TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST Flashcards
The biggest risk factor for breast cancer is
(A) a family history of breast cancer
(B) a personal history of breast cancer
(C) gender
(D) not breastfeeding
(C) gender
One of the minor risk factors for breast cancer could be
(A) gender
(B) aging
(C) genetic risk factors
(D) not breastfeeding
(D) not breastfeeding
What is the approximate risk of developing breast cancer for a woman whose sister has the disease?
(A) higher than normal risk
(B) no significant change in risk
(C) lower than normal risk
(D) none of the above
(A) higher than normal risk
A woman with the greatest risk of developing breast cancer is
(A) age 30 years or below
(B) above age 50 years
(C) between ages 30 and 40 years
(D) above age 20 but below age 30 years
(B) above age 50 years
Symptoms of a possible breast disease that will not be demonstrated on the mammogram may include
(A) nipple discharge
(B) skin thickening
(C) circumscribed tumors
(D) stellate lesions
(A) nipple discharge
Symptoms of very early DCIS may include
(A) skin thickening
(B) nipple discharge
(C) macrocalcifications
(D) none of the above
(D) none of the above
Skin thickening can be malignant but could also be caused by nonmalignant factors, such as
(A) esophageal metastases
(B) bronchial cancer
(C) Hodgkin disease
(D) sarcoidosis
(D) sarcoidosis
Risks factors associated with taking hormone replacement therapy (HRT) include
(A) early menopause
(B) late menopause
(C) increased risks for birth defects
(D) increased risks for breast cancer
(D) increased risks for breast cancer
The ACS recommends that
(A) women older than 40 years should have a yearly magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(B) women younger than 40 years should have screening mammography every year
(C) new masses or lumps in the breast should be checked by a health care provider
(D) women between ages 20 and 39 years should have a CBE every year
(C) new masses or lumps in the breast should be checked by a health care provider
- A health care provider should evaluate which of the following breast changes?
- lumps or swellings
- skin irritation or dimpling
- milky discharge from the nipple
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
It is necessary for the technologist to document which of the following?
(A) edema
(B) dimpling of the skin
(C) pain
(D) all of the above
(D) all of the above
Pre-examination instructions that can be given to the patient include
(A) remove all clothing from the waist down
(B) remove deodorant
(C) remove panties
(D) A and B
(B) remove deodorant
Benefits of communication with your patient include
(A) helps identify sensitive breast and the reason for the sensitivity
(B) educates the patient
(C) reveals fears and misconceptions
(D) all of the above
(D) all of the above
In developing patient rapport, the technologist should strive to enhance the patient’s self-esteem. This means that the technologist should
(A) reflect the patient’s emotions to show understanding
(B) agree unconditionally with anything the patient says
(C) say “I understand” to any comment the patient makes
(D) offer reassurance and encouragement if the patient is confused or unable to help herself
(D) offer reassurance and encouragement if the patient is confused or unable to help herself
The two-step method of BSE is to
(A) look and feel for changes in the breast
(B) examine the breasts and undergo regular mammography
(C) check for lumps in the breast and keep a journal of changes in the breast
(D) examine the breasts and nipples
(A) look and feel for changes in the breast
The patient’s medical history and documentation will
- provide the radiologist with information on the patient’s risk factors for breast cancer
- give the radiologist information about general symptoms of breast cancer
- provide information about possible benign breast conditions of the patient
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Stressing the importance of the BSE can be controversial because
(A) BSE tends to detect only benign breast cancer
(B) BSE will help in the detection of malignant breast conditions
(C) mammography is not 100% effective
(D) BSE can cause unnecessary anxiety in women
(D) BSE can cause unnecessary anxiety in women
Which of the following are methods used in BSE?
- using the pads of the three middle fingers to palpate the entire breast
- palpating around the breast in a vertical pattern
- using varying degrees of pressure while palpating of the breast
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is true?
- Breast cancer death rates in the United States are going down.
- Breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths among women in the United States.
- The second leading cause of cancer-related deaths among women in the United States is breast cancer.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Postmenopausal obesity is associated with
(A) a relatively high risk of developing breast cancer
(B) overall reduction in breast cancer risks
(C) circulating estrogen that is produced in fatty tissue
(D) a lower overall estrogen level
(C) circulating estrogen that is produced in fatty tissue
In routine mammography, the glandular dose per projection is generally about
(A) 1–2 mGy (0.1–0.2 rad)
(B) 10–20 mGy (1.0–2.0 rad)
(C) 0.1–0.2 mGy (0.01–0.02 rad)
(D) 2–3 mGy (0.2–0.3 rad)
(A) 1–2 mGy (0.1–0.2 rad)
Which age group is likely to get the most radiation dose during mammography?
(A) 20 to 35 years
(B) 40 to 50 years
(C) 55 to 60 years
(D) above 70 years
(A) 20 to 35 years
The 5-year survival rate for a patient with stage 0 breast cancer is about:
(A) 22%
(B) 72%
(C) 93%
(D) 100%
(D) 100%
During mammography, which of the following will affect the average glandular dose per breast?
- degree of breast compression
- the half-value layer (HVL) of the x-ray beam
- breast size and composition
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Patients who are allowed to play an active role in applying compression are usually
- less likely to tolerate the compression
- more likely to tolerate the compression
- more relaxed during the compression
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
In breast imaging, the dose calculation is based on
(A) the entrance skin dose
(B) dose absorbed by the glandular tissue of the breast
(C) the average skin dose
(D) chest wall radiation dose
(B) dose absorbed by the glandular tissue of the breast
What is the purpose of requesting the patient to provide prior mammograms before starting the mammogram examination?
(A) to see if the patient has breast cancer
(B) to assess the exposure technique
(C) to provide the radiologist with an additional aid
(D) to verify the correct patient
(C) to provide the radiologist with an additional aid
The age of a woman taking HRT is likely to be:
(A) under 40 years
(B) 25 to 35 years
(C) over 40 years
(D) under 20 years
(C) over 40 years
The term primipara refers to a woman who
(A) has had multiply pregnancies
(B) was pregnant once but lost the baby at 6 weeks
(C) carried a pregnancy to over 20 weeks but had a stillbirth
(D) was never pregnant
(C) carried a pregnancy to over 20 weeks but had a stillbirth
In mammography, information included on the medical history documentation includes which of the following as they relate to the breast?
- patient’s history of trauma
- history of surgery
- unusual skin condition
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
All of the following are forms of subjective patient data except
(A) patient has a palpable lump in the right breast
(B) patient complains of severe pain during breast compression
(C) the mood or demeanor of the patient
(D) patient’s complaints of pain and tenderness in the left breast
(A) patient has a palpable lump in the right breast
When questioning a patient to obtain an accurate patient history
(A) keep questions general in nature so as not to offend the patient
(B) start with open-ended questions and then follow up with more direct inquiries
(C) do not let the patient talk too much in order to keep the examination moving
(D) use medical “jargon” to impress the patient with your expertise
(B) start with open-ended questions and then follow up with more direct inquiries
Which of the following are positive questioning skills that the radiographer can use when verifying the accuracy of patient information?
(A) leading questions
(B) open-ended questions
(C) repeating information
(D) facilitation
(C) repeating information
What is the purpose of “probing” questions used when interviewing patients?
(A) clarifies information by asking for specific details
(B) gives the patient time to remember details
(C) allows the patient time to tell his or her story
(D) summarizes the accuracy of the information
(A) clarifies information by asking for specific details
In gathering more information on a patient’s complaint of pain, a good probing question to ask would be
(A) “How would you describe the pain?”
(B) “When did the pain first occur?”
(C) “If the pain comes and goes, how often does it occur, and what is the time span between occurrences?”
(D) All of the above are good questions to ask.
(C) “If the pain comes and goes, how often does it occur, and what is the time span between occurrences?”
There are two types of data collection processes. If your patient says he or she has a bruise on the left breast, this information is regarded as
(A) objective
(B) subjective
(C) open-ended scenario
(D) probing
(A) objective
When questioning your patient, what is the purpose of repetition?
(A) to give the patient time to remember details
(B) to get more detail
(C) to summarize
(D) to allow the patient to tell his or her story
(C) to summarize
“Where is your pain?” is an example of
(A) a probing question
(B) repetition
(C) summarization
(D) an open-ended question
(D) an open-ended question
Which of the following will not result in increased breast cancer risks?
(A) having a mother who took diethylstilbestrol (DES) while pregnant
(B) having a first child before age 30 years
(C) history of Hodgkin lymphoma
(D) menarche at age 10 years
B
An informed consent is required before performing which of the following examination?
(A) ultrasonography
(B) mammography
(C) fine-needle biopsy (FNB)
(D) MRI
(C) fine-needle biopsy (FNB)
Phone consent is an example of
(A) written consent
(B) oral consent
(C) implied consent
(D) expressed consent
(B) oral consent
The patient has to sign an informed consent
- when there are significant risks associated with the procedure or test
- for all diagnostic examinations in the imaging department
- if the procedure is invasive
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
B
- Which kind of consent is binding but difficult to prove?
(A) oral
(B) written
(C) implied
(D) printed
(A) oral
Which of the following is not required information that must be included on any informed consent?
(A) name of the procedure
(B) risks and benefits of the procedure
(C) patient height and weight
(D) possible alternative procedure
(C) patient height and weight
Methods of acknowledging the patient and treating the patient courteously can included all of the following except
(A) using greetings (good morning, good afternoon, etc.)
(B) avoiding eye contact
(C) giving your full attention
(D) introducing yourself
(B) avoiding eye contact
Two disadvantages of mammography screening include
- the granularity of the breast can impact visualization of cancers
- mammography will not image all cancers
- the radiation dose from mammography is dangerous
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
The glandular dose is
(A) received on the skin of the breast
(B) the significant background dose recorded by ultrasonography
(C) associated with dose to the radiosensitive cells of the breast
(D) a record of the dose to the gonads
(C) associated with dose to the radiosensitive cells of the breast
Having a dense breast will
(A) increase the risk of breast cancer
(B) reduce the risk of breast cancer
(C) result in breast cancer
(D) help combat breast cancer
(A) increase the risk of breast cance
The technologist should review the previous mammography report to
(A) verify the physician’s signature
(B) verify the technologist’s initials
(C) provide the radiologist an additional aid
(D) confirm the type of exam (screen or diagnostic) needed
(D) confirm the type of exam (screen or diagnostic) needed
Why should the patient remove deodorant before mammography?
Deodorant can mimic malignant calcifications.
Preoperative localization will
- direct the surgeon to the area requiring biopsy
- help the surgeon excise a smaller specimen
- ensure that the correct area is removed
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The specimen is compressed to reduce
(A) motion unsharpness
(B) radiation exposure
(C) tissue thickness
(D) magnification factor
(C) tissue thickness
Which procedure is performed to obtain cellular material from a suspicious area for cytological analysis?
(A) ductography
(B) needle localization
(C) pneumocystography
(D) fine needle biopsy (FNB)
(D) fine needle biopsy (FNB)
The core biopsy technique was developed as an alternative to surgical biopsy because this technique provided a larger sample of the area of suspicion and thus more information than
(A) ductography
(B) needle localization
(C) pneumocystography
(D) FNB
(D) FNB
Ultrasonography of a lesion showed a spherical mass with smooth regular borders, anechoic interior, and acoustic enhancement. The lesion is likely to be a
(A) fibroadenoma
(B) abscess
(C) simple cyst
(D) ductal carcinoma
(C) simple cyst
In ultrasonography, the term acoustic enhancement refers to
(A) a structure without internal echoes
(B) a structure with internal echoes
(C) the amount of sound passing through an anechoic structure
(D) few echoes within a structure
(C) the amount of sound passing through an anechoic structure
A procedure whereby the lactiferous duct is cannulated and a small amount of contrast agent is injected into the duct is termed
(A) ductography
(B) needle localization
(C) pneumocystography
(D) FNA
(A) ductography
A patient underwent ultrasonography, which confirmed the presence of a cyst in the breast. The radiologist wished to assess the contents of the cyst. What additional study could be recommended?
(A) ductography
(B) needle localization
(C) pneumocystography
(D) FNA
(D) FNA
Biopsy performed using a 14-gauge needle to remove tissue samples from the breast is termed
(A) core biopsy
(B) cytology
(C) ductography
(D) aspiration
(A) core biopsy
Stereotactic breast localization is used to
(A) obtain two-dimensional information on palpable breast lesions
(B) calculate the vertical position of nonpalpable lesions
(C) obtain a three-dimensional image of the breast
(D) calculate the horizontal, vertical, and depth of nonpalpable lesions
(D) calculate the horizontal, vertical, and depth of nonpalpable lesions
Which of the following biopsy techniques is most accurate?
(A) FNB
(B) open surgical biopsy
(C) core biopsy
(D) MRI core biopsy
(B) open surgical biopsy
In general, the optimal duration of tamoxifen treatment is
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
(D) 5 years
“Lumpectomy” describes the process of
(A) removing the entire breast, including the nipple
(B) removing the breast cancer tumor and margins of surrounding normal breast tissue
(C) making a small incision over or near the site of the breast lesion
(D) removing benign lumps from the breast
(B) removing the breast cancer tumor and margins of surrounding normal breast tissue
Radiation therapy can be used
- with other treatment options
- to kill any remaining cancer cells in the breast or the chest wall area
- to shrink the size of a tumor before surgery
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Chemotherapy comprises a class of drugs that can be used to
(A) kill cancer cells in other parts of the body
(B) block estrogen from cancer cells
(C) reduce estrogen levels in the body
(D) kill cancer cells by using high-energy radiation
(A) kill cancer cells in other parts of the body
Breast reconstruction can involve the placement of small fluid-filled sacs behind the pectoral muscle. Two common types of such implants are
(A) saline and flap surgery
(B) TRAM flap and silicone implant
(C) silicone or saline implants
(D) saline-filled implant and latissimus dorsi flap implant
(C) silicone or saline implants
Chemotherapy
(A) involves the use of drugs to treat cancer that may have spread
(B) is the destruction of cancer cells using estrogen receptor drugs
(C) involves mapping the area around a tumor with the injection of a radioactive tracer
(D) is the removal of the cancerous tissue from the breast
(A) involves the use of drugs to treat cancer that may have spread
A process of removing tissue and fat from the abdomen and transferring that tissue to reconstruct the breast is called
(A) deep inferior epigastric perforator (DIEP) flap
(B) latissimus dorsi flap
(C) Transverse rectus abdominus myocutaneous (TRAM) flap
(D) transverse upper gracilis (TUG) flap
(A) deep inferior epigastric perforator (DIEP) flap
Antiestrogen drugs, such as tamoxifen, can be used to
- slow or stop the cancer’s growth
- prevent breast cancer in high-risk women
- prevent the recurrence of breast cancer
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
MRI
(A) uses the complex magnetic properties of elements
(B) explores the behavior of liquids or solids in metal
(C) images the patient in less than 15 minutes
(D) is less sensitive than mammography
(A) uses the complex magnetic properties of elements
Most of the risks of MRI of the breast are associated with
(A) the magnetic properties of the patient
(B) ferromagnetic metals
(C) technologist errors
(D) radiologist errors
(B) ferromagnetic metals
In breast cancer staging, the patient was rated N1. This means that
(A) the cancer has not spread beyond the breast
(B) the cancer is confined to one or two lymph nodes
(C) the patient has a small tumor
(D) there is no evidence of metastasis
(B) the cancer is confined to one or two lymph nodes
Cyst aspiration describes the removal of
(A) a sample of the content of a cyst for biopsy
(B) cell samples taken from a cyst for analysis
(C) fluid from a cyst
(D) any mass from the breast
(C) fluid from a cyst
If a breast lesion is seen only on breast ultrasonography, which modality should be used when performing a biopsy of the lesion?
(A) mammography
(B) ultrasonography
(C) MRI
(D) nuclear imaging
(B) ultrasonography
A pathology review is
(A) a method of tracking and reviewing all positive findings
(B) a process of eliminating all positive findings
(C) a method of tracking cosmetic intervention
(D) a process of identifying all cancers
(A) a method of tracking and reviewing all positive findings
The technique whereby contrast is injected into the ducts to check for an abnormality is called
(A) augmentation
(B) ductography
(C) biopsy
(D) mammoplasty
(B) ductography
A process by which the breast size is increased using implants is called
(A) augmentation mammoplasty
(B) ductography
(C) needle biopsy
(D) needle aspiration
(A) augmentation mammoplasty
The removal of one to three axillary nodes for testing is included in a/an
(A) axillary node dissection
(B) sentinel node mapping
(C) sentinel node biopsy
(D) lumpectomy
(C) sentinel node biopsy
Specimen radiography confirms that
(A) a biopsy is not necessary
(B) the patient has no malignancy
(C) the patient needs a mastectomy
(D) the suspected lesion is in the tissue that was removed
(D) the suspected lesion is in the tissue that was removed
Which of the following are side effects of radiation treatment?
- loss of appetite
- fatigue
- heaviness of the breast
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
A big advantage of brachytherapy over traditional radiation therapy treatments is
(A) reduced time of treatment
(B) ability of brachytherapy to treat larger tumors
(C) ability to give more radiation to healthy tissue
(D) more convenience because of the longer treatment times
(A) reduced time of treatment
The side effects of chemotherapy include
(A) nausea and or vomiting
(B) reduced white blood cell (WBC) count
(C) none of the above
(D) A and B
(D) A and B
What is tamoxifen treatment?
(A) an adjuvant therapy using drugs to reduce the risk of certain cancers
(B) a drug regimen that will effectively block certain hormones in the body
(C) an external method of killing cancer cells
(D) the removal of all cancer cells from the body, thereby reducing cancer risks
(A) an adjuvant therapy using drugs to reduce the risk of certain cancers
Which of the following biopsy techniques is the most accurate?
(A) FNB
(B) core biopsy
(C) stereotactic breast biopsy
(D) open surgical biopsy
(D) open surgical biopsy
Which of the following is the least expensive and least invasive method of breast biopsy?
(A) FNB
(B) core biopsy
(C) open surgical biopsy
(D) stereotactic breast biopsy
(A) FNB
A technique used to assess and evaluate nipple discharge by checking for defects or wall irregularity is called
(A) ductography
(B) interventional radiography
(C) aspiration biopsy
(D) lumpectomy
(A) ductography
“Neoadjuvant chemotherapy” refers to treatment
(A) before surgery to help shrink the size of cancerous tumors
(B) after mastectomy to slow the growth of cancer
(C) before surgery utilizing an antiestrogen drug
(D) after surgery that involves radiation
(A) before surgery to help shrink the size of cancerous tumors
Preoperative localization is
(A) stereotactic breast localization of a palpable abnormality
(B) used to locate palpable breast lesions
(C) a technique used to locate nonpalpable lesions
(D) checking of tissue for malignancy
(C) a technique used to locate nonpalpable lesions
A biopsy technique that often requires the presence of a cytological technologist is
(A) open surgical biopsy
(B) core biopsy
(C) stereotactic breast biopsy
(D) FNB
(D) FNB
“Cosmetic intervention” is
- breast reconstruction after treatment for breast cancer
- surgical reconstruction of the breast at the patient’s request
- breast augmentation for personal reasons
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
The side effects of chemotherapy are related to the effect of the drug on
(A) all tissues and organs in the body
(B) cancer cells only
(C) the growth of cancer
(D) hair follicles only
(A) all tissues and organs in the body
Any size tumor with cancer spread to chest wall and/or skin of breast and up to 10 axillary or clavicular lymph nodes is describes as stage
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(C) 3
Which of the following are contraindications for lumpectomy?
- previous lumpectomy
- multiple cancer sites in one breast
- large tumors in a small breast
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The staging of cancer will determine
- if the cancer is invasive
- the exact tumor size
- if the cancer has spread to distant sites
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
In breast cancer staging, the patient was rated T1. This means that
(A) the cancer has not spread beyond the breast
(B) the cancer is confined to one or two lymph nodes
(C) the patient has a small tumor
(D) there is no evidence of metastasis
(C) the patient has a small tumor
A lesion located in the upper-outer quadrant of the right breast is located in the
(A) 2 o’clock position
(B) 5 o’clock position
(C) 7 o’clock position
(D) 10 o’clock position
(D) 10 o’clock position
Morgagni tubercles are usually found
(A) on the nipple
(B) on the lateral border of the breast
(C) in the terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU)
(D) on the areola
(D) on the areola
An inverted nipple
(A) always indicates breast cancer
(B) sometimes indicates breast cancer
(C) never indicates breast cancer
(D) usually indicates breast cancer
(B) sometimes indicates breast cancer
The most mobile margins of the breast are the
(A) medial and lateral aspects
(B) inferior and superior aspects
(C) medial and superior aspects
(D) inferior and lateral aspects
(D) inferior and lateral aspects
The normal breast may have
(A) 0–5 lobes
(B) 15–20 lobes
(C) 30–40 lobes
(D) 340–350 lobes
(B) 15–20 lobes
The structure that supports the breast and contributes to breast shape is called
(A) Montgomery ligament
(B) Cooper ligament
(C) fibroglandular tissue
(D) fatty tissue
(B) Cooper ligament
The breast extends vertically from the
(A) first through the ninth rib
(B) second through the tenth rib
(C) second through the sixth rib
(D) third through the tenth rib
(C) second through the sixth rib
The thickest skin portion of the breast is at the
(A) areola
(B) nipple
(C) tail of Spence
(D) inframammary crease
(C) tail of Spence
Cooper ligaments attach anteriorly to the
(A) deep fascia of the lobes
(B) fascia of the skin
(C) posterior surface of the breast
(D) connective and supporting stroma
(B) fascia of the skin
Fatty tissue is generally _______ and is seen on the mammogram as areas of _______ optical density.
(A) radiolucent/lower
(B) radiopaque/higher
(C) radiolucent/higher
(D) radiopaque/lower
(C) radiolucent/higher
Typically, a patient with dense fibrous and glandular tissue throughout the entire breast on a baseline mammogram is
(A) age 20 years or younger
(B) between ages 50 and 60 years
(C) above age 70 years
(D) below age 45 years
(D) below age 45 years
Glandular tissue is usually found in the _______ of the breast.
(A) medial and lower-inner quadrant
(B) central and upper-outer quadrant
(C) medial and lower-outer quadrant
(D) central and upper-inner quadrant
(B) central and upper-outer quadrant
Immediately behind the nipple, there is a widened area of the collecting duct called the
(A) lactiferous sinus
(B) ampulla acinus
(C) TDLU
(D) segmental duct
(A) lactiferous sinus
The portion of the breast that holds the milk-producing element is the
(A) ampulla
(B) segmental duct
(C) lobule
(D) lactiferous sinus
(C) lobule
Veins are normally located
(A) in the periphery of the breast
(B) in the central areas of the breast
(C) in the axillary area of the breast
(D) in the medial areas of the breast
(A) in the periphery of the breast
The TDLU consists of the
(A) mammary ducts and the extralobular terminal ducts (ETDs)
(B) intralobular terminal duct (ITD) and the segmental ducts
(C) the ETDs and the lactiferous ducts
(D) both the ETDs and the ITDs
(D) both the ETDs and the ITDs
A patient began taking synthetic hormones 6 months prior to her current mammography. The mammography result is most likely to
(A) be unchanged from the previous year
(B) show increased glandular tissue when compared with her previous result
(C) show decreased glandular tissue compared with her previous result
(D) show increased fatty tissue compared with her previous result
(B) show increased glandular tissue when compared with her previous result
A baseline mammogram shows that the patient’s breast consists primarily of adipose tissue. This patient is most likely to be
(A) on hormone therapy
(B) above age 60 years
(C) below age 20 years
(D) between ages 35 and 40 years
(B) above age 60 years
A patient is to undergo routine baseline mammography, but it is determined that the woman is lactating. What should be done, and why?
(A) Lactating breasts are extremely sensitive to compression; mammography should be postponed.
(B) Mammogram should be performed; radiation has no effect on lactation.
(C) Although lactating breasts are extremely dense, mammography should not be rescheduled.
(D) Lactation results in increased glandularity; mammography should be postponed.
(D) Lactation results in increased glandularity; mammography should be postponed.
The craniocaudal mammograms of a patient prior to menopause and 1 year after the onset of menopause are compared. The woman has never taken synthetic hormones. What is the most likely difference?
(A) The mammogram taken prior to menopause shows signs of atrophy.
(B) The mammogram taken after the onset of menopause shows signs of atrophy.
(C) There will be little or no change in the glandularity of the breast.
(D) The mammogram taken after menopause will show increased glandularity.
(B) The mammogram taken after the onset of menopause shows signs of atrophy.
Hormone replacement therapy could be recommended to
- relieve insomnia symptoms
- prevent osteoporosis
- reduce weight gain
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
A woman is referred to as “nullipara.” This means
(A) she has never given birth to a viable offspring
(B) the woman has had only one child
(C) the woman has given birth to more than 1 viable offspring
(D) she carried a pregnancy past the point of viability regardless of the outcome
(A) she has never given birth to a viable offspring
An asymptomatic patient presents with an oval, lobulated tumor with unsharp margins. There is no evidence of a halo sign.
(A) If the lesion is also radiolucent it is likely to be benign.
(B) The lesion could be malignant.
(C) All oval lesions are benign.
(D) The absence of a halo indicates malignancy.
(B) The lesion could be malignant.
The tumor is characteristic of
(A) ductal carcinoma in situ
(B) a mammographically malignant tumor
(C) a mammographically benign tumor
(D) a low optical density tumor typical of benign lesions
(B) a mammographically malignant tumor
The calcifications seen have the typcal appearance of
(A) mammographically malignant–type calcifications.
(B) calcifications typical of galactoceles
(C) calcifications typical of an oil cyst
(D) calcified microhematomas
(A) mammographically malignant–type calcifications
Characteristics of a malignant stellate tumor include which of the following?
- The spicules are generally bunched together.
- A central tumor mass is present.
- The larger the tumor, the longer are the spicules.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
- The calcifications seen have the typical appearance of
(A) an oil cyst
(B) plasma cell mastitis calcification
(C) a small calcified hematoma
(D) a calcified sebaceous gland
(A) an oil cyst
- Postoperative scarring
- can sometimes be mistaken for carcinoma
- has a solid dense central tumor
- is usually not associated with skin thickening or dimpling over the lesion
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
A mammogram shows a low optical density radiopaque tumor. The tumor is oval and lobulated, and a halo is seen along one border only. The next step should be
(A) pneumocystography
(B) ultrasonography
(C) biopsy
(D) no further testing, as the tumor is benign
(B) ultrasonography
A galactocele
(A) is always radiolucent
(B) is usually associated with trauma
(C) is associated with nursing
(D) usually has irregular borders
(C) is associated with nursing
A lipoma
(A) is generally seen as a high optical density radiopaque lesion on the mammogram
(B) can be a huge encapsulated lesion occupying the entire breast
(C) may have irregular borders typical of malignant lesions
(D) is usually difficult to image mammographically
(B) can be a huge encapsulated lesion occupying the entire breast
A rare form of cancer that presents with swelling, warmth, or erythema and mammographically with skin thickening describes
(A) inflammatory carcinoma
(B) invasive ductal carcinoma
(C) invasive lobular carcinoma
(D) papillary carcinoma
(A) inflammatory carcinoma
Sometimes described as an oil cyst, this lesion represents an encapsulated area on the mammogram and can be caused by surgery, biopsy, trauma, or radiation therapy.
(A) stellate lesion
(B) galactocele
(C) fat necrosis
(D) lipoma
(C) fat necrosis
A benign, self-limiting breast tumor that is the result of new disorganized cell growth is a(n)
(A) sarcoma
(B) radial scar
(C) invasive lobular carcinoma
(D) hamartoma
(D) hamartoma
An infusaport can be used to
(A) provide radiation therapy treatment
(B) allow repeated access to the venous system
(C) infuse radioactive tracers directly into the breast lesion
(D) infuse radioactive isotopes directly into the arterial system
(B) allow repeated access to the venous system
The low optical density radiopaque lesion seen are characteristic of a
(A) benign fibroadenoma
(B) skin mole
(C) galactocele
(D) keratosis
(B) skin mole
The calcifications seen are characteristic of
(A) a definite malignant
(B) benign skin calcifications
(C) benign calcifications but further tests are needed
(D) dermal calcifications
(C) benign calcifications but further tests are needed
The circular mixed radiopaque/radiolucent lesions seen are characteristic of
(A) calcified microhematomas
(B) galactocele, calcified
(C) malignant calcification
(D) epidermoid cyst
(D) epidermoid cyst
What target–filtration combination in analog imaging provides the best penetration for dense or thick breast?
(A) molybdenum target with molybdenum filtration
(B) rhodium target with rhodium filtration
(C) tungsten target with tungsten filtration
(D) molybdenum target with appropriate K-edge filtration
(B) rhodium target with rhodium filtration
The material used for the exit port of the mammography tube is necessary because
(A) the intensity of the beam is less on the anode side than on the cathode side
(B) regular glass would harden the emerging beam
(C) the intensity of the beam is more on the anode side than on the cathode side
(D) regular glass would soften the emerging beam
(B) regular glass would harden the emerging beam
The intensity of the x-ray beam from the cathode side of the tube is generally higher because
(A) soft characteristic radiation emerges from the anode side
(B) the cathode side is directed to the thickest part of the breast
(C) the heel effect causes variation in the intensity of the x-ray beam
(D) the heel effect increases the intensity of the beam at the anode side
(C) the heel effect causes variation in the intensity of the x-ray beam
The design of the lip of the compression paddle (both height and angle along the chest wall) affects all of the following except
(A) prevents the posterior and axillary fat from overlapping the body of the breast
(B) allows uniform compression of the posterior breast tissue
(C) helps increase structural strength of the compression paddle
(D) ensures greater compression of the anterior breast tissue
(D) ensures greater compression of the anterior breast tissue
The primary goal of compression is to
(A) reduce the object-to-image receptor distance (OID) of the lesion
(B) allow uniform penetration of structures within the breast
(C) reduce the possibility of motion during the exposure
(D) reduce the radiation dose to the breast
(B) allow uniform penetration of structures within the breast
What features of the high-transmission cellular grid allow these grids to maintain equal or less radiation dose to the patient compared with linear grids?
(A) These grids use lead as the strips and wood as the interspace material.
(B) They have copper as the strips and air as the interspace material.
(C) They use aluminum as the strips and air as the interspace material.
(D) They use wood as the strips and copper as the interspace material.
(B) They have copper as the strips and air as the interspace material.
The grid ratio can vary in modern mammography units. A common grid ratio used is
(A) 8:1
(B) 6:1
(C) 4:1
(D) 2:1
(C) 4:1
The chest wall edge of the compression paddle should be aligned just beyond the chest wall edge of the detector to
(A) avoid pushing the patient’s chest away and losing breast tissue
(B) properly position and compress the breast
(C) permit uniform exposure and reduce patient discomfort
(D) avoid projecting the chest wall edge of the paddle on the mammogram
(D) avoid projecting the chest wall edge of the paddle on the mammogram
Which of the following affects focal spot size?
(A) angle of the anode
(B) a decrease in the source-to-image receptor distance (SID)
(C) decreasing the size of the collimated beam
(D) changing the relationship between the OID and the SID
(A) angle of the anode
In mammography, the commonly used focal spot size for routine work is
(A) 3 mm
(B) 0.3 mm
(C) 1 mm
(D) 0.1 mm
(B) 0.3 mm
Which of the following mammography quality control tests is performed as needed?
(A) phantom images quality
(B) visual checklist
(C) repeat analysis
(D) Mammography Equipment Evaluation (MEE)
(C) repeat analysis
What is the compression thickness indicator test?
(A) a check of the minimum and maximum compression force on automatic compression
(B) a check of the minimum and maximum compression force on manual compression
(C) a check of the indicated compression thickness
(D) a check of the compression on the breast
(C) a check of the indicated compression thickness
A check to ensure that the lead interpreting radiologist is aware of all quality control (QC) tests are being performed at their required frequency is
(A) visual check list
(B) facility QC review
(C) MEE test
(D) monitor QC
(B) facility QC review
A technologist test that is performed semi-annually is
(A) phantom image test
(B) visual check list
(C) compression force test
(D) repeat analysis
(C) compression force test
Repeats are
(A) images taken during a breast stereo-localization
(B) images used for QC
(C) images that involve exposure to the patient
(D) all discarded images
(C) images that involve exposure to the patient
If the patient volume at a mammography site is 250 patients per week, the repeat/reject analysis could be performed every
(A) week
(B) 2 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 3 months
(D) 3 months
Mammography facilities can receive certification from
- the ACR
- the FDA
- a State-as-Certifiers (SAC) state
(A) 1 or 2 only
(B) 2 or 3 only
(C) 1 or 3 only
(D) 1, 2, or 3
(B) 2 or 3 only
Aluminum filtration is likely to be matched with __________ targets.
(A) molybdenum
(B) rhodium
(C) tungsten
(D) beryllium
(C) tungsten
Which of the following visual checklist tests must be performed before clinical use?
(A) Paddles/face shield must not be cracked.
(B) Indicators must be working correctly.
(C) C-arm motion must be smooth.
(D) Collimator light must be working.
(A) Paddles/face shield must not be cracked.
Digital images are printed using
(A) dry laser technology
(B) computer monitor
(C) photostimulable phosphor (PSP) technology
(D) red-light spectrum emitting lasers
(A) dry laser technology
A single binary digit of data, such as “0” or “1,” is called a
(A) pixel
(B) matrix
(C) bit
(D) byte
(C) bit
In general, greater magnification will require the use of a
(A) larger focal spot size
(B) smaller OID
(C) smaller focal spot
(D) larger SID
(C) smaller focal spot
A grid is not necessary during magnification because
(A) grid use decreases spatial resolution
(B) the small focal spot used will compensate for the loss of image detail
(C) the large OID produces the same effect as a grid
(D) magnification will magnify the normally invisible grid line
(C) the large OID produces the same effect as a grid
The air gap in magnification allows increase subject contrast by
(A) increasing scatter
(B) reducing scatter
(C) reducing motion
(D) increasing motion
(B) reducing scatter
If the magnification mammography is performed without using a small focal spot, the resulting image will be magnified
(A) and blurred
(B) and sharply outlined
(C) with increased subject contrast
(D) with increased detail
(A) and blurred
At higher magnification factors there is
- higher skin dose
- increased scatter
- decrease source-to-object distance (SOD)
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Magnification is beneficial in all of the following situations except
(A) imaging the surgical site of a patient undergoing a lumpectomy
(B) imaging a specimen radiograph
(C) evaluating microcalcifications in a lesion
(D) imaging the entire breast in a single exposure
(D) imaging the entire breast in a single exposure
Using a small focal spot size is recommended for magnification
(A) to compensate for the loss of image detail
(B) because of increased patient dose
(C) to compensate for the small OID
(D) to compensate for motion unsharpness
(A) to compensate for the loss of image detail
The greatest disadvantage of magnification is
(A) increased OID
(B) increased patient dose
(C) decreased subject contrast
(D) increased risk of motion unsharpness
(B) increased patient dose
If the backup time stops a breast exposure, the technologist can repeat the radiograph using a
(A) higher peak kilovolt (kVp) setting
(B) greater density compensation
(C) higher milliampere second (mAs) setting
(D) different automatic exposure control (AEC) setting
(A) higher peak kilovolt (kVp) setting
The type of x-rays created from displacement of K-shell–binding electrons in the molybdenum atom are called
(A) coherent scattering
(B) characteristic radiation
(C) Compton effect
(D) Bremsstrahlung radiation
(B) characteristic radiation
The function of the filter in mammography is to remove
(A) low-energy x-rays that would result in increased skin dose
(B) all low-energy photons
(C) low-energy x-rays needed to produce the breast image
(D) photon energies above and below the range needed for breast imaging
(D) photon energies above and below the range needed for breast imaging
A recommended labeling for the mammographic image that is not required by the Mammography Quality Standard Act (MQSA) is
(A) technologist identification
(B) date of service
(C) technical factors
(D) name of patient
(C) technical factors
Lack of breast compression is most likely to cause
(A) geometric unsharpness
(B) plate reader artifact
(C) motion unsharpness
(D) printer artifact
(C) motion unsharpness
How long should a facility maintain records of serious complaints?
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
(C) 3 years
Which of the following can require the use of a densitometer?
(A) film printer test
(B) phantom test
(C) acquisition workstation monitor (AWS) test
(D) compression thickness indicator
(A) film printer test
Which of the following system is likely to have a slit collimator system instead of a grid?
(A) flat-panel detector tomosynthesis imaging systems
(B) PSP imaging systems
(C) any magnification mammography system
(D) microdose photon-counting systems
(D) microdose photon-counting systems
Aluminum is used as the filtration in
(A) digital breast tomosynthesis tubes with tungsten targets
(B) tungsten target digital mammography tubes
(C) rhodium target digital mammography tubes
(D) analog mammography tubes
(A) digital breast tomosynthesis tubes with tungsten targets
- The detector element is located in the
(A) imaging plate (IP)
(B) flat-panel detector
(C) thin film transistor
(D) AEC
(C) thin film transistor
- Which of the follwing statements on detector elements is incorrect?
(A) The detector element size controls the spatial resolution of the system
(B) The size of the detector element can be controlled by the technologist
(C) After reading the detector element, the flat-panel detector automatically erases
(D) The larger the detector element in a flat-panel detector, the more the image blurs
(B) The size of the detector element can be controlled by the technologist
To allow full coverage of the detector, a tube with a 16 degree anode angle requires a tube tilt of about ____ degrees to achieve an effective anode angle of 22 degrees
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(C) 6
The monitor used to interpret the mammogram is the
(A) acquisition workstation monitor
(B) liquid crystal display (LCD) monitor
(C) AWS monitor
(D) review workstation (RWS) monitor
(D) review workstation (RWS) monitor
A system used ot store 6 to 12 months of image data that can be retrieved within a few minutes is the
(A) jukebox
(B) redundant array of independedn (inexpensive) disk (RAID)
(C) digital linear tape (DLT)
(D) compack disk (CD)
(B) redundant array of independedn (inexpensive) disk (RAID)
A computer network system that allows images to be viewed at various monitors or transmitted or stored is termed
(A) picture archiving and communication systen (PACS)
(B) local area network (LAN)
(C) wide area network (WAN)
(D) digital imaging and communication in medicine (DICOM)
(A) picture archiving and communication systen (PACS)
The remote transmission of images is
(A) RAID
(B) DICOM
(C) PACS
(D) teleradiology
(D) teleradiology
What technique is used to eliminate scatter in the photon-counting digital systems?
(A) tomographic image reconstruction
(B) three-dimensional imaging
(C) slit scanning and doubel collimation
(D) comuter -aided detection
(C) slit scanning and doubel collimation
Which if the following statements is true?
(A) Compression increases image sharpness by reducing the focal spot size
(B) Compression decreases subject contrast by reducing the thickness of the penetrated tissue
(C) Compression increases the uniformity of the breast, making diagnosis easier
(D) The compressed breast requires increased peak kilovoltage (kVp) to penetrate the thicker tissue
(C) Compression increases the uniformity of the breast, making diagnosis easier
In assessing the degree of compression for any one patient, the technologist should take into consideration
- the maximum to which the patients brest can actually be compressed
- the amount of compression the patient can tolerate
- compression that should be just suffiecient to immobilize the breast
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Manual compression in mammography
(A) has fixed upper and lower limits
(B) depends solely on breast size
(C) depends on breast size and the patients pain tolerance
(D) generally depends on the patients pain tolerance
(C) depends on breast size and the patients pain tolerance
Some condiserations that could be given to women with painful breasts include
- having the patient take ibuprofen prior to mammography
- scheudlign mammography during the menstrual cycle
- explaining, before the examination, the importance of compression
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Compression allows reduced radiation to the breast by
(A) providing a uniform breast thickness
(B) decreasing breast thickness
(C) decreasing motion unsharpness
(D) separating superimposed areas of glandular tissue
(B) decreasing breast thickness
What principle does compression use to visulaize the borders of circumscribed lesions?
- It brings the lesion closer to the detector
- It spreads apart overlapping tissue
- it separates superimposed areas of glandular tisse
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1,2,3
(D) 1,2,3
Ideally, breast compression is maximized when
- accompanied by a thorough explanation to increase patient cooperation
- the exposure is made on arrested inspiration to reduce motion
- the patient recognizes the advantage of compression in reducing radiation doese
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
(C) 1 and 3
Magnification can be used to assess the
(A) margins of a lesion
(B) size of a lesion
(C) location of a lesion
(D) tissue density of a lesion
(A) margins of a lesion
- With calcifications, magnification an be used to assess
- the number
- morphology
- tissue distribution
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
D
- The last degree of compression should be applied
(A) as gently as possible or by using manual compression
(B) after the breast is realeased from compression
(C) with as much force as possible to achieve maximum compression of the breast
(D) with the technologists hand between the breast and the compression paddle
A
- Which projection is used to determine whether a lesion is medial or lateral to the nipple?
(A) craniocaudal (CC)
(B) mediolateral oblique (MLO)
(C) tangential (TAN)
(D) mediolateral (ML)
A
- The lenfth of the posterior nipple line (PNL), visualized on CC, should be within how many centimeters of the PNL and MLO?
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 1.00
(D) 1.50
C
- Which of the followign conditions must be met when imaging the breast in MLO?
- The pectoral muscle should extend to or below the PNL
- visualized fat should be posterior to all the fibroglandular tissues
- the inframammary fold (IMF) should be open
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
D
- In positioning fo rthe CC projection, if the C-arm of the mammography unit is raised too high, the IMF is overelevated, resulting in loss of
- superior breast tissue
- inferior breast tissue
- posterior breast tissue
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
B
- The single projection that will best visulize the maximum amount of breast tissue is the
(A) CC
(B) MLO
(C) ML
(D) exxagerated craniocaudal lateral (XCCL)
B
- In general, whe imaging tall, thin patients the angulation is adjusted to
(A) below 30 degrees
(B) between 30 and 40 degrees
(C) close to 60 degrees
(D) over 70 degrees
C
- The position used to determine whether an abnormality is superior or inferior to the nipple is the
(A) CC
(B) MLO
(C) XCCL
(D) TAN
B
- The principle of mobile versus fixed tissue is used in mammography positioning to image the maximum
(A) medial breast on the MLO projection
(B) inferior breast on the CC projection
(C) superior breast on the MLO projection
(D) medial tissue on the CC projection
A
- In the CC projection of the breast, the detector is positioned
(A) at the level of the raised IMF
(B) below the level of the raised IMF
(C) at the level of the IMF
(D) just below th level of IMF
A
- In positioning for MLO, the tube is always angled
(A) 90 degrees
(B) 60 degrees
(C) 50 degrees
(D) none of the above
D
- What position is show
(A) CC
(B) MLO
(C) cleavage or “valley view” (CV)
(D) XCCL
A
- When positioning for right CC, where is the patients left arm placed?
(A) brought back - this action rotates the shoulder to remove it from the imaging area
(B) brought forwar - the patient an hold the handle bar of the unit
(C) brought forward - the patient can hold the detector
(D) remains at the patients side
B
- Your patient has had reent chest surgery and has a scarred and painful area running along the sternum. With the medial aspect of the breast immobile, whcih of the followign is an alternative to right mediulateral oblique (RMLO)?
(A) right lateromedial oblique (RLMO)
(B) left mediolaterl oblique (LMLO)
(C) left lateromedial (LLM)
(D) right mediolateral (RML)
A
- Which projection is used to best visualize the tail of the breast?
(A) lateromedial oblique (LMO)
(B) TAN
(C) lateromedial (LM)
(D) axillary tail (AT)
D
- Calcifications seen on the mammogram are suspected ot be in the skin. The best projection necessary to prove this theory is the
(A) LMO
(B) TAN
(C) LM
(D) AT
B
- The projection used to best demonstrate details of the medial breast structures of the breast is the
(A) LM
(B) AT
(C) ML
(D) TAN
A
- A lesion on the lateral aspet of the breast is not seen on CC. An additional projection used to image the lesion could be the
(A) CV
(B) XCCL
(C) FB
(D) TAN
B
- Which projection can be used instead of CC to image patients with severe kyphosis ?
(A) ML
(B) TAN
(C) FB
(D) CV
C
- A lesion moved up on the ML projection form its original position on MLO. The location of the lesion within the breast is
(A) lateral
(B) medial
(C) inferior
(D) superior
B
- Which projection can be used to prove breast calcifications are benign
(A) CC
(B) XCCL
(C) FB
(D) ML
D
- Which projection can be used to give a profile image of the area in question without superimposition of breast tissue?
(A) CV
(B) TAN
(C) LMO
(D) AT
B
- Idenitify the projection show
(A) FB
(B) XCCL
(C) ML
(D) AT
D
- A barrel chested patient whose chest wall protrudes outward may have breast tissue extending laterally under the arm. What projection, used to image the breast with the beam direted superior to inerior, should be taken in addtion to CC?
(A) AT
(B) XCCL
(C) CV
(D) MLO
B
- The FB projection can be useful in imaging
- patients with extreme kyphosis
- abnormalities high on the chest wall or superior aspect of breast
- inferior lesion or lesions near the IMF
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
A
- Why is MLO preferred to ML as the routine projection?
(A) MLO visualizes the medial breast
(B) ML does not visualize the medial breast
(C) ML poorly visualizes the posterior and lateral breast
(D) MLO does not distort the anterior structure of the breast
C
- Which projection best shows the extreme medial aspect of the breast?
(A) CC
(B) MLO
(C) ML
(D) CV
D
- In which modified projection is the superior aspect ofthe breast rolled medially?
(A) rolled medial (RM)
(B) rolled lateral (RL)
(C) magnification (M)
(D) lateromedial (LM)
A
- In the LMO projection, the beam is directed from the
(A) upper-inner aspet ot the lower-outer aspect of the breast
(B) inner-outer aspect to the upper- outer aspect of the breast
(C) lower-outer aspect to the upper-inner aspect of the breast
(D) superiolateral aspect to the inferomedial aspect of the breast
C
- Which projetion is especially useful when analyzing calcifications?
(A) RM
(B) M
(C) LM
(D) ML
B
- All of the following statements about magnification are true except
(A) with magnification, patient dose increases
(B) magnificaiton can be used in ontaining specimen radiographs
(C) magnification can be used to assess suspicious lesions
(D) magnification images the entire breast with one exposure
D
- In the rolled superior (RS) position, the surgace ____ the detector is rolled _____
(A) furthest from / inferiorly
(B) closest to /superiorly
(C) furthest from/ superiorly
(D) closest to /inferiorly
C
- Which technique accurately describes how the breast is rolled for RM ?
(A) the superior surface is rolled medially and the inferior surface does not move
(B) the superior surface is rolled alterally, and the inferior surface is rolled medially
(C) the inferior surface is rolled medially, and the superior surface does not move
(D) the inerior surface is rolled laterally, and the superior surface is rolled medially
D
- A patient with pectus excavatum may present a positioning problem because the patietn has
(A) extensive pectoral muscle
(B) barrel chest
(C) kyphosis
(D) depressed sternum
D
- In imaging the augmented breast in the CC position, using the implant-displaced techique the breast tissue is pulled or pushed
(A) anteriorly
(B) posteriorly
(C) inferiorly
(D) superiorly
A
- A routine serires on patients with encapsulated implants oculd include an additional projection, such as the
(A) TAN
(B) CC
(C) MLO
(D) ML
D
- Which of the followign is used to spread out the tissue and improve resolution on a localized area of interest
(A) CV
(B) AT
(C) TAN
(D) spot compression
D
- How many projections are routinely required to image a patient with implant-augmented breasts
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
D
- Which of the followign statements is correct?
(A) the breast should be imaged immediately after irradiation to rule out recurrent cancer
(B) The irradiated breast should never be imaged
(C) it is contraindicated to image the irradiated breast less than 6 months after irradiation treatment
(D) it is contraindcated to image the irradiated breast less than 2 years after irradiation treatment
C
- Which of the following projections or positions can be performed with any patient orientation, with or without magnification
(A) spot compression
(B) XCCL
(C) AT
(D) CV
A
- In addition to the routine series, after a lumpectomy how many patients can also be imaged using
(A) CC
(B) MLO
(C) ML
(D) CV
C
- The “implant in place” projections take on patietns with rbeast implants requires compression
(A) for immobilization only
(B) to separate the breast tissue
(C) to provide a uniform tisse thickness
(D) for improved spatial resolution
A
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) could be used
- as a primary breast ancer detection tool
- to image patients with rbeast implants to evaluate ruptures
- to determine tumore margins and the extent of tumor spread
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
C
- WIth its high sensitivity, MRI is ideal as
(A) a routine screen tool for breast cancer
(B) a replacement for mammography screening in detecting breast cancer
(C) an adjunctive rool in detecting breast cancer
(D) a screening toll for older women
C
- MRI imgaging involves the use of
(A) radiation to detect breast lesions
(B) sound waves int he imaging of the breast
(C) magnetic properties plus radio waves to image the breast
(D) strong sound and radio waves in imaging the breast
C
- Ultrasonagraphy uses
(A) high-frequency sound waves to image the breast
(B) low-frequency sound waves to image the breast
(C) logitudinal microwaves to image the breast
(D) radiofrequency waves to image the breast
A
- MRI can be used to
- map the extent of a tumor
- image patietns with implants
- evaluate patients with dense breasts
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
D
- Ultrasonography of the breast is often used to
(A) map the extent of a breast tumor
(B) verify that lesion seen on the mammogram is solid or fluid filled
(C) verify the presend of microcalcifications
(D) perform a biopsy of a lesion seen only on MRI
B
- All of the following statements, referencing the Hologic digital tomosynthesis unit, are true except
(A) tomosynthesis does not use a grid
(B) the highest slice number is lcosest to the detector
(C) reconstruction is always in 1mm- thick slices
(D) slices can be slabbed together to visualize calcifications
B
- Disadvantages of the Hologic digital tomogrpahy system are that
(A) it does not use a grid resultignin lower resolution images
(B) greaster risks of motion as a result of the longer acquisition time
(C) the technology can be used to reduce the recall rate
(D) it can be used to remove overlapping tissue when imaging a dense breast
B
- Motion on images with the Hologic digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT) unit are better appreciated on
(A) the projection images at the radiologist workstation
(B) the projection images at the technologist workstation
(C) the reconstruction images at the radiologist workstation
(D) the reconstruction images at the technologist workstation
B
- Synthesized 2D imagingis a
(A) 2D recondstruction of the 3D image
(B) 3D reconstructin of the 2D image
(C) 2D imaging with tomosynthesis
(D) 2D tomosynthesis imaging
A
- Computer aided detection (CAD) is used to
(A) visually enhanced an image for viewing
(B) modify the constrast of brightness of an image
(C) analyze or preread the image
(D) provide accurate dianostic information about the image
C
- The results form one of the followign techniques is often used to reduce the amount of lymph noes removed during a chekc for breast cancer spread
(A) sentinel node mapping
(B) scintimammography
(C) positron emission mammography
(D) MRI
A
- Radiation therpay is a treatment that utilizes
(A) drugs to treast cancer taht may have spread
(B) high-energy radiation to destroy cancer cells
(C) radioactive tracers to track the path of cancer to the lymph nodes
(D) potent pain medication to treat the severe pain from cancer
B
- Between ages 20 and 30 years, an asymptomatic woman should be undergoing mammography every
(A) year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) none of the above
D
- Medical hystory may include questions on hormone use because
(A) treatment with synthetic hormones, such as hormone replacement therapy (HRT), will always cause breast cancer
(B) the use of reproductive hromones can increase risk factors for breast cancer
(C) family history of hormone use predisposes a woman to cancer
(D) personal history of hormone use decreases a womans risk for breast cancer
B
- In imaging implants, some of the projections taken will include an image of the implant. In these projections, compression is used
(A) to allow a uniform tissue density
(B) for immobilization only
(C) to separate the breast tissue
(D) to separate and spread out the implant
B
- The glandular dose is a measure of
(A) the radiation dose to the skin of the breast
(B) the dose to the radiosensitive cells of the breast
(C) the significant background dose recorded in the US
(D) the radiation dose to the gonads
B
- In digital imaging, “high detective quantum efficiency” means that
(A) the system is more efficient in coverting input x-ray signals and or the system needs higher exposure factors to create an image
(B) the system needs higher exposure factors to create an image and or the system has a high fill factor on the TFT array
(C) the system is more efficient in coverting input x-ray signals and or the system has a high fill factor on the TFT array
(D) all of the above
C
- In digital imaging, a graph of the optical denisty rand to the log of relative exposure is a
(A) shallow sloping curve
(B) steep sloping curve
(C) linear response
(D) curvilinear response
C
- In the new 2016 American College of Radiology (ACR) Digital Mammography Quality Control Manual, the approved accreditation phantom has a total of
(A) 5 fibers, 5 speck groups and 5 masses
(B) 5 fibers, 6 speck groups and 5 masses
(C) 6 fibers, 5 speck groups and 5 masses
(D) 6 fibers, 6 speck groups and 6 masses
D
- The circular pigmented area around the nipple is called the
(A) skin
(B) areola
(C) Montgomery gland
(D) ampulla
B
- Keratosis is demonstrated mammographically as a
(A) sharply outlined multilobulated lesion
(B) sharply outlined lesion with a halo
(C) mixed radiolucent and radiopaque circular lesion with a radiolucent center
(D) mixed radiolucent and radiopaque oval lesion
A
- The advantages of a quality assurance program, such as the Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA), inlcudes all of the following except
(A) increased efficiency
(B) cost- effectiveness
(C) permission for maniplation of the final image
(D) improved patient satsfaction
C
- IN magnification, what immediate role does the large object to image receptor distane (OID) play in reduing scatter radiation?
(A) It allows the use of lower peak kVp values
(B) There is increase source to object distance (SOD), which allows for absorption of the scattered radiation
(C) Most of the scattered radiation misses the detector
(D) the larger OID utilizes a smaller source to image receptor distance (SID)
C
- Using a small focal spot size is recommeded for magnification
(A) to reduce the resultant loss of image detail
(B) because of increased patient dose
(C) to compensae for the small OID
(D) to compensate long exposure times
A
- What is the best placemtn for the needle wire during needle localization
(A) the needle wire should pass immediately below the lesion
(B) the needle wire should pass immmediately above the lesion
(C) the needle wire should pass through the lesion
(D) the needle wire should pass immediately beside the lesion
C
- Although it may mean losing some of the lateral breast tissue, in imaging for the craniocaudal (CC) projeciton, most experts agree that all efforts should be made to maximize imgaing of the medial breast tissue, why?
(A) media breast is imaged best on CC
(B) medial breast is imaged only on CC
(C) Most cancers are found in the medial breast
(D) the lateral breast is generally distorted on CC
A
- Which is true when positioning for all tangential (TAN) projections?
(A) The patient is always in the CC position
(B) The central ray is always directed vertically
(C) The central ray is always parallel to the palne of the breast
(D) The central ray is always parallel to the skin surface
D
- In the rolled meidal (RM) position, the inferior (lower) surface of the breast is rolled in which direction
(A) lateral
(B) medial
(C) inferior
(D) superior
A
- A radiopaque implant that is used in breast reconstruction and can be adjusted for cup size after surgical placement in the breast is the
(A) silicone gel implant
(B) flap implant
(C) silicone liquid implant
(D) saline implant
D
- In addition to the routine CC and mediolateral oblique (MLO) projections, a routine series after mastectomy could also inlcude
(A) axiallary tail (AT)
(B) mediolateral (ML)
(C) TAN
(D) lateromedial oblique (LMO)
B
- Men with family history of breast cancer will
(A) have a greater risk for breast cancer
(B) Have a minor risk for breast cancer
(C) have no significantly increased risk for breast cancer
(D) always get breast cancer
A
- The dynamic range is
(A) the detectors ability to respond to different exposure levels
(B) a measure of the image quality
(C) an indication of how efficient the detector is at converting the remnant beam to useful data
(D) the ability of the detector to record lower exposure factors
A
- The abdosrbed dsoe in mammography is generally __ the entrance skin exposure (ESE)
(A) significantly higher than
(B) significantly lower than
(C) about the same as
(D) slightly higher than
B
- In the compression test required by the MQSA, the maximum compression for the initial power drive should not exceed
(A) 100 newtons (N)
(B) 200 N
(C) 400 N
(D) 500 N
B
- Collimation should not extend beyond any edge of the detector by more than
(A) 1% of the SID
(B) 2% of the SID
(C) 3% of the SID
(D) 4% of the SID
B
- Inherent filtration will include filtration by all of the following except
(A) exit port of the tube
(B) compression paddle
(C) molybdenum filters
(D) mirror assembly
C
- The MQSA was enacted
(A) because mammography was overregualted
(B) to address the inconsistent quality of mammography
(C) to enforce continuing education for the radiologic technologist
(D) to enforce continuing education for the radiologist
B
- Grids are utlized in mammography
(A) during normal imaging
(B) during magnificaiton imaging only
(C) only if requested by the radiologist
(D) to reduce radiation dose to the patient
A
- breast tissue can extend medially to the
(A) latissimus dorsi muscle
(B) mid-sternum
(C) retromammary space
(D) inframammary fold (IMF)
B
- Which of the followign hormones has the most influence on the normal physiological changes of the breast
(A) estrogen and prolactin
(B) estrogen and progesterone
(C) prolactin and estrogen
(D) profesterone and prolactin
B
- Which of the followng are considere first degre relatives
(A) mother and aunt
(B) first cousin and mother
(C) aunt and sister
(D) sister and mother
D
- Image compression is often required to allow
(A) teleradiography
(B) digital iamging and communication in medicine (DICOM) interpretation
(C) picture archiving and communication system (PACS) transmission
(D) digital imaging
A
- Network limited to a small geographical area is called
(A) wide area network (WAN)
(B) loca area network (LAN)
(C) personal area network (PAN
(D) PACS
B
- In the lower kVp range using molybdenum target tube, what type of photon interaction predominates
(A) photoelectric
(B) compton
(C) bremsstrahlung
(D) coherent
A
- In digital iamging, a reapeat analysis test is
(A) unnecessary - digital imaging automatically correts exposure mistakes
(B) necessary - digital imaging automatically cannot correct for overexposure
(C) unneccessary - digital imaging corrects unsharpness by altering the spatial display
(D) necessary - digital imaging cannot correct factors such as motion unsharpness
D
- The same technologist should view the phantom images because
(A) subjective judgement about iamges is always difficult
(B) it is not wise to have different individuals handling the phantom
(C) not all mammographers know the MQSA regualtions
(D) given different images, different mammographers will calculate the optical densities differently
A
- The from-below (FB) projection utlizes a beam directed
(A) perpendicular to the detector
(B) horizontally
(C) tangentially
(D) parallel to the detector
A
- Changes in the breast as a result of radiation therapy include
(A) erythema
(B) edema
(C) hardening
(D) all of the above
D
- Scanning the breast to locate a cancer based ont eh vast amount of glucose/sugar utilized by cancer cells is the technique used in
(A) scintigraphy
(B) positron emission mammography (PEM) imaging
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(D) lymphoscintigraphy
B
- Which of the following projections could be used to replace MLO in patients where MLO is not possible
(A) ML
(B) lateromedial (LM)
(C) rolled lateral (RL)
(D) AT
B
- Which of the following does not describe mammogrpahy filtration
(A) It shapes the emerging beam by abdorbing low-energy x-rays that would only be abdorbed by the superficial tissue and contribute to patient dose
(B) It will affect the half-value layer (HVL) of the emerging x-ray beam
(C) filtration makes the emerging beam compatible with the characteristics of the breast
(D) the filtration used in mammography is never aluminum
D
- An artifact caused by dust is more common in
(A) flat panel detector systems
(B) computer radiography systems
(C) indirect flat panel detector systems
(D) scintillator based systems
B
- Evaluations such as the mammography equipment evaluation (MEE) is performed by the
(A) radiologic assistant
(B) technologist
(C) medical physicist
(D) radiologist
C
B44. The test pattern used to ensure tha the acquistition workstation monitors are clean and free of dust, fingerprints, and other artifacts is
(A) signal to noise ratio (SNR)
(B) SMPTE ( Society of motion pciture and telvision engineers)
(C) contrast to noise ratio (CNR)
(D) moduation transfer funcion (MTF)
B
- According to the 2016 American College of Radiology (ACR) Digital Quality Control Manual, which of the following test is performed monthly ?
(A) phantom check
(B) repeat/rejection analysis
(C) compression thickness indicator check
(D) compression force check
C
- On a reject/repeat analysis, the rate was <5% but one category of the reject/repeat analysis is significantly higher than others. What should be done
(A) Although the rate is <5% that one are should be targeted for improvement
(B) If the other catefories are within normal limits, that are can be disregarded
(C) because the rate was >2% the entire department needs to be reassessed
(D) WIth an overall rate <5% one high riate is statistically meaningless
A
- Typically, frid ratios in mammography range from
(A) 7:1 to 8:1
(B) 6:1 to 7:1
(C) 4:1 to 6:1
(D) 3:1 to 5:1
D
- Positron emission tomography/mammography (PET or PEM ) imaging is useful in staging tumors because
(A) the postiron emitting isotopes are radioactive
(B) PET or PEM imaging can display the extent and location of the tumor
(C) the positron emitting isotopes will distroy the tumor bed
(D) PET or PEM imaging tracks the increased blood flow from teh cancerous tumor
B
- Medical history is importnat in
(A) assessing risk factors for breast cancer
(B) preventing breast cancer
(C) evaluating treatment options
(D) more than one of the above
D
- Unlike general radiography x-ray tubes, some mammography tubes are tilted 6 to 24 degrees from the horizontal. The effect of this is to
(A) allow the use of smaller focal spot size
(B) minimize the heel effect
(C) increase resolution
(D) all of the above
D
- The term retromammary space describes the area
(A) between the breast and pectoral muscle
(B) separating the skin of the breast from the deep fascia
(C) sepaarating the skin from the superficial fascia
(D) between the flandular tissue and the IMF
A
- In which of the following are breast cysts least common
(A) young women in their early 20s
(B) premenopausal women
(C) postmenopausal women on estrogen therapy
(D) women aged 70 years
D
- The CC projection shows a circumscribed oval radiolucent lesion. There is a definite halo surroudning the lesion. It is most likely to be a
(A) fibroadenoma
(B) galactovele
(C) cyst
(D) hematoma
C
- The indirect effect of breast compession on Compton interaction is
(A) the absolute number of compression interactions increases
(B) the absolute number of compton interactions decreases
(C) compression has no effect on compton interactions
(D) compression affects compton interactions only about 70 kVp
B
- One disadvantage of lossless compression is
(A) it does not provide exact measurement for fine detail on reconstruction
(B) it provides exact recontruction of the original image
(C) transmission times can be too long
(D) it does not support teleradiography
C
- Grids with strips that are linear but slanted to match the divergence of the x-ray beam are ___ grids
(A) parallel
(B) crossed
(C) focused
(D) moving
C
- Fatty tissue is generally radiolucent and will show on the mammogram as
(A) glandular areas
(B) high-optical density area
(C) low- optical density areas
(D) white or gray areas
B
- The mammogram of a woman who is aged 50 years and has recently started estrogen replacement therpay is likely to show a breast that is
(A) more fibroglandular than in her previous mammograms
(B) more fatty than in her previous mammograms
(C) less fibrous and less glandular than in her previous mammograms
(D) unchanged from her previous mammograms
A
- The mammogram shos an oval shaped lesion with mixed radiolucent and radiopaque content. The lesion has a central radiolucent area nd is freely movable. This lesion is most likely to be
(A) fibroadenoma
(B) hematoma
(C) lymph node
(D) galactocele
C
- The method of locating the lymph nodes through which cancer is spreading from the breast is called
(A) scintigraphy
(B) PEM
(C) MRI
(D) lymphoscintigraphy
D
- The change in OID could cuase loss of image detail in magnification mammography. What factors help compensate for this loss of image detail?
(A) decreased OID and breast compression
(B) Increased focal spot size and breast compression
(C) decreased focal spot size and compression of the part
(D) increased OID and coprssion of the part
C
- What does the actual focal spot size measure?
(A) the area on teh anode exposed to electrons
(B) the are projected on the patient
(C) the area projected on the detector
(D) the nominal focal spot size
A
- The mammography report has an assessment score of 0, accoridng to the BIRAD (breast imaging reporting and data) system. This means that
(A) the mammography results is negative
(B) there is a higher probability if a benign finding
(C) additional imaging is needed
(D) the findings are suspicious
C
- Differentiate between repeat and reject images
(A) Repeate is the percentage of repeats form a specific cause. Reject is the percentage of repeats from multiple causes
(B) rejects are all images that are discarded. Repeats are iamges that resulted in extra radiation doses to the patietn
(C) Repeats are all images that are discarded. Rejects are images that resulted in extra radiation doses to the patient
(D) Rejects are images discarded after any quality control (QC_ testing. Repeats are any images discared
B
- What is epithelial hyperplasia
(A) a calcified hematoma resulting from trauma
(B) an oil cyst within the breast
(C) an overgrowth of cells in the ducts or lobules
(D) an epidermoid cyst on the skin of the breast
C
- After four projection mammography, calcifications are visualized superior to the niple but only on the MLO projection. What additional projection would be used to best locate the positon of the lesion
(A) exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL)
(B) cleavage (CV)
(C) ML
(D) AT
C
- Approximately how much contrast agent is injeted into the breast during ductography?
(A) approximately 1 cc
(B) 15-25 cc
(C) 20-40 CC
(D) approximately 50 cc
A
- What does the glandular dose measure?
(A) the average dose to the patients skin
(B) the absorbed dose to the skin
(C) the absorbed dose at the tissue level
(D) the same as the entrance skin dose
C
- Which of the following relationshipes does not change when moving from routine to magnification mammography
(A) OID
(B) focal spot size
(C) SID
(D) SOD
C
- Who performs the compression device check for mammography QC?
(A) physicist
(B) any staff technologist
(C) radiologist
(D) technologist
D
- A galactocele is
(A) a lesion associated with trauma to the breast
(B) a benign milk filled cyst
(C) assicaiated with eggshell-like calcifications
(D) associated with a central radiolucent hilus
B
- Instead of using a grid, what does manification mammography use to reduce scatter during normal imaging?
(A) lead shielding
(B) increase OID
(C) a low milliampere second
(D) increased SID
B
- Most of the glandular tissue is arraned in the breast around the
(A) medial and upper-inner quadrants
(B) lateral and lower-inner quadrants
(C) central and upper-out quadrants
(D) medial and upper-out quadrant
C
- A beryllium (Be) window on the x-ray tube enhances contrast by
(A) increaseing the output of the x-ray tube
(B) reducing production of scattered radiation
(C) transmitting more low energy photons
(D) transmitting more high-energy photons
C
- Proper compression of the breast is indicated when the
(A) patient is in pain
(B) compression paddle stops
(C) breast is taut
(D) breast feels soft
C
- Which factors cause increased skin dose in magnification
(A) larger OID and smaller focal spot size
(B) increased mAs and larger SOD
(C) increased OID and decreased SOD
(D) smaller OID and larger SID
C
- In radiology, according to the line focus principle, the effective focal spot is
(A) larger than the actual focal spot
(B) smaller than the actual focal spot
(C) the same as the actual focal spot
(D) decreased as the target angle increases
B
- WHen using the air-gap technique in magnification mammogrpahy, what additioanl step is necessary
(A) grid use
(B) decreased SID
(C) increased OID
(D) increased SID
C
- Which of the following projections would best separate superimposed 12 o’clock and 6 o’clock masses?
(A) MLO
(B) XCCL
(C) CC
(D) AT
A
- In positioning terminology, CV means
(A) compressed position
(B) cranial view
(C) cleavage view
(D) compression view
C
- Malignant casting-type calcifications can appear on the mammogram as
(A) granulated-sugar or crushed stone calcifications
(B) eggshell-like calcifications
(C) elongated, branching and needle-like calcifications
(D) fragmented, linear branching calcification
D
- The functional milk-producing units of the breast are contained within the
(A) lactiferous sinuses
(B) lobules
(C) ampulla
(D) areola
B
- What is the grid ratio
(A) the height of the lead strips divided by the distance between each strip
(B) the height of the lead strips multiplied by the distance between each strip
(C) twice the height of each lead strip
(D) the distance between each strip divided by the height
A
- The AT projection best demonstrates the
(A) subareolar area
(B) medial aspect of the breast
(C) axillary aspect of the breast
(D) lower-inner quadrant of the breast
C
- The patient had trauma to the breast 1 month ago and has developed a lump. Such an injury may show mammographically as a
(A) galactocele
(B) hematoma
(C) lymph node
(D) fibroadenoma
B
- A device used to convert light to a digtital signal is a
(A) film digitizer
(B) DICOM
(C) analog to digital converter (ADC)
(D) digital to anlog converter (DAC
C
- If too much of the upper axilla and shoulder are under the compression paddle when imaging for MLO, the effect is to
(A) inhibit proper comprssion of the upper breast
(B) inhibit proper copression of the lower breast
(C) ensure equal compression of the upper and lower breast
(D) ensure proper compression of the lower breast
B
- Which of the following types of breast imaging methods will fall under the category of nuclear imaging.
(A) PEM
(B) MIR
(C) ultrasonography
(D) digital tomosynthesis
A
- A rolled projection cam be performed to
(A) separate superimposed tissues
(B) identify microcalcifications
(C) localize a skin lesion
(D) determine the location of a finding seen only on one of the standard projections
A
- Ideally, in an open surgical biopsy, when shoudl a breast tissue specimen be imaged?
(A) immediately after surgery
(B) within 24 hours of the surgery
(C) just prior to the surgery
(D) after the lesion is removed but before the surgical site is closed
D
- Which projection gives a mirror image of MLO
(A) ML
(B) LM
(C) LMO
(D) AT
C
- The nominal focal spot size of the mammography unit is 0.3. This means that the
(A) actual focal spot size is 0.3
(B) effective focal spot size is 0.3
(C) both effective and actual focal spot sizes are 0.3
(D) actual focal spot is smaller than 0.3
B
- After lumpectomy, patients could have magnified images of the tumor bed taken to
(A) confirm the removal of the cancer
(B) check calcium deposits that may result from radiation and surgical changes
(C) all of the above
(D) none of the above
C
- Where is the grid placed
(A) above the breast
(B) between the breast and the image plate or detector
(C) below the image plate
(D) between the breast and the x-ray tube
B
- Which of the following statements is true of both the photstimulable phosphor (PSP) and the flat-panel mammography systems?
(A) The iamging plates (IPs) used can be damaged or dropped during transport
(B) The system has a wide latitude and dynamic range
(C) PSP is very sensitive to radiation
(D) The iamging system is susceptible to scratches
B
- The puporse of the mammography certification and accreditation process is to
(A) provide legal mammography services
(B) enforce minimum national quality standards for mammography
(C) ensure that all women have access to a certifeid mammography facility
(D) authorize certain states to certify mammography facilities and conduct inspections
B
- A facility has a sign posted advising patiensts to contact a designated person within the organization with comments. This facility is meeting the US Food and Drug Administartion (FDA)
(A) medical outcome audit program
(B) record keeping program
(C) patient communication of results program
(D) customer cmplaint program
D
- A hamartoma is
(A) a malignant tumor of the breast
(B) a benign tumor of the breast
(C) associated with trauma of the breast
(D) associated with nursing
B
- During lactation, the contraction of which cells help eject milk from the alveoli
(A) epithelial cells
(B) myoepithelial cells
(C) basement cells
(D) superficial cells
B
- A finding of BIRAD 2 on the mammogram means that
(A) it cannot aid in accurate evaluation of the breast
(B) the findings are benign
(C) the findings are suspicious
(D) it is suggestive for malignancy
B
- Erythema of the brest is an indication
(A) of inflammatory breast cancer
(B) a breast abscess
(C) of a breast infection
(D) that further testing of the breast is necessary
D
- Which of the followign is used as a treatment for estrogen-dependent tumors in postmenopausal and premenopausal women?
(A) Radiation therapy
(B) chemotherapy
(C) tamoxifen
(D) antibody therapy
C
- In flat-panel detector systems, the spatial resolution of the system is controlled by the
(A) pixel number
(B) detector element (DEL) size
(C) matrix size
(D) thin film transistor (TFT) number
B
- A thin supportive layer located netweem the basal surface of the epithelium and the connective tissue layer of the lobule is called
(A) chief cells
(B) myoepithelial
(C) basement membrane
(D) superfical A cells
C
- The appearanc of a “camel’s nose” breast contour in the MLO projection can be prevented by
(A) including all of the breast under the compression paddle
(B) angling the detector parallel to the pectoralis muscle
(C) properly supporting the anterior breast during compression
(D) ensuring that the nipple remains in profile during compression
C
- The superioinferior oblique (SIO) projection will best demonstrate the
(A) outer-upper quadrant and the lower outer quadrant of the breast
(B) lower inner quadrant and the upper inner quadrant of the breast
(C) upper inner quadrant and lower outer quadrant of the breast
(D) lower inner quadrant and the outer upper quadrant of the breast
C
- The basic premise of a medical audit is that
- all positive mammograms should be followed up
- the pathology results of all biopsy procedures performed should be collected
- all pathology results should be correlated with the radiologists findings
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
D
- Under the MQSA, how long are facilities required to maintain the records of a patient who died shortly after her first mammography
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 20 year
(D) permanently
B
- Under which of the following circumstances would eb the triangulation technique be necessary
(A) to locate an abnormality visualized on one projection only
(B) during routine mammography screening
(C) when performing spot magnification
(D) to locate a palpable lesion
C
- A dimpled skin condition seen in cases of lumphatic edema of the breast is called
(A) inflammatory carcinoma
(B) ductal ectasia
(C) plasma cel mastitis
(D) peau d’ orange
D
- Clinical breast examination (CBE) and breast self examination (BSE) are similar in that both
(A) involve looking and feeling for changes in the breast
(B) are performed by a trained medical professional
(C) are performed montly
(D) are performed yearly
A
- The most common cause of under compression is
(A) a faulty compression paddle
(B) inadequate compression by technologist
(C) the patients pain tolerance level
(D) a broken autmatic compression device
(B) inadequate compression by technologist
- The Health Insurance Portabilit and Acountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 has an influence on the radiology department and other hospital departmenents because of its focus on
(A) patient record confidentiality
(B) facility reimbursement
(C) quality management
(D) risk management
(A) patient record confidentiality
- Ductal papilloma is
(A) a benign proliferation of tissue in the male breast
(B) a malignant tumor involving ducts
(C) a collection of blood in the breast occurring after surger
(D) benign growths involving the milk ducts
(D) benign growths involving the milk ducts
- The right craniocaudal (CC) projection in a routine imaging series showed a small irregular shaped lesion at the posterior margin of the image plus scattered calcifications, including calcification clusters. Typucally the radiologist will recommened ___ as the immediate next step
(A) ultrasonography to assess the content of the lesion and provide an analysis of the calcifications
(B) spot compression, includign magnification, to assess calcifications and the margins of the lesion
(C) magnetic resonance imaging to assess for malignancy and to assess any calcifications
(D) a breast biopsy to check for malignancy
(B) spot compression, includign magnification, to assess calcifications and the margins of the lesion
- A bunch of eight bits equals one
(A) pixel
(B) byte
(C) matrix
(D) bit depth
(B) byte
- Which of the followign could be used when imaging extrmely small breasts in the CC position
(A) spatula
(B) mediolateral (ML) projection
(C) cleavage view (CV) projection
(D) exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL) projection
(A) spatula
- In the tangential (TAN) projection, any tube angulation will depend on
(A) the size of the patients breast
(B) the location of the abnormality
(C) the position of the mid axillary line in relation to the detector
(D) whether the abnomality is palpable or non palpable
(B) the location of the abnormality
- A small but growing cancer may not be obvious to the individual because it often presents as
(A) skin irritation
(B) inverted nipples
(C) a painless mass
(D) a painful mass
(C) a painless mass
- Mammography is more accurate in
(A) premenopausal women
(B) postmenopausal women
(C) women with fibrocystic breast
(D) women with dense breast tissue
(B) postmenopausal women
- In taking medical history, hormone use (both natural and artificial) is taken into account because
(A) hormones cause breast cancer
(B) early menarche can increase breast cancer risks
(C) late menarche can increase breast cancer risks
(D) contraceptive use lowers the risk for breast cancer
(B) early menarche can increase breast cancer risks
- One major difference between collimation in mammography and collimation in general radiography is that
(A) in mammography, the entire detector area is exposed
(B) decreasing collimation increases exposure in mammography
(C) mammography uses a variety of beam limiting device
(D) in radiogrpahy, the entire detector area is always exposed
(A) in mammography, the entire detector area is exposed
- Line pair per millimeter is the unit of
(A) matrix size
(B) spatial resolution
(C) field of view (FOV)
(D) bit depth
(B) spatial resolution
- Image brightness is adjusted by changing the
(A) milliampere second (mAs)
(B) peak kilovoltage (kVp)
(C) window level
(D) window width
(C) window level
- The retromammary space is filled with
(A) supportive and connecting tissues
(B) adipose tissue
(C) fibroglandular tissue
(D) blood vessels
(B) adipose tissue
- The fatty versus fibroglandular nature of the breast itssue is affected by which of the following
(A) age
(B) hormone use
(C) number of pregnancies
(D) all of the above
(D) all of the above
- In positioning for the exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL) projection, if the shoulder of the affected side is in the way of the compression device
(A) push the shoulder down
(B) use 5-degree lateral tube angulation
(C) use 5-degree medial tube angulation to avoid superposing the shoudler on breast tissue
(D) reduce the patients lateral rotation
(B) use 5-degree lateral tube angulation
- In the CC position, the pectoral muscle is seen
(A) all the time
(B) rarely if ever
(C) about 30 to 40% of the time
(D) about 50% of the time
(C) about 30 to 40% of the time
- Between ages 20 and 39 years, the American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends CBE every
(A) year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
(C) 3 years
- Regardless of the reason, if the proper amount of compression cannot be applied, which of the followign must apply
(A) the patient must be infomred
(B) the patients doctor must be informed
(C) the radiologist must be informed
(D) it must be noted on the patients history form
(D) it must be noted on the patients history form
- On the CC image, the posterior nipple line (PNL) should extend to the
(A) level of the nipple
(B) posterior breast or edge of the image
(C) level of the inframammary fole (IMF)
(D) most anterior breast
(B) posterior breast or edge of the image
- The interspace material of the mammography linear grid is generally made of
(A) carbon or wood
(B) aluminum
(C) any highly radiopaque material
(D) lead
(A) carbon or wood
- Which section of the breast is poorly visualized on the CC projection
(A) medial
(B) axial
(C) lateral
(D) superior
(C) lateral
- Adjusting the image contrast is achieved by
(A) changing the window level
(B) decreasing the pixel size
(C) changing the window width
(D) increasing the pixel size
(C) changing the window width
- Which projection could be used to demonstrate a deep medial lesion not seen on CC
(A) axillary tail (AT)
(B) XCCL
(C) CV
(D) MLO
(C) CV
- After a routine four projection mammographic series, the nipple is not seen in profile on any of the images. Additional projections are done if
- the nipple is indistinguishable from a mass
- a subareolar abnormality is suspected
- the nipple is not marked iwth a BB (lead shot )
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
(D) 1,2,3
- Your patients sister was diagnosed iwth rbeast cancer at age 35 years. Your patient is considered to have
(A) a greater risk of breast cancer
(B) a lower risk for breast cancer
(C) no significantly increased risk for breast cancer
(D) a personal history of breast cancer
(A) a greater risk of breast cancer
- The MQSA mandates tha the average flandular dose received per projection/position during routine mammogrpahy screening not exceed
(A) 1 mGy (100 mrad)
(B) 2 mGy (200 mrad)
(C) 3 mGy (300 mrad)
(D) 4 mGy (400 mrad)
(C) 3 mGy (300 mrad)
- The device used to vonvert the films in an analog imaging system to a digital image is called
(A) a film digitizer
(B) DICOM
(C) an analogn to digital converter (ADC)
(D) a digital to analog converter (DAC)
(A) a film digitizer
- The computer netweork that allows images to be viewed at various monitors or transmitted or stored is termed
(A) local area network (LAN)
(B) picture archivign and communications system (PACS)
(C) DICOM
(D) wide area network (WAN)
(B) picture archivign and communications system (PACS)
- Which of the following statements about health care records is false
(A) health records must inlcude all signed informed consent forms
(B) patients have a right to amend their health care records
(C) patietns can access their health records
(D) health care records cannot be used in a court of law
(D) health care records cannot be used in a court of law
- Montgomery glands are specialized
(A) sweat glands
(B) sebaceous glands
(C) Cooper ligaments
(D) hair follicles
(B) sebaceous glands
- A woman takign hormone replacement therpay may notice changes in the breast, such as
(A) breast enlargement
(B) increase in fibroadenomas
(C) increase in breast cysts
(D) all of the above
(D) all of the above
- Pagets disease of the breast is a
(A) infiltrating carcinoma generally limited to the breast
(B) form a carcinoma associated with changes in the nipple
(C) benign breast conidtion that is relatively common
(D) malignant form of breast carcinoma involving lobules
(B) form a carcinoma associated with changes in the nipple
- in a digital image, what determines the matrix size
(A) the number of bits in each pixel
(B) the number of pixels in the rows and columns
(C) the pciture elements in the matrix
(D) the number of gray shaes that a pixel can produce
(B) the number of pixels in the rows and columns
- A set of computer software standards that permits a wide range of digital imaging programs to understand each other is called
(A) DIGCOM
(B) PACS
(C) DICOM
(D) PCAS
(C) DICOM
- A PACS network typically would include
(A) digital images from multiple modalities
(B) images from a single modality
(C) all records of patients
(D) surgical and radiography patient records
(A) digital images from multiple modalities
- Women who were exposed to diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero may have
(A) a lower risk for breast cancer
(B) a higher risk for breast cancer if they are also receiving hormone replacement therapy
(C) a lower risk for breast cancer if theya re also receiving HRT
(D) breast tissue that is extra sensitive to radiation
(B) a higher risk for breast cancer if they are also receiving hormone replacement therapy
- In which of the followign modified proejctions is the superior surface of the rbeast rolled medially
(A) rolled medial (RM)
(B) roller lateral (RL)
(C) medial (M)
(D) lateromeidal (LM)
(A) rolled medial (RM)
- factors that lower breast cancer risks include
- having the first child after age 30 years
- breastfeeding
- late menarch
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
(B) 2 and 3
- PACS stands for
(A) picture access to communication system
(B) picture archiving and computer system
(C) picture archiving and communication system
(D) pixel access and computer system
(C) picture archiving and communication system
- The computer processing or photostimulable phosphor (PSP) reader function to
(A) focus a beam of infrared light on the PSP
(B) trap excited electrons at a higher energy level
(C) scan, read, and erase the exposed PSP
(D) provide enrgy to rapped electrons
(C) scan, read, and erase the exposed PSP
- Gynecomastia is the term for
(A) a localized abscess
(B) increased breast tissue in the male breast
(C) decreased breast tissue in the female breast
(D) a risk of carcinoma in the male patient
(B) increased breast tissue in the male breast
- Photostimulable luminescence (PSL) is
(A) emission of bluish-purple light from electrons as they transition from higher energy to a lower enegery state
(B) conversion of light energy to an electrical signal by the phtomultiplier tube (PMT)
(C) conversion of the analog signal to a digital signal by the ADC
(D) conversion of light into an analog signal by the charge coupled device (CCD)
(A) emission of bluish-purple light from electrons as they transition from higher energy to a lower enegery state
- According to MQSA regulations, which of the following is not required on the final mammographic image?
(A) date of the examination
(B) tehcnical factors used
(C) technologist identification
(D) projection identification
(B) tehcnical factors used
- The IMF is located at approxiametely the level of the
(A) 2nd to 3rd rib
(B) 3rd to 4th rib
(C) 4th and 5th rib
(D) 6th to 7th rib
(D) 6th to 7th rib
- Scatted radiation is reduced during magnification mammography by
(A) using a small focal spot size
(B) using a grid
(C) using the air gap technique
(D) increasing the source to image receptor distance (SID)
(C) using the air gap technique
- Ductography can be used to determine
(A) the location of lesions in ducts
(B) whether a lesion is benign or malignant
(C) change or abnormalities associated with ducts
(D) more than one of the above
(D) more than one of the above
- When imaging smal breasta, a ueful option is
(A) replacing CC with XCCL
(B) using Ml instead of MLO
(C) using a spatula to avoid compressing the fingers
(D) reducing angulation to avoid to much comression of the pectoral muscle
(C) using a spatula to avoid compressing the fingers
- During magnification, positioning the breast away from the detector utilizes which law/principle in scatter reduction
(A) inverse square law
(B) reciprocity law
(C) heel effect
(D) line focus principle
(A) inverse square law
- A nulliparous woman has a lower risk for breast cancer compared with a woman with a history of
(A) late menopause
(B) late menarche
(C) breast cancer
(D) early menarche
(C) breast cancer
- In routine mammography, the primary purpose of the frid is to
(A) improve image sharpness
(B) reduce the productionof scatter
(C) reduce patient dose
(D) increase the subject contrast
(D) increase the subject contrast
- The implant displaced (ID) projection is possible on all of the following cases except
(A) implants placed posterior to the pectoral muscle
(B) implants placed anterior to the pectoral muscle
(C) soft implants
(D) encapsulated implants
(D) encapsulated implants
- A palpable mass that is not seen on a diagnostic mammogram generally means that
(A) breast cancer is ruled out; the mass is probably benign
(B) other diagnostic testing must be considered
(C) the mass is likely breast cancer
(D) the mass is likely caused by fluctuating hormones
(B) other diagnostic testing must be considered
- Which of the following patients has the greatest risk for breast cancer
(A) a nulliparous woman age 40 years
(B) a never married woman
(C) a woman age 70 years
(D) a owman age 30 years
(C) a woman age 70 years
- A technologist using a 0.1mm focal spot size is most likely performing
(A) routine mammography work
(B) magnification imaging
(C) spot compression imaging
(D) stereotactic work
(B) magnification imaging
- Which of the following patients cannot give consent
(A) a minor who is married
(B) a minor serving in the military
(C) a competent adult
(D) a mentally challenged adult
(D) a mentally challenged adult
- In the PSP computer reader (CR) the phtomultiplier tube
(A) collects the blue/purple light given off by trapped electrons
(B) scans the PSP with a red laser light
(C) provides energy to the trapped electrons in teh phosphor layer
(D) erases the PSP by releasing electrons
(A) collects the blue/purple light given off by trapped electrons
- Which of the following statmetns is true about imaging the breast
(A) fold and or wringkels should be eliminated by pusing the posteriorly
(B) skin folds and wrikles may be impossible to avoid in older adults
(C) when imaging older adults, the study will be compromised by folds and wrinkles
(D) fold and wrinkles can be eliminated by pulling them anteriorly
(B) skin folds and wrikles may be impossible to avoid in older adults
- The term base of the breast refers to the
(A) the nipple are of the areola
(B) areas adjacent to the chest wall
(C) axilla area of the breast
(D) lower outer quadrant of the breast
(B) areas adjacent to the chest wall
- Fibrous tissues are presented radiographically as
(A) black or radiolucent areas
(B) gray and less dense areas
(C) white or denser areas
(D) black and less dense areas
(C) white or denser areas
- The calcifications seen are characteristic of
** ADD PIC**
(A) invasive ductal carcinoma
(B) malignant calcifications
(C) calcifications caused by plasma cell mastitits
(D) numerous oil cysts
(B) malignant calcifications
- The MLO projection demostrates a large encapsulated lesion occupying almost the entire breast. The contour is sharp, and the lesion is radiolucent. This lesion is most likely to be
(A) oil cyst
(B) hematoma
(C) fibroadenoma
(D) lipoma
(D) lipoma
- The latent image on the PSP can last several hours but will lose
(A) 50% of its energy in 4 hours
(B) 50% of its energy in 8 hours
(C) 25% of its energy in 4 hours
(D) 25% of its energy in 8 hours
(D) 25% of its energy in 8 hours
- Disadvantages of the PSP or computed mammography (CM) technology includes
(A) reduced repeats
(B) wide latitude and dynamic range of the system
(C) PSPs sensitivity to radiation
(D) speed of the imaging system
(C) PSPs sensitivity to radiation
- In the nonscintillator direct-based flat-panel digital mammography (DM) system, the x-ray beam strikes a
(A) scintillator
(B) photoconductor
(C) thin film transistor
(D) photomultiplier
(B) photoconductor
- Spot compression
- applies more compression to a localized area
- can be perfored with magnification
- employs a coned collimated field to limit the area of interest
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
(B) 1 and 2
- To reduce the possibility of projecting the abdomen on the MLO image, the technologist could
(A) have the patient stand just at the detector and bend backward
(B) have the patient stand away fromt eh detector and bend forward
(C) have the patient turn medially to image the lateral breast on CC
(D) image the breasat in the lateral position instead
(B) have the patient stand away fromt eh detector and bend forward
- A four-projection mammography series shows a solitary tumor, with the halo sign, in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. The lesion is partially obscured. The recommended next step is
(A) biopsy
(B) ultrasonography
(C) stereotactic localization
(D) aspiration
(B) ultrasonography
- Why is the specimen magnified
(A) to ensure that the lesion has been completely removed
(B) to visualize the cacifications within the specimen
(C) to compare the magnified and nonmagnified images
(D) to check the number and placement of calcifications
(B) to visualize the cacifications within the specimen
- In digital mammography, a grossly underexposed image
(A) appears excessively noisy
(B) is too light
(C) is too dark
(D) appears correctly exposed
(A) appears excessively noisy
- Which of the following patients is likely to be diagnosed with pathological gynecomastia
(A) lactating woman
(B) older man
(C) premonopausal woman
(D) young man
(B) older man
- Montgomery glands are located on the breasts
(A) skin
(B) nipple
(C) areola
(D) muscle
(C) areola
- Aluminum can be used as the filtration material in
(A) digital units, when imaging dense breasts
(B) digital tomosynthesis units
(C) digital units, when imaging fatty breasts
(D) digital units, when using molybdenum targets
(B) digital tomosynthesis units
- Digital mammography units often use ___ as the target material
(A) molybdenum
(B) rhodium
(C) aluminum
(D) tungsten
(D) tungsten
- The ACS has recommended that women over age 40 years undergo CBE every
(A) year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
(A) year
- When imaging the breast usign the CC projection, if the detector is too high or too low, the IMF will be overelevated or underelevated. Overelevation of the IMF will result in
(A) loss of posterior and superior breast tissue in the image
(B) loss of anterior and posterior breast tissue in the image
(C) loss of superior and posterior breast tissue in the image
(D) loss of inferior and posterior breast tissue in the image
(D) loss of inferior and posterior breast tissue in the image
- Capture leemtns in the flat panel detector system can include all of the following except
(A) phtomultiplier
(B) cesium iodide
(C) gadolinium oxysulfide
(D) amorphous selenium
(A) phtomultiplier
- Which of the following involves the use of a small guage needle to remove cell samples from a suspected cancerous lesion int eh breast for cytoogical analysis
(A) core biopsy
(B) excisional biopsy
(C) needle localization
(D) fine needle biops (FNB)
(D) fine needle biops (FNB)
- A lesion is superimposed by breast tissue in the CC projection. A projection/position used to demonstrate the lesion int he same orientation but free of superimposition is the
(A) MLO
(B) ID
(C) XCCL
(D) RM
(D) RM
- In imaging the breast in the MLO projection, compression to the lower, anterior portion of the breast is compromised if
(A) the detector is too high
(B) the pectoral muscle extends to the nipple line
(C) too much axilla and shoulder are under compression
(D) the IMF is not horizontal
(C) too much axilla and shoulder are under compression
- The term involuation of the breast describes a process by which
(A) milk is removed from the breast by suckling
(B) breast epithelium proliferates during menstruation
(C) the glandular tissue in the breast is replaced by fat
(D) estrogen use causes an overall decrease in tissue density in the breast
(C) the glandular tissue in the breast is replaced by fat
- In imaging the breast for the CC projection, what technique is used to minimize skin folds in the lateral aspect of the breast
(A) lifting the posterior lateral aspect of the breast onto the detector
(B) drapign the contralateral breast over the corners of the detector
(C) having the patient turn the head to face the lateral breast
(D) the patients arm hanging relaxed on the side being imaged, with the humerus externally rotated
(D) the patients arm hanging relaxed on the side being imaged, with the humerus externally rotated
- Phosphor crystals in the flat panel detector system are classified as ___ phosphores when they are scattered through the phosphor level
(A) needle
(B) turbid
(C) amorphous
(D) selenium
(B) turbid
- Grid use in magnification mammography is contraindicated because
(A) the use of a grid will increase subject contrast
(B) scatter is already minimized
(C) grid use increases with scatter
(D) the use of grids would result in decreased subject contrast
(B) scatter is already minimized
- Which statement best describes a parallel or linear grid?
(A) lead strips are aligned adjacent to one another and placed lengthwise in the same direction within the structure of the grid
(B) lead strips are aligned at right angles to each other
(C) lead strips are designed to take advantage of the divergence of the x-ray beam as it leave the x-ray tube
(D) lead strips are designed to move during the exposure
(A) lead strips are aligned adjacent to one another and placed lengthwise in the same direction within the structure of the grid
- The main difference between the technlogist monitor and the radiologists monitor is
(A) display size
(B) resolution
(C) illuminance
(D) luminance
(B) resolution
- Scintillators are used to convert
(A) xrays to light
(B) xrays to electrons
(C) light to electrons
(D) electrons to light
(A) xrays to light
- The photoconductor in the direct digital radiography system is used to convert
(A) xray to light
(B) xrays to electrons
(C) light to electron
(D) electrons to light
(B) xrays to electrons
- The repeat rate should be analyzed if the rate changes from the previous measure rate by more than
(A) +/- 2% points
(B) +/- 3% points
(C) +/- 4% points
(D) +/- 5% points
(A) =/- 2% points
- A magnification image of a breast shows severa oval shaped radiolucent lesions with eggshell-like calcifications. These are most likely to be
(A) ductal papilloma
(B) fibroadenomas
(C) oil cysts
(D) hematomas
(C) oil cysts
- The thin-film transistor (TFT) in the flat panel detector systems collects
(A) light
(B) pixels
(C) electrons
(D) xrays
(C) electrons
- In general, the ID series are taken using the
(A) AT and MLO projection
(B) CC and ML projections
(C) CC and MLO projections
(D) CC and LM projections
(C) CC and MLO projections
- Currently, all technologists or radiographers performing mammography independently must have
(A) satisfied the final requirements of the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
(B) completed at least 20 hours of documented training in mammography
(C) performed at least 75 examinations under direct supervision of a qualifed technologist
(D) none of the above
(D) none of the above
- The criteria for a properly positioned MLO projection includes
- concave pectoral muscle on the anterior border
- fat visualized posterior to the fibroglandular tissues
- an open IMF
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3,
(B) 2 and 3
- A benign inflammatory conidtion of the lactiferous ducts leading to nipple discharge, nipple inversion or periareolar sepsis is called
(A) ductal ectasia
(B) Paget’s disease of the breast
(C) peau d’orange
(D) ductal papilloma
(A) ductal ectasia
- The cells lining the alvoli in lobules are called
(A) epithelial cells
(B) myoepithelial cells
(C) basement cells
(D) superficial cells
(A) epithelial cells
- Informed consent imploes that the patient
- has already signed the authorization for treatment
- was informed on the procedure or operation, its risks, possible consequence , and any alternative options
- the patient was given information about the procedure in his or her language
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2,3
(B) 2 and 3
- The technique for reshaping of the breast is called
(A) reduction mammoplasty
(B) mammoplasty
(C) breast augmentation
(D) breast biopsy
(B) mammoplasty
The detector elements (DELs) are located within the
(A) scintillator
(B) TFT
(C) CCD
(D) complementary metal oxide silicon (CMOS)
(B) TFT
- The CC projection in males will present the same difficulty as imaging small, firm breasted females. An added problem may be that
(A) male patients have more problems with compression
(B) the amle breast is smaller than the smallest female breast
(C) males have more muscular breast tissue
(D) hair on the chest of males makes compression difficult
(D) hair on the chest of males makes compression difficult
- Which of the following are considered agencies granting accreditation under FDA regulation
(A) state of california
(B) ACR
(C) New York State Department of Health
(D) State of Florida
(B) ACR
- Which alternative projection could be used, in addition to CC, in imaging a patient with a pacemaker
(A) ML
(B) lateromedial oblique (LMO)
(C) XCCL
(D) MLO
(B) lateromedial oblique (LMO)
- In addition to the patietns name, all mammographic reports should have the
(A) final assessment of findings
(B) hospital number or additional patient identifier
(C) name of the radiologist
(D) all of the above
(D) all of the above
Breast cancer is the number one killer in the ____ and the second in the ____
world
united states
What hormone increases cancer
estrogen
What type of exame is done when the patient is having no issues and its been at least 1 year since her last screening exam and she is 40 or older.
screening mammogram
_____ ____ screenins may be done on patiets as young as 30 but not younger than 25
high risk
What type of exam are done when the patient is complaining of an issue with her breast or her physician feels somethign in the breast
diagnostic exam
Anyone under 25 years old will get what type of exam
ultrasound
Acording to the ACS Women ages 40-44 consult with their physician so they can obtain _____ _____
informed consent
According to the ACS women 45-54 should undergo ____ ____ mammography
anual screening
According the the ACS women ages ___ and older can transition to every other year or continue anual screening
55
According the ACS women should continue screening mammography as long as their overall health is good and they have a life expectancy of ___ years or longer
10
True or False
The ACS recommends self breast exams and clinical breast exams
false
According to the ACR screening mammograms should starte at age ____ for average risk
40
According to the ACR women at higher risk should begin by age ___ but no sooner than ___
30
25
What percent of palpable lumps are not visualized on a mammogram
15%
_____ % of the time nipples arent in profile on both views
10%
You mark up to how many moles on one breast
7
scar tissues can grow and cahnge for up to __ years after surgery
2 years
The second most common spot for cancer to grow is where?
behind the nipple
What are the 3 distinct patterns for BSE
wedge
spiral
up and down
What part of your hand should be used for a BSE
2,3,4th pads of the fingers with light and deep touch
What are the 9 signs and symptoms
pain
lump
thickening
nipple discharge
skin changes
nipple and areolar changes
edema
erythema
dimpling
True or False
pain is not typically associated with breast cancer
true
When does pain in the breast become a concer
when the pain is focal (less than a quadrant of the tissue) and is severe
True of False
Lumpiness that occurs in both breast is normal for many women
true
Where does most of the glandular tissue reside
upper outer quadrant
True or False
A firm lump or area of thickening that suddenly presents in one breast is a concern
true
What are 3 reasons that a clear milky discharge may be present
nursing
breast stimulation
hormones
When is nipple discharge a concern
When it is bloody or milky and occurs without stimulation
What is the difference between and inverted nipple and a retracted nipple.
a retracted nipple will not come back out when stimulated
Aging, duct ectasia and breast cancer are all causes of
nipple retraction
What is the largest organ of the body
skin
What is the function of the skin
to protect the body
Where is the thickest skin of the breast
at the base (closest to the chest) (2mm)
Where is the thinnest skin of the breast
around the nipple (0.5 mm)
What are the 3 layers of the skin
epidermis
dermis
hypodermis
What is the outer layer of the breast called
epidermis
What is the iddle layer of the breast that consists of blood vessels, elastin fibers, lymphatic channels, oil/sweat glands
dermis
The circular colored skin around the nipple
areola
Lives in teh center of the areola
nipple
The areola contains what three things
nipple
montogmery glands
hair follicles
The areola contain between __ - __ opening of milk ducts
5-15
the small bumps on the ksin of the areola that enlarge durigng pregnancy
montgomery glands
The montgomery glands are a tyepe of ____ ____ gland that surrounds the nipple
modified sebaceous
The name for the opening of the montgomery gland
morgagni tubercles
what do the montgomery gland secrete? why?
bacteriostatic lubrictation to keep the areola and nipple lubricated and protected from infection during lactation
What glands secrete a bacteriostatic lubrication to keep the areola and nipple lubricated and protected from infection during lactation
montgomery glands
What is the angle of deflection where the breast tisse meets the chest wall below the breast
inframammary fold
What is the superior border of the breast
clavicle
Where does the superior border of the breast attach
2nd or 3rd rib
What is the inferior border of the breast
inframammary crease
Where does the inferior border of the breast attach
6th or 7th rib
What is the medial border of the breast
sternum
What is the lateral border of the breast
mid axillary line
What is the portion of the breast that is nearest the nipple
anterior
What is the breast nearest the chest wall
posterior
what is the middle portion of the breast called
central
The breast lies on top of what muscle
pectoralis major
How many facscial layers are there in the breast
2
The facial layers are made up of what?
connective tissue
What is the purpose of the fascial layers
sepearates the breast from the skin and separates the breast from the muscle
what are the two fascial layers
superficial fascia
deep fascia
what fascial layer separates the rbeast from the skin
superficial fascia
what fascial layer separates the breast from the muscle
deep fascia
in between the deep fascia and the rbeast tissue is an area call the
retro-mammary fat space
Beneath the skin is what type of fat
subcutaneous
The breast is firmyl attached to the deep fascia via suspensory ligaments called
coopers ligament
what is the order of the breast layers moving from the nipple back
skin
subcutaneous fat
superficial fascia
breast tissue
retromammary fat space
deep facia
pectoralis major
what is the extension of the breast tissue that extends into the axilla
axillary tail or tail of spence
Where is the largers portion of glandular tissue found
in the central and upper outer quadrant, extending into the tail of spence
Where is the largest number of cancers found
central and upper outer quadrant
What is the name of the ligaments that run under the skin of the breast through and aroudn the breast tissue and connect to the deep facia in from of the pec muscle
coopers ligaments
What are responsible for maintaining the shape and configuration of the breast
coopers ligaments
What plays a major role in preventing breast ptosis
coopers ligament
Appears on mammograms as liens from skin projecting to the chest wall
coopers ligament
Coopers ligaments are easiest to see on what views
lateral
MLO
Describe the mass shape
round
Describe the mass shape
oval
Describe the mass shape
lobulated
Describe the mass shape
irregular
Describe the mass shape
architectural distortion
Describe the margin shape
circumscribed
Describe the margin
obscure
Describe the margin
microlobulated
Describe the margin
indistinct
ill defined
Describe the margin
spiculated
