TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST 2 Flashcards
RL
rolled lateral
short purporse of RL
localize define
RM
roller medial
short purpose of RM
localize define
RS
Rolled superior
RI
rolled inferior
Short purpose of RS
localize define
Short purpose of RI
localize
define
LMO
lateromedial oblique
TAN
tangential
M
magnification
ID
implant displaced breast
short purpose of LMO
define
short purpose of TAN
define
short purpose of M
define
short purpose of ID
compression
What are the two types of breast implants
saline
silicone
Which type of breast implants have a greater chance of deflation
saline
Which implants hae a harder feel, more natural, and are slightly heavier
saline
What type of implant has a greater risk of ripples
saline
What type of implants are most common in the US
silicone gel
What type of breast implant has a autoimmune controversy surrounding it
silicone gel
What type of implant has a greater risk of capsular contracture
what percent
silicone gel
15-40%
What type of implants are difficult to determine if they are leaking
silicone gel
What type of implants are referred to as “gummy bear” implants
silicone gel
Implants that are placed prepectoral is called
subfacial
implants that are placed behind the glandular tissue
subglandular
implants that are place behind the muscle
subpectoral
What implant placement is best for mammograms
subpectoral
What type of implants are obsolete
silicone injections
augmentation incision under the armpit
transaxillary incision
augmentation incision under the nipple
pariareolar
augmentation incision that is under the breast
inframammary incision
augmentation incision near the belly button
transumbilical incision
True or False
technologists must have training specific to imaging patients with breast implants as part of the initial training
true
True or false
Except when contraindicated or unless modified by a physician patients with breast implants undergoing mammography shall have mammographic views to maximize the visualization of breast tissue
true
True or false
Each facility shall have a procedure to inquire whether or not the patient has breast implants prior to the actual mammographic exam
true
How much compression should be used on implants
enough to only immobilize
What views are required for implants by the MQSA unless contraindicated
CC and MLO with implant and displaced implant
Normally a thin layer of ___ ____ , called a ____ develops around the implant
scar tissue
capsule
A capsule layer that develops excessively and rightens around the breast implant is called
capsular contracture
What is the most common complication with breast implants
capsular contracture
Envelope and capsule rutpture and implant leaks into the surrounding tissue is called
extracapsular rupture
Evelope ruptures inside the fibrous capsule is called
intracapsular rupture
If you are unable to displace an implant what view should be added for maximum tissue inclusion
90 degree lateral
Ruptured implant patients sometimes present with an active ____ secondary to the rupture
infection
What is the purpose of the implant displacement
compression and visualization of breast tissue normally obscured by the implant
Implants are displaced _____ and ____ against the chest wall
posteriorly
superiorly
What is the label code for craniocaudal implant displacement
CCID
In the CCID you should instruct the patient to lean their torso
forward
In the CCID hold the breast tissue ____ and the implant ___
anterior
posterior
In a CCID waht holds the implant back
the airgap between the IRSD and chest wall
What is the label code for mediolateral oblique implant displacement
MLOID
The MLOID may be positioned with the technologist____ or ___ of the patient
behind or in front
Beginning with a full implant MLO helps maintain what for the MLOID
axillary placement
What pathology that depresses the sternum will cause exclusion of medial tissue on the CC and MLO
pectus excavatum
For a patient with pectus excavatum what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO to include all of the medial tissue
XCCM
LM
What pathology with a protruding sternum will cause exclusion of medial and lateral tissue on the CC and MLO
pectus carinatum
pectus excavatum causes loss of ____ tissue on the CC and MLO
medial
Pectus carinatum causes loss of ___ and ___ tissue on the CC and MLO
medial and lateral
What are some supplemental views that can be done for the CC and MLO with a patient with pectus carinatum
CC: XCCL, XCCM, CV
Post surgical irradiated breast may cause ____, _____ and may limit ___ tissue visualization
tenderness
scarring
posterior
When imaging a patient with a medical device what do you want to avoid
compression of device
When imaging a patient with a medical device you may use a large ___ device to compress _____ to the device
spot
inferior
When imaging a patient with a medical device what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO
CC: AC,FB
MLO: AC, LM, ML, LMO
What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in women
breast cancer
What cancer is the number 1 cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states
lung cancer
What is the second cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states
breast cancer
What is the lifetime risk of women for breast cancer
1 in 8
(12%)
Approximately how many deaths will occur amongst women due to breast cancer in 2021
43,600
Breast cancer diagnosis and eath in mean is approximately ___ % of what it is for women
1%
Breast cancer death rates have been ____ since 1989
decreasing
What are the 3 reasons for breast cancer cases decreasing since 1989
- advances in breast cancer treatment
- earlier brest cancer detection through screening
- increased breast cancer awareness
What are the 3 most significant uncontrollable risk factors for breast cancer
- gender (being a woman)
- age (growing older)
- inherited gene mutations
What are 4 controllable risk factors of breast cancer
- obesity
- hormone replacement
- alcohol consumption
- physical inactivity
A woman with cancer in one breast has a __-___ times higher risk of developing new cancer in the other breast or another part of the same breast
3-4 times
Women who have been diagnosed with cancer of the ___, ___, _____ are at a higher risk of breast cancer
ovary
colon
endometrium
A woman with a 1st degree relative with breast cancer increases her risk by
double
If a woman has 2 1st degree relatives with breast cancer her risk of breast cancer
triples
True or False
women with a father or brother who have had breast cancer also have a higher risk of breast cancer
true
Approximately ___% of women who get breast cancer have a family member diagnosed with it
15%
About ___% of breast cancers occur in women with no family history
What are their causes
85%
genetic mutations that are a result of aging
about __-___% of breast cancers can be linked to gene mutations inherited from ones mother or father
5-10%
What gene mutation is the most common
BRCA 1 and BRCA 2
On average, women with a BRCA1 mutation have about a ___% lifetime risk
70%
Women with BRCA1 and BRCA2 genemutation are also at a higher risk for developing what other type of cancer
ovarian
___ women are more likely to deveope breast CA over ___ ___ women
caucasian
african american
In women under 45 breast CA is more common in ___ ___ than ____ women
african america
caucasian
What race is most likely to die from breast cancer
african american
What three races have the lowest risk of breast cancer
asian
hispanic
native american
Women diagnosed with what 5 benign breast conditions have a higher risk of breast cancer, and what category of lesion to they fall under
Category: proliferative lesions without atypia:
ductal hyperplasia
fibroadenoma
scherosing adenosis
several papillomas
radial scar
Excessive growth of cells in the ducts or lobules of the breast but the cells dont look very abnormal
proliferative lesions without atypia
Cells in teh ducts or lobules of the breat tissue that grow excessively and some of them no longer look normal
proliferative lesions with atypia
What two types of proliferative lesions with atypia increase your risk of breast cancer
atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)
atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH)
Women with proliferative lesions with atypia have a ___ to ___ times higher risk
4-5
What is another name for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
lobular neoplasia
True or False
lobular carcinoma in situ doesnt become invasive if its not treated
true
True or False
women with LCIS have a much higher risk of developing breast cancer in either breast
true
Women who had mensus ____ have a higher chance of breast cancer
early
Women who go through menopause ____ have a higher risk
later
A woman who has never given brith
nulliparity
A woman who has given birth to one child
primiparity
Women who havent had children or had children after 20 have a ___ risk
higher
Having many pregnancies and becoming pregnant early ____ risk
reduces
True or False
the effect of pregnancy seems to be different for different types of breast cancer
true
Women who are treated with radiation therapy to the chest for disease such as ____ and ___ _____ have a higher risk
hodgkin disease
non-hodgkins lymphoma
Radiation exposure to the chest at a younger age ___ your risk
increases
Mammographic screening is recommended to begin ___ to ___ years after treatment of hodgkins dieases but not before age ___
8-10
25
True or False
Radiation treament after the age of 40 seems to increase breast cancer risk
false- it doesnt increase it
HRT increases the risk and the chances of ___ from breast cancer
dying
Combined HRT inceases the likelihood that cancer may be found when
at a more advanced stage
Women with dense breasts on mammogram have a risk of breast cancr that is about ___ to ___ times higher
1.5 to 2
What 5 things can affect breast density
age
menopausal status
use of certain drugs
pregnancy
genetics
<25 % density
fatty
25-50% density
fibro glandular
51-75% density
heterogenoesouly
>75% density
dense
The xrays that are generated pass through the breast and are captured by the ___ ___
image receptor
In digital mammography the receptor is the ___ ___
digital detector
The image detector converts the ___ ____ to ___ ___ which is sent to the computer
analog signals
digital information (1’s and 0’s)
In what capture is a light step involved
indirect digital capture
In indirect digital capture a ___ step is involved
light
In direct digital capture no ___ step is involved
light
The digital detector measure the _____ of xray photons that pass through the breast and converts those xrays into ___ _____
quantity
electrical charge
What are the two types of digital receptors
indirect
direct
An indirect digital receptor has a ____ flat panel
phosphor
In direct digital receptor the flat panel is made up of ____ ____ _
amorphous selenium
In indirect digital detectors the xrays pas through the breast, into the detection material which is made of ____
phosphor
In indirect digital detectors the phosphor is made up of what
cesium iodide
In indirect digital detectors the xrays are converted into ____ by the ___
light
scintillator
In indirect digital detectors once the xrays are converted into light they hit the ___ ____ and are converted into an ___ ____ that is sent ot the computer
photo diodes
electrical signal
Name the steps of indirect capture
xrays to light by the cesium iodide
the light is converted to electrical signal by the photo diodes
In direct capture the xrays detection material is a ______ made of ____ ____
photoconductor
amorphous selenium
In direct capture the photoconductor absorbes xrays and converts it into ___ ___
electrical charge
In direct capture the electrical charges are measured by a ___ and _____ are sent to the computer to create the image
transistor
signals
Name the steps of direct capture
x-rays to electrival signal by photoconductor
electrical charges absorbed and measured by transistor
signals sent to computer
____ detectors creat the image via light production that is coverted to an electrical signal that is sent to the computer
indirect
_____ detectors create the image through conversion of xray photons into electrical signals that are sent to the computer
direct
What are the two purposes of digital detectors
- to absorb xray energy
- convert that energy to electrical charge
What 4 properties to look for in a digital detector
- high efficiency
- low noise
- pixel size
- wide latitude
High efficiency is determined by ____
DQE
Smaller pixels yield ___ ___ in direct capture
better detail
Indirect digital caputre detail depends on ___ ___
light spread
Wide latitude is determined by what
number of bits
in wide latitude the more bits the more
shades of gray
One of the fundamental physical variables related ot image quality in radiography and refers to teh efficiency of a detector in converting incident xray energy into an image signal
DQE
DQE
detective quantum efficiency
The better the conversion for DQE the ___ the image quality of the resulting image on the monitor
better
high noise ____ contrast and resolution
lowers
high noise lowers ____ and ___
contrast and resolution
lower contrast impedes what
the ability to see early breast cancer
pixel size limits ___ ___ or ___ ___
spatial resolution
image detail
in theory, with no other factors involved, the smaller the pixel size the better the ___
detail
The intersection of a column and a row in a detector forms a ____
pixel
The largest pixel size in mammography detectors is ___ ____
100 microns
Latitude is determiend by how man ___ ____ ___
bits per pixel
bits per pixel determiens the ___
contrast or shades of gray available in teh iamge
review workstations are between ___-____ bits deep
10-12
mammography detectors are __ bits deep
14
pixel depth determines
how many shades of grey will be available for the image
The aquisition workstation is the _____ computer
technologist
HIS
hospital information system
RIS
radiology information system
When patient information is entered into the computer goes into either the ____ or ___
HIS
RIS
Patient information is converted into ____ from HIS and RIS
HL7 (health level seven)
HL7
health level seven
Schedling information is used to create a worklist ___ that is sent to the mammo unit AWS
MWL
MWL
mammography worklist
window width controls the ___
contrast
window level contols the ___
brightness
RWS
review interpretation workstation
The review interpretation workstation is also known as
the radiologist workstation
The digital reading room needs to be ___ than the film reading room
analog is ___ lux or less
digital is ____ lux or less
darker
50
20
Per MQSA reading room monitors have to be a minimum of ___ megapixels
5
The newest monitors can be __,___,__ megapixels
10
11
12
Priors are retrieved in one of 3 ways
- manually retrieved
- prefetch through a broker
- autofetch through a server
Prefetched through a broker works how
triggered by scheduled usually the night before
autofetch through a server works how
triggered by first image arriving into PACS on day of exam
How were ROI marked on analog images
with a wax pencil
Digital images use ___ ___ and ___ for ROI
electronic markings and annotations
What two ways can digital images with electronic markings be stored
- as an overlay of the original image
- as a secondary capture (screen shot)
Which of the two ways is the preferred method of saving a electronically marked image
secondary capture (screenshot)
Software program desined to manage all aspects of the hospitals operations ( medical, administrative,financial,legal)
HIS (hospital information system)
a computerized database utlized to track, manipulate, and distribute patietn data and imagery
RIS (radiology information system)
A digital version of a paper chart that contains all of a patients medical history in one practice
EMR (electronic medical record)
Universal language for the storage and transmission of patient information (data) for the medical community
HL7 (health level 7)
Universal language for the storage and tramission of images for the medical community
DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine)
DICOM
digital imaging and communications in medicine
The standard for handling, storing, printing and transmitting images in medical imaging
DICOM
Enables integration of scanners, servers, workstations, printers, network hardware and PACS from multiple manufacturers
DICOM
PACS
picture archiving and communication system
What contains electronic images and reports
PACS
The universal image format for PACS is ___
DICOM
PACS consists of what 4 major components
- imaging modalities
- secured network for transmission
- workstations for interpreting and reviewing
- archives for storage
What is the purpose of data compression
allows data to be stored in a smaller package
Data compression requires less ___ and less ___ to store
space
money
Data compression allows images to move ___ over the network
faster
What are the two type of data compression
lossy compression
lossless compression
What type of compression has a greater degree of compression
lossy
what type of compression is up to 30:1 ratio
lossy
What type of compression has some data loss upon retrieval
lossy
What type of compression is not allowed for FFDM
lossy
what type of compression has a 2:1 ratio
lossless
What type of compression is the only format for FFDM
lossless compression
What type of compression has no data loss
lossless compression
CAD
computer aided detection
What are the two major roles of CAD
detection
classification
CAD is directed towards finding ____ and ___
microcalcifications
masses
What is the goal of CAD
improve mammographic sensitivity by increasing detection
What are the 4 reconstruction options
- breast reconstruction with implants
- breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue
- no reconstruction
- prophylactic surgery
Breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue is called
flaps
what is the most common type of flap surgery
tram
TRAM
transverse rectus abdominous muocutaneous
Surgical removal of one or both breasts in a woman at high risk of breast cancer to reduce her risk
prophylactic surgery
prophylactic surgery reduced risk by __ %
90%
What are 4 nonsurgical treatment options
- radiation
- brachytherapy
- systemic therapy
- proton beam therapy
Radiation uses an ___ beam
external
brachytherapy uses a ___ ____
radiation seed
What are three types of systemic therapy
chemotherapy
hormone therapy
anti-HER2 therapy
Proton beam therapy is a new type of ____ beam therapy
external
What type of therapy is most used for DCIS
radiation - external beam
Radiation- external beam can treat breast cancer at what stage
any
What are the contradintiation of radiation with an external beam
pregnancy
previous radiation to the chest
prior connective tissue disease (lupus, sclerodermas)
Radiation with an external beam is usually given ___ for how many weeks
daily
5-6 weeks
True or false
If no radiation is given, the patient has a lower chance of breast cancer recurring in the same breast
false-higher
mastectomy patients have a __ % chance of recurrance
2
The whole breast is removed
mastectomy
Radiation is indicated if the patient has a high risk of recurrence, what 4 things make a patient high risk
positive lymph nodes
tumor size > 5cm
positive margins
tumor that extends to the skin, nipple or chest wall
What therapy is 3-5 days/twice a day
brachytherapy
What therapy uses a catheter that is connected to a machine to insert a radiation seed to deliver higher dose radiation directly to the site
brachytherapy
In brachytherapy, once its complete what happens to the seed
its removed
In brachytherapy when is the catherer and balloon removed
the final day
What therpay deposits energy directly to the site and spares the surrounding tissue
proton beam therapy
What therpay can be given either via IV or oral
chemotherapy
How long is chemotherpay given
6-12 months
what is the most common anit-estrogen therapy
tamoxifen
what type of therapy is usually recommended if the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes
chemotherapy
Breast cancer tends to be more aggressive in ____ women
premenopausal
HER2 positive cancer is___ aggressive
more
what additional risks does tamoxifen carry
blood clots
uterine ca
cataracts
stroke
Hormone therapy has shown to reduce the risk of recurrence in ____ breast cancer
early
What reduces the risk of metatstic cancer growth and progression
hormonal therpay
what type of therapy has shown to strengthen bones in postmenopausal women
hormonal therapy
Hormone receptors are ___
proteins
Hormone receptors are found where
on the surface and inside some cancer cells
When hormones attach to hormone receptors it causes what
cancer to grow
ER/PR ____ tumors have many hormone receptors
positive
ER/PR ____ tumors have few to no hormone receptors
negative
Arimidex, femara, aromasin are what type of drugs
aromatase inhibitors
What do aromatase inhibitors do
reduce the amount of estrogen in the body
Aromatase inhibitors are most effective in ___ women with ER/PR ___ tumors
postemenopausal
positive
what is the most common side affect of aromatase inhibitors
joint stiffness/pain
HER2+
human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
HER2 is a ___ that stimulates cell growth
protein
HER2 is overproduced in __ -___% of breast cancer
20-25
What does herceptin do
blocks HER2 receptor overstimulation
___ ____ breast cancer is a tumor that does not have any protein receptors
triple negative
Triple negative breast cancer has a ___ diagnosis
poorer
what treatment works best for tripple negraive brest cancer
chemotherapy
Triple negative accounts for __-___% of breast cancers
10-20%
The ___ of breast cancer and the _____ of the tumor will influene prognosis
stage
grade
In the treament of early breast cancer a ____ +_____ has an equal survival rate as a ____
lumpectomy + radiation
mastectomy
Regrowth of cancer cells at the original sites
local
Cancer cells travel from original site to settle in nearby nodes
regional
Cancer cells from the original site have traveled to distant parts of the body
metastatic
whart 4 risks increase the change of recurrence
varies from person to person
characteristics of tumor
stage
treatment
BRCA 1 gene mutation occurs in ____% of hereditary cases
30%
Patients with a positive BRCA 1 gene have an increased chance of also getting ___ cancer
ovarian
Men with a positive BRCA 1 have a ___ times higher chance of ___ cancer
3
prostate
BRACA 2 gene mutation accounts for __% of hereditary cases
15%
Patients with a positve BRCA 2 gene have an _____ risk of other cancers
increased
Males with a positive BRCA 2 gene have a higher chance of ___ cancer
breast
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
What are the 7 inverventional procedures
cyst aspiration
fine needle aspiration
core biopsy
clip placement
needle localization
specimen radiography
sentinel node procedure
what are the 5 limitation to 2D imaging
- summation artifact and superimposed tissue
- malignancies hidden in glandular tissue
- false positives
- false negatives
- limited to 2D imaging
__ -___% of breast canccercs are not detected using 2D
15-30
DBT can find ___% more invasive breast cancers
41%
What are the 5 advantages of DBT
- takes multiple images from many angles
- positioning is the same as 2D
- images are perpendicular to the beam
- images are parallel to the detector
- xray tube moves in an arc taking 4-27 second images
In DBT the images are ___ to the DETECTOR
parallel
____ are the angles in degrees from the neative to the positive side
projections
____ are the images initially taken that are set by the vender
projections
___ are the number of images created from the projections to create the 3D mammogram
slices
the number of ____ depends on how much the breast is compressed in mm
slices
slices are created from ____
projections
Research indicates DBT makes it easier to detect ____ in ____ tissue
malignancies
dense
The digital images are prcessed by a computer to produce
3D images
Each projection is a small fraction of the total ___
dose
The MQSA states that each view can be what dose
3 mGy
The averge DBT dose per view is
1.81 mGy
A 2D image created from tomosynthesis is called a
synthetic 2D
Sythetic 2D is created from the 3D tomo slices and can cut 2D/3D exam dose by how much
in half
what are 5 indications for a breast ultrasound
- screening
- abnormal mammogram
- diagnostic mammogram (symptoms)
- guidance for intervention
- second look after mri
On ultrasound a lesion with well defined margins is likely
benign
On ultrasound a lesion with smooth borders is considered to be
benign
On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated is considered to be
benign
On ultrasound a lesion that is round or oval is considered to be
benign
On ultrasound a lesion that is wider than tall is considered to be
benign
Ultrasound: anechoic
no interal echoes - black
On ultrasound when there are no interal echoes (black)
anechoic
anechoic appears as what on an ultrasound
black
On ultrasound echos that are darker gray than fat
hypoechoic
hypoechoic
darker gray than fat
On ultrasound echoes that are brighter grey than fat
hyperechoic
hyperechoic
eachoes brighter gray than fat
benign lesions on ultrasound have posterior ____
posterior enhancement
A thin watery fluid, with smooth borders, anechoic, round or oval, posterior enhancement
simple cyst
Cystic and solid lesions that have thick walls and other suspicious features are not simple cysts and may need ____ or ___
aspiration
biopsy
On ultrasound a lesion that has irregular borders is considered to be
suspicious
On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated (bumpy) is considered to be
suspicious
On ultrasound a lesion that is taller than wide is considered to be
suspicious
On ultrasound a lesion that is anechoic is considered to be
benign
On ultrasound a lesion that is hypoechoic is considered to be
suspicious
On ultrasound a lesion that is angular or ill-defined margins is considered to be
suspicious
On ultrasound suspicious lesions have posterior ____
shadowing
True or false
suspicious lesion on ultrasound will show bloodflow
true
MRI can have improved ___ ___ of inconclusive masses on mammo and US
tissue contrast
Because malignancies are hypervascular _____ (the most common contrast agent) causes the malignancy to enhance
gadolinium
What are the downfalls of MRI
- expensive
- only effective in 50% of patients with DCIS
- sonographic re-evaluation is necessary
Permission granted in the knowledge of the possible consequences, typically that whcih is given by a doctor to the patient for treament with full knowledge of the possible risks and benefits
informed consent
Cyst aspiration is used for what 3 things
- testing if the cyst is not a simple cyst
- symptom releif
- eliminante mammographic masses
after a cyst aspiration, cytology fluid evaluation is only done if what
the color of the fluid is suspicious
What modality is usually used with a cyst aspiration
US
What procedure is perfoemd when a patient with an infection is not responding to antibiotics
abscess drainage
FNA
fine needle aspiration
What gauge of needle is used for a fine needle aspiration
18-25
What procedure is performed when a small needle is used to aspirate cells
fine needle aspiration
During a FNA adequate sampling is usually assured by what
bedside evaluation of the cells
True or false
during a fine needle aspiration only one pass is needed
false- multiple passes are usually needed
What is the indication for a fine needle aspiration
when small lesions are not clearly malignant
A fine needle aspiration yields ___ evaluations of cells rather than a ____ evaluation of a core
cytologic
histologic (tissue)
FNA are ___ invasive than a core biopsy
less
What are the 3 disadvantages of a fine needle biopsy
- possible false negative due to small sample size
- cytologic evaluation doesnt differentiate in situe from invasive
- not used for microcalcifications
Core biopsies (no vacuum) are done under who modality only
US
What are the 3 indications for a core biopsy
- solid lesion that need biopsied
- lesions near the chest wall
- patients with bleeding and clotting disorders
What size needle is used for core biopsies
14-16 guage
How many passes are needed for a core biopsy
3-5
what are the 3 advantages of a core biopsy
- less invasive than a surgical biopsy
- requires only a small incision
- sample volume is sufficient for histologic evaluation
A core biopsy is ___ invasive and a surgical biopsy
less
sample volume from a core biopsy is substatial for a ___ evaluation
histologic
what are the three disadvantages of a core biopsy
- risks of bleeding, infection, hematoma
- dense lesions are difficult to sample
- histologic evaluation usually take 24 hours
What is the most common type of image guided biopsy used for stereotactic, US,MR and tomo guided biopsy
vacuum assisted core biopsy
what guage needle is used for a vacuum assisted core biopsy
7-14 guage
How big of an incision is made for a vacuum assisted core biopsy
1/4 inch
How many passes are used for a vacuum core biopsy
one
What is the most common use of a stereotatic guided core biopsy
calcifications
What are the two disadvantages of a vacuum core biopsy
greater risk of bleeding, infection, hematomas
healthy tissue may be compromised
When is a clip placed in the breast
after a bx
Why is it necessary to place a clip after a biopsy
so it can continue to be surveillanced
What is the indication for a wire localization
preoperative guidance
After a wire localization what mammographic images are taken
CC and ML
Waste that has the risk of carrying infectious diseases
biohazardous waste (AKA medical waste)
During a wire localization a wire is placed ____ for pre-operative guidance
percutaneously
What is the reason for doing a sentinel node
to check for breast cancer cells spreading (metastasizing)
What nodes are taken in the sentinel node procedure
the first lymph node that drains lymph in a specific area
During a sentinal node procedure ____ ____ and ___ ____ are injected at the site of the lesion __ hours before surgery
isosulfan blue
radioactive isotopes
2
During a sentinal node procedure, a ____ ___ in surgery is used to locate the path of drainage from the tumor to the lymph nodes
gamma detector
OSHA
occupational safety and health administration
When was OSHA created
1970
Human bodily fluids, blood or unfixed tissue is known as
infectious material
An approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infections for HIV, HBV and othe rbloodborne pathogens
Universal precautions
The MQSA requires that all facilites be accredited how often
once every 3 years
MQSA accreditation must be done by a ____ approved accrediting body, certified by the ______
FDA
US department of health and human services
For ACR accreditation you must submit ___ ____ for the same 30 day perior as patient images only if it the first time for the unit
QC charts
ACR accreditation program grades your images on what 8 categories
positioning
compression
exposure
contrast
sharpness
noise
artifacts
labeling
What is the #1 reason for ACR failure
poor positioning
What is the #2 reason for ACR failure
submitting images that are not actually negative (BiRads1)
What anatomical borders are fixed
medial
superior
What anatomical borders are mobile
lateral
inferior
What are the two benefits of using the function of the anatomical borders
- minimal tissue is displaced during compression
- maximizes amount of tissue visualized
In the CC view you want to get all of the ____ tissue
posterior
In the CC view what percent of time will you see muscle
30-40%
In the CC view the PNL should be within ___ of the MLO
1cm
In the CC view the _____ space should be seen
retro-mammary
In the MLO all of the ___ tissue should be seen from the ___ to the ___
posterior
axilla
IMF
In the MLO view the _____ fat should be seen
retromammary
In the MLO the muscle should be what shape
convex
In the MLO how far down should the muscle go
to the PNL
In the MLO the ____ should be open
IMF
What tissue is not well visualized in the CC view
lateral-posterior
What tissue is not well visualized on the MLO
medial-posterior
What is the #1 reason for failures on the CC view
PNL not within 1cm of MLO view
What are the three top reasons for CC view failure
- PNL not within 1 cm of MLO
- excessive exaggeration
- skin folds or artifacts
What does a short PNL mean
that the posterior tissue is not well visualized
What are the 7 top reasons for failure of the MLO view
- poor visualization of posteriot tissue
- improper demonstration of pectoral muscle
- inadequate amount of muscle
- drooping tissue
- inadequate IMF
- breast too high on image receptor
- inadequate anterior breast compression
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a shorter/heavier person
30-40 degrees
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for an average height and weight
40-50 degrees
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a tall/slender
50-60 degrees
The correct angle is when the IR is
parallel to the pec muscle
For proper arm placement for the MLO the corner should be placed between the _____ and ____
pec muscle and latissimus
On the MLO you want the front edge of the IR at the patients
mid axillary line
Optimal compression is reached when the breast feels ____ or slightly less than painful
taut
Improper compression results in what 3 errors
poor separation of glandular tissue
unequal exposure of tissue
allows for motion
Adequate compression accomplishes what 3 things
uniform breast thickness
reduces noise
reduces unsharpness
What is the min and max compression suggestions in
pounds
newtons
decanewtons
15-27 LBS
70-120 N
2-12 DaN
Always check anterior portion is taut otherwise what will need to be done
an anterior compression view
What is the most common problem in mammography
underexposure
underexposure results in decreased radiographic _____ and when its only present in the densest part of the breast it will obscure ___ and_____
contrast
lesions
micro calcification
If an image looks “washed out” it is ____
underexposed
To determine if you image is underexposued fibroglandular tissue should look ___
gray
In mammography you want high ___ and low ___
contrast
dose
What are 8 common causes for poor contrast
- inadequate exposure
- processing deficiencies
- inadequate compression
- inappropriate target/filter material
- excessive kVp
- AEC photo cell placed wrong
- improper breast positioning
- implant or hardware in region of AEC
The ability of the mammographic system to capture fine detail in an image is called
sharpness
What are 5 causes of image unsharpness
- patient motion
- compression
- focal spot size
- increased OID
- increased SID
skin folds create air gaps resulting in ____ unsharpness
geometric
___ decreases the ability of the radiologist to recognize tiny structures like calcifications and low contrast structures
noise
Noise is mostly ____ with digital equipment and ___ to your machine
electronic
inherit
___ should be a non-isse if your QC is passing
noise
Anything we can see on a mammogrpahy image that does not reflect actual breast tissue
artifact
presence of multiple artifacts can be a sign of ____ ____
deficient QC
Other than deficient QC what are 3 other causes of artifacts
- cleanliness
- digital artifacts
- grid lines
What are 3 common artifacts
streaking/banding
ghosting
bad/dead pixel
MQSA labeling requirements include what 8 things
- pt name
- pt identifying number
- date of exam
- view name on laterality
- facility name and location
- tech ID
- cassette ID
- unit ID
What labeling recommendations does MQSA advise
-technical factors : target/filter,kvp and mas, exposure time, compressing force, compression breast thickness,degree of obliquity
What is the most common labeling deficiency
inadequate ID of the facility
EQUIP
enhancing quiality using inspection program
When MQSA asks the question “ does the facility have proceducres for corrective action when clincal images are of poor quality” they also want to know
Does the procedure have :
- ongoing feedback
- documentation of the corretive action and its efficacy
True or False
written dicumentation of clinical image review is required such as summary reports, written statement by LIP that review was done, image review meeting minutes, etc
true
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 1
IP determines image quality, may use tools such as software
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 2
IP, or designee, group, or organization under guidance of IP
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 3
LIP, or designee
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 1: Feeback and corrective action
Feedback: ongoing
Corrective Action: facilty determines approach, timeframes and retention
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 2: Image quality review
at least annual
minimum one exam per RT and IP
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 3: Oversight and corrective actions
Process should be appropriate to ensure QA/QC performed as required along with corrective action
Is a written policy needed for an of the EQUIP questions
no
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 1: imaging quality feedback and corrective action
none, only discussion
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 2: image quality review
yes
dated memo, meeting notes, report, or signed statement by LIP
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 3: QA/QC oversight and corrective action
no
LIP attestation or verbal description of the process
MQSA
mammography quality standards act
When did MQSA becorm law
october 27, 1992
Congress tasked who with developing and implementing the MQSA requirements
FDA
Interim regulation became effective when, and when did the final regulations go into affect
10/01/ 1994
04/28/1999
As of 2021 how many analog machines are left in the US
8
MQSA has what facility requirements to perform mammography
- meets quality standards for personnel, and equipment
- accredited by a FDA approved accredidation
- maintain accreditation by having an annual medical physicitst suvery and insepection done
What are the personnel requirements by the MQSA
- initial mammo training
- continuing education
- requalification
How many document hours of training must you have to be a certified
40 hours
How many exams must be under direct supervision of a MQSA qualified technologist to become certified
25
The tech must have ___ hours of training in tomo before they are able to do them
8
According to MQSA before a rad tech may independtly perform mammography using any modality in whcih the rad tech was not previsouly trained, the tech must have __ hours of training in that modality
8
What 3 type of mammography machines exist
analog
2D digital
3D digital breat tomo
The day the fully licensed xray tech completes both the __ _hours of mammogram educaton and ___ supervised mammograms, this become her qualification date as a legal mammo tech
40
8
For continuing education you need __ CE per every __ years
15
3
For continuing experience a mammo tech must have a min of ___ mammogram every ___ year
200
2
__ of the 15 CEs you need have to be in the modality that you are using
6
Your 15 continuing CE can also be used towards your ___ CE needed for ARRT
24
All personnel requirements are monitored annually upon
MQSA inspection by the MQSA inspector
Always keep copies of your mammography ___ at work
CEs
Only send your mammo CE credits to the ARRT if
you are using them toward your 24 CE required every 2 year
If you fall short on only your continuing education requirements, you only need to do the following
bring you total credits up to 15
If you fall shour on continuing experience requirements you must do the following
perform 25 supervised mammograms, perform 200 mammograms in the 1st 6 months of the new 2 year period
If the patient is a returning patient, the facility must retain imaes for a minimum of ___ years
5
If the facility has only 1 study or the last study of the patient, the facility must reatin that 1 study for a min of __ years
10
Medical reports must inlcude what 5 things
- name of facility
- name of patient
- an addition patient qualifier
- name interpreting physician
- BIRAD category
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 0
must indicate what additional imaging study is recommended
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 1 and 2
continue routine screening based on practice guidelines
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 3
Receive short interval follow up imaging exam. Must indicate exam and interval
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 4 and 5
must indicate suggested biopsy method
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 6
confirms presence of cancer after biopsy, before or during treatment
Written reports must be sent directly to the patient within __ days. If the report indicates suspicious or highly suggestive of malignancy, every atempt should be made to communicate these results within ___ days
30
5
Once a year each interpreting physician needs to aprticipate in a ___ ___
medical audit
The medical audit is confidential and reveals the following 3 categories
number of false negative (missed cancers)
number of false positives (suspected but turns out ok)
number of mammograms interpreted correctly
True or False
The facility must mainting documentation to show that control procedures are being followed and carried out
true
The facility must maintain a record of each serious complaint for __ years from the date of the complaint
3
Each facility has to establish a written and documented system for collecting and resolving consumer ____
complaints
What is the frequency of an FDA inspection
once a year
What is the purpose of an FDA inspection
The GDA or state inspetor comes into your facility and spends the day reviewing documentation and practives
What is the process of an FDA inspection
any issues are graded into one of 2 levels
During an FDA inspection level 1 is the ___ ____
most serious
During an FDA inspection a level 1 noncompliance, the facility has how logn to take the necessary corrective action and send a ___ response ot the FDA
15 working days
written
During a FDA inspection, a level 2 non-compliance, the facility has how long to take necessary corrective action and send a _____ reponse to the FDA
30 working days
written
What is the purpose of an ACR accreditation
provide facilities with peer review and feeback on staff, qaulifications, equipment, quality control, quality assurance, image quality, radiation dose etc.
What is the frequency of an ACR accreditation
every 3 years
For an ACR accreditation what 3 steps must you do
- contact ACR for application
- fill out application for each machine and send payment
- if application is accepted you have 45 days to select your best images
What images must be sent for a ACR accredidation
- fatty breast (4 images - 2 CC, 2MLO)
- dense breast (4 images)
- phantom (must be withing 30 days)
- QC charts ( from same 30 days)
The assessment of the iamges that you submit for ACR accreditation must be ____ which is a BIRAD ___
negative
1
You can get priors approval for a BIRAD ____ if you do not have enough BIRAD 1
2
During your first ACR accreditation a ___ ___ ___ must be perfomed and passed
medical physicist survey
Once the medial physicist survey is passed the ACR notifies the _____ who issies the new facility a __ ____ provisional certificate
FDA
6 month
Once your images are submitted for ACR accreditation, an out of state radiologist gradese them on what things
denisty
contrast
positioning
artifacts
Once an out of state rad grades your images for ACR accreditation he sends back your scor or ___ or ___ to the ACR
pass
fail
How many radiologists grade your images for ACR accreditation
2
During ACR accreditation if one radiologist passes you and the other fails you what happens
your images are sent to at 3rd rad
Your phantom image for ACR accreditation s scred and passed or failed by and ACR ___ ___
medical physicist
AB
accrediting body
ACR
american college of radiology
ACS
american cancer society
ADH
atypical ductal hyperplasia
ALH
atypcal lobular hyperplasia
AEC
automatic esposure control
AI
artificial intelligence
ALND
axillary lymph node dissection
AWS
acquisition workstation
BIRADS
breast imaging reporting and data system
BRCA
BReast CAncer
BUS
breast ultrasound
BSE
breast self exam
CA
corrective action
CAD
computer assisted detection
CBE
clinical breast exam
CNR
contrast to noise ration
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
DCIS
ductal carcinoma in situ
DICOM
digital imaging communication in medicine
DM
digital mammography
DMIST
digital mammographic imaging screening trial
DOB
date of birth
DQE
detective quantum efficiency
EMR
electronnic medial record
ER
estrogen receptor
EQUIP
enchancing quality using the inspection program
FFDM
full field digital mammography
FNA
fine needle aspiration
HER2
human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
HIS
hospital infomration system
HL7
health level 7
HRT
hormone replacement therpay
HTC
high transmission cellular
HVL
half value layer
IMF
inframmary fold
ID
implant displaced
IP
interpreting physician
IR
image receptor
KVP
kilovoltage peak
KEV
kilo electron volt
LCIS
lobular carcinoma in situ
LIP
lead interpreting physician
LIQ
lower inner quadrant
LOQ
lower outer quadrant
MEE
mammography equipment evaluation
M
magnification
MP
medica physicist
MQSA
mammograpahy quality standards act
MAS
millampere/second
Mrad
millirad
MGY
milligray
MOLY
molybdenum
MTF
modulation transfer function
OID
object to image receptor distance
PACS
picture archiving and communiation system
PNL
posterior nipple line
PR
progesterone receptor
QA
quality assurance
QC
quality control
RIS
radiology information system
RWS
review workstation
SBE
self breast exam
SNR
signal to noise ratio
SOD
source to image distance
TDLU
terminal ductal lobular unit
TFT
thin film transistor
TRAM
transverse rectus abdominus mycutaneous
UIQ
upper inner quadrant
UOQ
upper outer quadrant
a localized area of infection, usually very painful and common in lactating breasts
abscess
a small sac like dilation, found in glands
acinus
smallest functional unit of the breast
acini cells
a benign tumor containing glandular and fatty tissue
adenolipoma
a round or oval shaped cancer, often adhering to other tissues
adenocarcinoma
a benign tumor with gland like structures and intervening supporting stroma, usually well circumscribed tending to compress rather than invade adjacent tissue
adenoma
a benign breast change marked by an increa in proportion of glandular tissue to the other kinds of tissue in the breast. This change is not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
adenosis
fatty tissue
adipose
Use of anticancer drugs in addition to other treatments to delay or to prevent recurrence
adjuvant chemotherapy
The absensce of breast development; often also associated with the absence of pectoral muscle
amastia
a local dilation of the excretory duct, which fucntions as a reservoir for milk
ampulla
connections between structures
anastomoses
The arrangements of structures within the breast
architecture of the breast
the dark pigmented skin around the nipple
areola
any unwanted or complicating structure visible in an image which masks or is mistaken for true anatomical structure in the patient
artifact
Removal of fluid or cells from a mass or thickening by means of a hyperdermic syringe
aspriation
The condition of having abnormal cess, difference in appearance internal organization or behavior. This condition can be determined only by diagnosis of tissue ontained by biopsy. It carries an increase risk of subsequent breast cancer
atypia
Phototimes are designed to automatically provide the exposure needed to produce an adequate image
automatic exposure control system
Calculated from values of expousre in air, the xray beam, and compressed breast thickness. The max average glandular dose should be 8 milligray (0.8 rad) or less for 2 view exam on the breast is known as the ____ ____ ____
average glandular dose
the armpit or underarm area
axilla
anatomic term fo the portion of the breast adjacent to the chest wall
base of the breast
not cancerous or malignant
benign
surgical removal of a piece of tissue to be examined microscopically to diagnose disease
biopsy
breast imaging reporting and data system developed b the ACR to standardize reporting and categorizing of mammography findings and recommendations
BIRADS
The large scale mammography screening study was conceived by the american cancer society and funded by the national cancer institue. It was an effort to test the feasibility of an HIP-type mass screening program in 27 communities through the USA in teh 1970s
breast cancer detection demonstration project (BCDDP)
Inspection and palpation of breasts by a woman herself
breast self examination
disease characterized by abnormal and uncontrolled growth of cells: the resulting mass can invade and destroy surrounding normal tissue; cells can travel to other areas of the body and start new cancers
cancer
cancer or malignancy
carcinoma
pertaining to the cells or composed of cells
cellular
anticancer drugs used when cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, indicating possible spread to other parts of the body
chemotherapy
around the areola or nipple; as in incision
circum-areolar
the main supportive protein of skin, tendons and connective tissue
collagen
degenerative changes and inflammatory reactions in and among the collagenous fibers of connective tissue
collagenosis
a circumscribed carcinoma containing mucinous material
colloid carcinoma
The thin, yellowish milk secreted by the breasts right before and right after the birth of a baby. It is especially suited to the needs of the newborn
colostrum
A particular type of intraductal carcinoma, so named because lgith pressure on the cut ends of involved ducts results in the expression of a caseous material, which represents necrotic tumor inside ducts
comedocarcinoma
a plastic paddle used ot help hold the breast stationalry and eliminate blurring due to motion, to help separate structures within the breast, and to decrease the thickness of breast tissue, minimizing the amount of radiation used
compression device
the device used during mammography to flatten the breasts for more accurate xrays
compressor
A chart used to record the performance of a quality control test as a fuction of time
control chart
the range of variation on a control chart beyond which action must be taken to correct th eperformance of a quality control test
control limit
Thin fibrous septa that are irregular and poorly defined, that separate the lobules of the breast and act as suspensory ligaments of the gland
cooper ligament
any sac or capsule , normal or abnormal, containing a liquid or a semi solid material; usually harmless and can be removed by aspiration
cyst
The study of cells
cytology
xray systems designed specifically for breast imaging, providing optimum imaging geometry, a device for breast compression and low dose exposure that can produce reprodicible images of high quality
dedicated mammography equipment
the procedures tha are used to treat a disease
definitive treatment
an instrument which measures the degree of blackening of film, due ot radiation or light measuring the ratio of the light intensity incident on the film to the light intensity transmitted by the film
densitometer
a measure of the most fibrous and glandular breast tissue, which makes it more difficult to visualize on mammography; cause by normal breast tissue in younger women, individual variation in breast structures, and some benign breast changes
density of breast tissue
the formation and development of fibrous tissue, often forming adhesion
desmoplasia
mammography performed on women who, by virtue of symptoms or physical findings, are considered to have a substantial likelihood of having breast disease
diagnostic mammography
a non-invasive technique that uses ordinary light to visualize breast masses. It can detect many plarge fluid filled cysts but is still considered to be investigations for other purposes. Should not be used as a screening method
diaphanography
Surgical division or separation of tissues. In treating breast cancer, this usually refers to removal of the axillary lymph nodes and lymph vessels
dissection
In breast examination, a nodule that stands out from the surrounding breast tissue, three dimensional and different from neighboring areas
dominant lump
The amount of energy deposited per unit mass of tissue due to x-radiation
dose
a channel for transporting milk from teh lobules out to the nipple
duct/ductile
A benign breast change in which large or small ducts in teh breast become dilated and retain secretions, often leading to nipple discharge, and someimtes a lump in the nipple/areolar areas and/or nipple retraction
duct ectasia
A form of breast carcinoma in situ confied to the rbeast ducts, which often reveal itself with icrocalcifications on mammography
ductal carcinoma in situ
abnormality of development
dysplasia
located away from normal position
ectopic
accumulation of fluid in the tissue
edema
cellular covering of skin and mucous membrane. Milk ducts are lined with epithelium
epithellal
a female hormone, produced by a womans ovaries and adrenal glands
estrogen
a surgical procedure which removes all of the questionable lesion or mass
excisional biopsy
the amount of xray dose measured in the air just before the xrays enter the skin
exposure
a benign breast condition common in young women in whcih the breast develope a solid lump, either firm or soft, but usually movable in the breast
fibroadenoma
the preferred term to describe fibrocystic breast disease or chagnes, chronic custic mastitits, fibroadenoma, mastodynia mammary dysplasia, benign breast changes
fibrocystic breast condition or changes
the formation of fibrous tissue
fibrosis
diagnostic technique utlized to dianose lumps. Cells form lumps are aspirated with a skinny needle and smeared on a glass slide. The slides are stained and the pathologist will review them to make a diagnosis
fine needle aspiration
The ___ ___ ___ determines the area of the target or anode, which is bombarded by electrons from the cathode of teh xray tube to produce x-rays
focal spot size
A technique by which a tissue specimen from a biopsy is quick frozen cut into this slices stained and examined micoscopically by a pathologist for immediate report to the surgeon
frozen section
An injection of a milk duct with contrast material. Radiographic procedure in which a duct is cannulated and contrast is injected to delineate the size, site, type and extent of a pathological lesion causing nipple discharge
galactography
a set of thin lead strips spaced close to one another, interpsaced by carbon filter
grids
Excessive development of the male mammary glands, even to the functional state
gynecomastia
The thickness of a specified substance whcih when introduced into the path of a given beam of radiation, reduces the exposure rate by half
half value layer
Having a similarity of structure uniform tissue throughout a structure
homogenous
manipulation of hormones to slow the growth of breast cancer
hormone therapy
Morbid enlargement of an organ or part due to increase in size of the constituent cells
hypertrophy
The amount of radiographic density difference between adjacent areas resulting from a fixed amount of attenuation difference or light exposure difference
image contrast
the overall clarity and detail of a radiographic image
image quality
the overall impression of detail and clarity in a radiographic image
image sharpness
a procedure in which the surgeon cuts into a suspicious area and removes a small sample
incisional biopsy
confined to site of orgin, not having invaded adjoiining tissues or metastasized to other parts of the body
in situ
the part of the breast examination in which the breasts are examined visually
inspection
Being thickened, dried or rendered less fluid. Usually refers to the hardened secretions that form intraductal calcifications
inspissated
tiny rounded homogeneous or ring shaped in their appearance. These calcifications are normally benign
intradermal microcalcifications
disease in which breast cancer cells have penetrated surrounding breast tissue
invasive breast cancer
the maximum potential difference setting between anode and cathode in an xray tube
kilovoltage peak
the secretion of milk
lactation
producing of conveying milk
lactiferous
a general term for a change in tissue structure or function due to injury or other processes
lesion
a fibroma (benign) containing fatty elements
lipofibroma
a benign fatty tumor made up of fat cells
lipoma
a portion of the breast, which contains a complete unit for producing transporting and delivering milk
lobe
branching ducts terminate in the ____
lobule
provides a method for the biopsy of non palpable mammographic abnormalities
localization
a surgical procedure in which a cancerous tumor or lesion or lump is removed, leaving intact most of the remaining breast tissue
lumpectomy
small bean shaped glands scattered along the lymphatic vessels; act as filters to infection and cancer
lymph nodes
general term applied to any neo-plastic disorder of the lymphoid tissue
lymphoma
a cyst large enough to feel with the fingers
macrocyst
Interaction of body tissue with radiowaves in a magnetic field. echoes or signals form the body are continuously measured by the scanner and the computer reconstructs the echoes into images
MRI
In mammography, a technique for producing an enlarged image and greater detail of a small area of suspicious breast tissue
magnification view
cancer or carcinoma
malignant
poorly structured tissue in the breast
mammary dysplasia
plastic reconstruction of the breast
mammoplasty
surgical removal of all or part of the breast and sotmimes adjoining structures
mastectomy
inflammation of the mammary glands
mastitis
a circumscribed carcinoma named because of its fleshy appearance. The consistency is soft and can attain a relatively large size
medullary carcinoma
The detector system is placed lateral to the breast and the horizontal beam is drected from medial to lateral aspect through the breast
mediolateral view
a tumor made up of melanin pigmented cells; usually skin lesion
melanoma
The spread of cancer from teh initial tumor to other parts
metastasis
a chemical substance, one example of which is caffiene. Said to cause lumpiness and pain in the breast
methylxanthine
tiny white specks of calcium salts, which can somtiems be seen on mammograms
microcalcifications
a cyst too small to feel with the fingers
microcyst
cellular debris can incite an inflammatory response whcih can cause calcium deposition
milk of calcium
the current of electrons passing from the cathode to anode in the xray tube
milliampere setting
The product of electron current and the time over which an xray exposure is made
milliapere seconds
a surgical procedure in which the breast and the lymph nodes in teh armpit are removed while underlying chest muscles are largely left intact
modified radiacal mastectomy
a nuclear medicine technique that utlizes small semiconductor based cameras in a mammographic configuration to provide high resolution fucntion images of the breast
molecular breast imaging
visible pores or tiny lumps on the areola openings for the oil glands, which lubricate the nipple and areola during breast feeding
montgomerys (morgagnis tubercles)
removal of fluid or cells with a needle
needle aspiration
procedure where the radiologist marks a suspicious non palpable area with a needle, hookwire or dye ; assists surgeons to locate the exact area during biopsy
needl localization
formation of a neoplasm
neoplasia
new or abnormal growth; tumor
neoplasm
involves the removal of the entire breast, lymph nodes and chest wall muscle under the breast
radical mastectomy
involves the removal of the entire breast, including the nipple/areolar region and some of the under arm lymph nodes
modified radical mastectomy
involves the removal of the breast tissue, but the nipple- areolar complex remains
nipple sparring mastecomy
what type of mastecomy is used with relatively small tumors or non agressive cancers or as a prphylactic procedure
nipple sparring mastectomy
involves the removal of a health breast when the individual has a high risk factor for developing breast cancer
prophylactic mastectomy
ilvolves the removal of the malignant tumor and the margins of the surrounding normal breast tissue
lumpectomy
How many weeks of radiation is a patient given after a mastectomy
6 weeks
how soon does raidation start after a lumpectomy
1 month after surgery
chemotherapy can follow a lumpectomy to control the ___ __ of breast cancer
systemic spread
a clear fluid trapped in the wound after surgery is called
seroma
what issues can occur when lymph nodes are removed
lymphedema
what procedure removes the underarm lymph noes during a mastectomy or lumpectomy
axillary node dissection
a more conservative process revolving the removal of only 1-3 sentinel noes in the axillary area
sentinel node biopsy
the functional unit of the breast
lobules
