels

467
Q

During an FDA inspection level 1 is the ___ ____

A

most serious

468
Q

During an FDA inspection a level 1 noncompliance, the facility has how logn to take the necessary corrective action and send a ___ response ot the FDA

A

15 working days

written

469
Q

During a FDA inspection, a level 2 non-compliance, the facility has how long to take necessary corrective action and send a _____ reponse to the FDA

A

30 working days

written

470
Q

What is the purpose of an ACR accreditation

A

provide facilities with peer review and feeback on staff, qaulifications, equipment, quality control, quality assurance, image quality, radiation dose etc.

471
Q

What is the frequency of an ACR accreditation

A

every 3 years

472
Q

For an ACR accreditation what 3 steps must you do

A
  • contact ACR for application
  • fill out application for each machine and send payment
  • if application is accepted you have 45 days to select your best images
473
Q

What images must be sent for a ACR accredidation

A
  • fatty breast (4 images - 2 CC, 2MLO)
  • dense breast (4 images)
  • phantom (must be withing 30 days)
  • QC charts ( from same 30 days)
474
Q

The assessment of the iamges that you submit for ACR accreditation must be ____ which is a BIRAD ___

A

negative

1

475
Q

You can get priors approval for a BIRAD ____ if you do not have enough BIRAD 1

A

2

476
Q

During your first ACR accreditation a ___ ___ ___ must be perfomed and passed

A

medical physicist survey

477
Q

Once the medial physicist survey is passed the ACR notifies the _____ who issies the new facility a __ ____ provisional certificate

A

FDA

6 month

478
Q

Once your images are submitted for ACR accreditation, an out of state radiologist gradese them on what things

A

denisty

contrast

positioning

artifacts

479
Q

Once an out of state rad grades your images for ACR accreditation he sends back your scor or ___ or ___ to the ACR

A

pass

fail

480
Q

How many radiologists grade your images for ACR accreditation

A

2

481
Q

During ACR accreditation if one radiologist passes you and the other fails you what happens

A

your images are sent to at 3rd rad

482
Q

Your phantom image for ACR accreditation s scred and passed or failed by and ACR ___ ___

A

medical physicist

483
Q

AB

A

accrediting body

484
Q

ACR

A

american college of radiology

485
Q

ACS

A

american cancer society

486
Q

ADH

A

atypical ductal hyperplasia

487
Q

ALH

A

atypcal lobular hyperplasia

488
Q

AEC

A

automatic esposure control

489
Q

AI

A

artificial intelligence

490
Q

ALND

A

axillary lymph node dissection

491
Q

AWS

A

acquisition workstation

492
Q

BIRADS

A

breast imaging reporting and data system

493
Q

BRCA

A

BReast CAncer

494
Q

BUS

A

breast ultrasound

495
Q

BSE

A

breast self exam

496
Q

CA

A

corrective action

497
Q

CAD

A

computer assisted detection

498
Q

CBE

A

clinical breast exam

499
Q

CNR

A

contrast to noise ration

500
Q

DBT

A

digital breast tomosynthesis

501
Q

DCIS

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

502
Q

DICOM

A

digital imaging communication in medicine

503
Q

DM

A

digital mammography

504
Q

DMIST

A

digital mammographic imaging screening trial

505
Q

DOB

A

date of birth

506
Q

DQE

A

detective quantum efficiency

507
Q

EMR

A

electronnic medial record

508
Q

ER

A

estrogen receptor

509
Q

EQUIP

A

enchancing quality using the inspection program

510
Q

FFDM

A

full field digital mammography

511
Q

FNA

A

fine needle aspiration

512
Q

HER2

A

human epidermal growth factor receptor 2

513
Q

HIS

A

hospital infomration system

514
Q

HL7

A

health level 7

515
Q

HRT

A

hormone replacement therpay

516
Q

HTC

A

high transmission cellular

517
Q

HVL

A

half value layer

518
Q

IMF

A

inframmary fold

519
Q

ID

A

implant displaced

520
Q

IP

A

interpreting physician

521
Q

IR

A

image receptor

522
Q

KVP

A

kilovoltage peak

523
Q

KEV

A

kilo electron volt

524
Q

LCIS

A

lobular carcinoma in situ

525
Q

LIP

A

lead interpreting physician

526
Q

LIQ

A

lower inner quadrant

527
Q

LOQ

A

lower outer quadrant

528
Q

MEE

A

mammography equipment evaluation

529
Q

M

A

magnification

530
Q

MP

A

medica physicist

531
Q

MQSA

A

mammograpahy quality standards act

532
Q

MAS

A

millampere/second

533
Q

Mrad

A

millirad

534
Q

MGY

A

milligray

535
Q

MOLY

A

molybdenum

536
Q

MTF

A

modulation transfer function

537
Q

OID

A

object to image receptor distance

538
Q

PACS

A

picture archiving and communiation system

539
Q

PNL

A

posterior nipple line

540
Q

PR

A

progesterone receptor

541
Q

QA

A

quality assurance

542
Q

QC

A

quality control

543
Q

RIS

A

radiology information system

544
Q

RWS

A

review workstation

545
Q

SBE

A

self breast exam

546
Q

SNR

A

signal to noise ratio

547
Q

SOD

A

source to image distance

548
Q

TDLU

A

terminal ductal lobular unit

549
Q

TFT

A

thin film transistor

550
Q

TRAM

A

transverse rectus abdominus mycutaneous

551
Q

UIQ

A

upper inner quadrant

552
Q

UOQ

A

upper outer quadrant

553
Q

a localized area of infection, usually very painful and common in lactating breasts

A

abscess

554
Q

a small sac like dilation, found in glands

A

acinus

555
Q

smallest functional unit of the breast

A

acini cells

556
Q

a benign tumor containing glandular and fatty tissue

A

adenolipoma

557
Q

a round or oval shaped cancer, often adhering to other tissues

A

adenocarcinoma

558
Q

a benign tumor with gland like structures and intervening supporting stroma, usually well circumscribed tending to compress rather than invade adjacent tissue

A

adenoma

559
Q

a benign breast change marked by an increa in proportion of glandular tissue to the other kinds of tissue in the breast. This change is not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer

A

adenosis

560
Q

fatty tissue

A

adipose

561
Q

Use of anticancer drugs in addition to other treatments to delay or to prevent recurrence

A

adjuvant chemotherapy

562
Q

The absensce of breast development; often also associated with the absence of pectoral muscle

A

amastia

563
Q

a local dilation of the excretory duct, which fucntions as a reservoir for milk

A

ampulla

564
Q

connections between structures

A

anastomoses

565
Q

The arrangements of structures within the breast

A

architecture of the breast

566
Q

the dark pigmented skin around the nipple

A

areola

567
Q

any unwanted or complicating structure visible in an image which masks or is mistaken for true anatomical structure in the patient

A

artifact

568
Q

Removal of fluid or cells from a mass or thickening by means of a hyperdermic syringe

A

aspriation

569
Q

The condition of having abnormal cess, difference in appearance internal organization or behavior. This condition can be determined only by diagnosis of tissue ontained by biopsy. It carries an increase risk of subsequent breast cancer

A

atypia

570
Q

Phototimes are designed to automatically provide the exposure needed to produce an adequate image

A

automatic exposure control system

571
Q

Calculated from values of expousre in air, the xray beam, and compressed breast thickness. The max average glandular dose should be 8 milligray (0.8 rad) or less for 2 view exam on the breast is known as the ____ ____ ____

A

average glandular dose

572
Q

the armpit or underarm area

A

axilla

573
Q

anatomic term fo the portion of the breast adjacent to the chest wall

A

base of the breast

574
Q

not cancerous or malignant

A

benign

575
Q

surgical removal of a piece of tissue to be examined microscopically to diagnose disease

A

biopsy

576
Q

breast imaging reporting and data system developed b the ACR to standardize reporting and categorizing of mammography findings and recommendations

A

BIRADS

577
Q

The large scale mammography screening study was conceived by the american cancer society and funded by the national cancer institue. It was an effort to test the feasibility of an HIP-type mass screening program in 27 communities through the USA in teh 1970s

A

breast cancer detection demonstration project (BCDDP)

578
Q

Inspection and palpation of breasts by a woman herself

A

breast self examination

579
Q

disease characterized by abnormal and uncontrolled growth of cells: the resulting mass can invade and destroy surrounding normal tissue; cells can travel to other areas of the body and start new cancers

A

cancer

580
Q

cancer or malignancy

A

carcinoma

581
Q

pertaining to the cells or composed of cells

A

cellular

582
Q

anticancer drugs used when cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, indicating possible spread to other parts of the body

A

chemotherapy

583
Q

around the areola or nipple; as in incision

A

circum-areolar

584
Q

the main supportive protein of skin, tendons and connective tissue

A

collagen

585
Q

degenerative changes and inflammatory reactions in and among the collagenous fibers of connective tissue

A

collagenosis

586
Q

a circumscribed carcinoma containing mucinous material

A

colloid carcinoma

587
Q

The thin, yellowish milk secreted by the breasts right before and right after the birth of a baby. It is especially suited to the needs of the newborn

A

colostrum

588
Q

A particular type of intraductal carcinoma, so named because lgith pressure on the cut ends of involved ducts results in the expression of a caseous material, which represents necrotic tumor inside ducts

A

comedocarcinoma

589
Q

a plastic paddle used ot help hold the breast stationalry and eliminate blurring due to motion, to help separate structures within the breast, and to decrease the thickness of breast tissue, minimizing the amount of radiation used

A

compression device

590
Q

the device used during mammography to flatten the breasts for more accurate xrays

A

compressor

591
Q

A chart used to record the performance of a quality control test as a fuction of time

A

control chart

592
Q

the range of variation on a control chart beyond which action must be taken to correct th eperformance of a quality control test

A

control limit

593
Q

Thin fibrous septa that are irregular and poorly defined, that separate the lobules of the breast and act as suspensory ligaments of the gland

A

cooper ligament

594
Q

any sac or capsule , normal or abnormal, containing a liquid or a semi solid material; usually harmless and can be removed by aspiration

A

cyst

595
Q

The study of cells

A

cytology

596
Q

xray systems designed specifically for breast imaging, providing optimum imaging geometry, a device for breast compression and low dose exposure that can produce reprodicible images of high quality

A

dedicated mammography equipment

597
Q

the procedures tha are used to treat a disease

A

definitive treatment

598
Q

an instrument which measures the degree of blackening of film, due ot radiation or light measuring the ratio of the light intensity incident on the film to the light intensity transmitted by the film

A

densitometer

599
Q

a measure of the most fibrous and glandular breast tissue, which makes it more difficult to visualize on mammography; cause by normal breast tissue in younger women, individual variation in breast structures, and some benign breast changes

A

density of breast tissue

600
Q

the formation and development of fibrous tissue, often forming adhesion

A

desmoplasia

601
Q

mammography performed on women who, by virtue of symptoms or physical findings, are considered to have a substantial likelihood of having breast disease

A

diagnostic mammography

602
Q

a non-invasive technique that uses ordinary light to visualize breast masses. It can detect many plarge fluid filled cysts but is still considered to be investigations for other purposes. Should not be used as a screening method

A

diaphanography

603
Q

Surgical division or separation of tissues. In treating breast cancer, this usually refers to removal of the axillary lymph nodes and lymph vessels

A

dissection

604
Q

In breast examination, a nodule that stands out from the surrounding breast tissue, three dimensional and different from neighboring areas

A

dominant lump

605
Q

The amount of energy deposited per unit mass of tissue due to x-radiation

A

dose

606
Q

a channel for transporting milk from teh lobules out to the nipple

A

duct/ductile

607
Q

A benign breast change in which large or small ducts in teh breast become dilated and retain secretions, often leading to nipple discharge, and someimtes a lump in the nipple/areolar areas and/or nipple retraction

A

duct ectasia

608
Q

A form of breast carcinoma in situ confied to the rbeast ducts, which often reveal itself with icrocalcifications on mammography

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

609
Q

abnormality of development

A

dysplasia

610
Q

located away from normal position

A

ectopic

611
Q

accumulation of fluid in the tissue

A

edema

612
Q

cellular covering of skin and mucous membrane. Milk ducts are lined with epithelium

A

epithellal

613
Q

a female hormone, produced by a womans ovaries and adrenal glands

A

estrogen

614
Q

a surgical procedure which removes all of the questionable lesion or mass

A

excisional biopsy

615
Q

the amount of xray dose measured in the air just before the xrays enter the skin

A

exposure

616
Q

a benign breast condition common in young women in whcih the breast develope a solid lump, either firm or soft, but usually movable in the breast

A

fibroadenoma

617
Q

the preferred term to describe fibrocystic breast disease or chagnes, chronic custic mastitits, fibroadenoma, mastodynia mammary dysplasia, benign breast changes

A

fibrocystic breast condition or changes

618
Q

the formation of fibrous tissue

A

fibrosis

619
Q

diagnostic technique utlized to dianose lumps. Cells form lumps are aspirated with a skinny needle and smeared on a glass slide. The slides are stained and the pathologist will review them to make a diagnosis

A

fine needle aspiration

620
Q

The ___ ___ ___ determines the area of the target or anode, which is bombarded by electrons from the cathode of teh xray tube to produce x-rays

A

focal spot size

621
Q

A technique by which a tissue specimen from a biopsy is quick frozen cut into this slices stained and examined micoscopically by a pathologist for immediate report to the surgeon

A

frozen section

622
Q

An injection of a milk duct with contrast material. Radiographic procedure in which a duct is cannulated and contrast is injected to delineate the size, site, type and extent of a pathological lesion causing nipple discharge

A

galactography

623
Q

a set of thin lead strips spaced close to one another, interpsaced by carbon filter

A

grids

624
Q

Excessive development of the male mammary glands, even to the functional state

A

gynecomastia

625
Q

The thickness of a specified substance whcih when introduced into the path of a given beam of radiation, reduces the exposure rate by half

A

half value layer

626
Q

Having a similarity of structure uniform tissue throughout a structure

A

homogenous

627
Q

manipulation of hormones to slow the growth of breast cancer

A

hormone therapy

628
Q

Morbid enlargement of an organ or part due to increase in size of the constituent cells

A

hypertrophy

629
Q

The amount of radiographic density difference between adjacent areas resulting from a fixed amount of attenuation difference or light exposure difference

A

image contrast

630
Q

the overall clarity and detail of a radiographic image

A

image quality

631
Q

the overall impression of detail and clarity in a radiographic image

A

image sharpness

632
Q

a procedure in which the surgeon cuts into a suspicious area and removes a small sample

A

incisional biopsy

633
Q

confined to site of orgin, not having invaded adjoiining tissues or metastasized to other parts of the body

A

in situ

634
Q

the part of the breast examination in which the breasts are examined visually

A

inspection

635
Q

Being thickened, dried or rendered less fluid. Usually refers to the hardened secretions that form intraductal calcifications

A

inspissated

636
Q

tiny rounded homogeneous or ring shaped in their appearance. These calcifications are normally benign

A

intradermal microcalcifications

637
Q

disease in which breast cancer cells have penetrated surrounding breast tissue

A

invasive breast cancer

638
Q

the maximum potential difference setting between anode and cathode in an xray tube

A

kilovoltage peak

639
Q

the secretion of milk

A

lactation

640
Q

producing of conveying milk

A

lactiferous

641
Q

a general term for a change in tissue structure or function due to injury or other processes

A

lesion

642
Q

a fibroma (benign) containing fatty elements

A

lipofibroma

643
Q

a benign fatty tumor made up of fat cells

A

lipoma

644
Q

a portion of the breast, which contains a complete unit for producing transporting and delivering milk

A

lobe

645
Q

branching ducts terminate in the ____

A

lobule

646
Q

provides a method for the biopsy of non palpable mammographic abnormalities

A

localization

647
Q

a surgical procedure in which a cancerous tumor or lesion or lump is removed, leaving intact most of the remaining breast tissue

A

lumpectomy

648
Q

small bean shaped glands scattered along the lymphatic vessels; act as filters to infection and cancer

A

lymph nodes

649
Q

general term applied to any neo-plastic disorder of the lymphoid tissue

A

lymphoma

650
Q

a cyst large enough to feel with the fingers

A

macrocyst

651
Q

Interaction of body tissue with radiowaves in a magnetic field. echoes or signals form the body are continuously measured by the scanner and the computer reconstructs the echoes into images

A

MRI

652
Q

In mammography, a technique for producing an enlarged image and greater detail of a small area of suspicious breast tissue

A

magnification view

653
Q

cancer or carcinoma

A

malignant

654
Q

poorly structured tissue in the breast

A

mammary dysplasia

655
Q

plastic reconstruction of the breast

A

mammoplasty

656
Q

surgical removal of all or part of the breast and sotmimes adjoining structures

A

mastectomy

657
Q

inflammation of the mammary glands

A

mastitis

658
Q

a circumscribed carcinoma named because of its fleshy appearance. The consistency is soft and can attain a relatively large size

A

medullary carcinoma

659
Q

The detector system is placed lateral to the breast and the horizontal beam is drected from medial to lateral aspect through the breast

A

mediolateral view

660
Q

a tumor made up of melanin pigmented cells; usually skin lesion

A

melanoma

661
Q

The spread of cancer from teh initial tumor to other parts

A

metastasis

662
Q

a chemical substance, one example of which is caffiene. Said to cause lumpiness and pain in the breast

A

methylxanthine

663
Q

tiny white specks of calcium salts, which can somtiems be seen on mammograms

A

microcalcifications

664
Q

a cyst too small to feel with the fingers

A

microcyst

665
Q

cellular debris can incite an inflammatory response whcih can cause calcium deposition

A

milk of calcium

666
Q

the current of electrons passing from the cathode to anode in the xray tube

A

milliampere setting

667
Q

The product of electron current and the time over which an xray exposure is made

A

milliapere seconds

668
Q

a surgical procedure in which the breast and the lymph nodes in teh armpit are removed while underlying chest muscles are largely left intact

A

modified radiacal mastectomy

669
Q

a nuclear medicine technique that utlizes small semiconductor based cameras in a mammographic configuration to provide high resolution fucntion images of the breast

A

molecular breast imaging

670
Q

visible pores or tiny lumps on the areola openings for the oil glands, which lubricate the nipple and areola during breast feeding

A

montgomerys (morgagnis tubercles)

671
Q

removal of fluid or cells with a needle

A

needle aspiration

672
Q

procedure where the radiologist marks a suspicious non palpable area with a needle, hookwire or dye ; assists surgeons to locate the exact area during biopsy

A

needl localization

673
Q

formation of a neoplasm

A

neoplasia

674
Q

new or abnormal growth; tumor

A

neoplasm

675
Q

involves the removal of the entire breast, lymph nodes and chest wall muscle under the breast

A

radical mastectomy

676
Q

involves the removal of the entire breast, including the nipple/areolar region and some of the under arm lymph nodes

A

modified radical mastectomy

677
Q

involves the removal of the breast tissue, but the nipple- areolar complex remains

A

nipple sparring mastecomy

678
Q

what type of mastecomy is used with relatively small tumors or non agressive cancers or as a prphylactic procedure

A

nipple sparring mastectomy

679
Q

involves the removal of a health breast when the individual has a high risk factor for developing breast cancer

A

prophylactic mastectomy

680
Q

ilvolves the removal of the malignant tumor and the margins of the surrounding normal breast tissue

A

lumpectomy

681
Q

How many weeks of radiation is a patient given after a mastectomy

A

6 weeks

682
Q

how soon does raidation start after a lumpectomy

A

1 month after surgery

683
Q

chemotherapy can follow a lumpectomy to control the ___ __ of breast cancer

A

systemic spread

684
Q

a clear fluid trapped in the wound after surgery is called

A

seroma

685
Q

what issues can occur when lymph nodes are removed

A

lymphedema

686
Q

what procedure removes the underarm lymph noes during a mastectomy or lumpectomy

A

axillary node dissection

687
Q

a more conservative process revolving the removal of only 1-3 sentinel noes in the axillary area

A

sentinel node biopsy

688
Q

the functional unit of the breast

A

lobules

Mammography Registry (12 decks)

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