TEST 9: ENDODONTICS & PERIODONTICS Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

Following obturation, sealer was left in the coronal pulp chamber of tooth #9, and the conservative access was filled with a composite restoration. This could most likely result in:

A. Root canal failure
B. Discoloration of the tooth
C. Vertical root fracture
D. Inadequate coronal seal
E. Bacterial leakage

B. Discoloration of the tooth

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following tests is the least useful in endodontic diagnosis of children?

A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Electric pulp test
D. Cold test

C. Electric pulp test

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The major objectives of access preparation include all of the following except which one?

A. The attainment of direct, straight-line access to canal orifices.
B. The confirmation of clinical diagnosis.
C. The conservation of tooth structure.
D. The attainment of direct, straight-line access to the apical portion of the root.

B. The confirmation of clinical diagnosis.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following best describes the anesthetic effects of a posterior superior alveolar nerve block?

A. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary second and third molars.
B. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary first molar.
C. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary first and second premolars.
D. Pulpal anesthesia of the second premolar.

A. Pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary second and third molars.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following cannot be observed on a conventional radiograph?

A. Canal calcification of tooth #15.
B. Buccal curvature of the mesial root of tooth #30.
C. Type of canals of tooth #21.
D. Open apex of tooth #8.

B. Buccal curvature of the mesial root of tooth #30.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The indications for periradicular surgery include all of the following except which one?

A. Procedural accidents during previous nonsurgical endodontic treatment.
B. Irretrievable separated files in the canals.
C. Failed nonsurgical endodontic treatment and persisting radiolucency.
D. Treatment for a nonrestorable tooth.

D. Treatment for a nonrestorable tooth.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following teeth has the most consistent number of canal(s)?

A. Mandibular incisor
B. Mandibular canine
C. Maxillary canine
D. Mandibular premolar

C. Maxillary canine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is not a property of sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)?

A. Chelation
B. Tissue dissolution at higher concentrations
C. Microbicidal activity
D. Flotation of debris and lubrication

A. Chelation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Initial instrumentation in endodontic treatment is done to the level of the _____.

A. Radiographic apex
B. Dentinoenamel junction
C. Cementodentinal junction
D. Cementopulpal junction

C. Cementodentinal junction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient presents to your office with a discolored tooth #24 that was treated with root canal 4 years before. The material of choice for an internal bleaching procedure is:

A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Carbamide peroxide
C. Sodium perporate

C. Sodium perporate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Incision for drainage will release exudates from a soft tissue swelling, reducing irritants and pain from pressure buildup. What are the ideal conditions under which to perform an incision for drainage?

A. A tooth with reversible pulpitis and pain on mastication
B. A necrotic tooth with an indurated swelling at the apex
C. A necrotic tooth with a fluctuant swelling at the apex
D. A tooth with irreversible pulpitis and pain on percussion
E. A necrotic tooth with spontaneous pain but no swelling

C. A necrotic tooth with a fluctuant swelling at the apex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient presents to your office for an initial maintenance visit and you prescribe a full series of radiographs. During interpretation, you note as an incidental finding a periapical radiolucency on the mesial root of tooth #19. The tooth is restored with an intact amalgam MO restoration with intact margins and no signs of leakage or recurrent caries. The tooth is asymptomatic and responds normally to all vitality testing. Your patient has indicated a history of cancer in his medical history. The proper course of action in this case is:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Biopsy the lesion
C. Root canal therapy
D. Extraction

B. Biopsy the lesion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When making a diagnosis, the primary goal of your diagnostic tests is to reproduce the chief complaint. You test the suspected tooth for percussion sensitivity and palpation sensitivity. Your positive percussion findings can be interpreted as follows:

A. The tooth is nonvital and should be treated with root canal therapy.
B. There is inflammation in the PDL.
C. There is inflammation in the PDL and the surrounding periodontium.
D. There is a root fracture present.
E. The tooth is necrotic.

B. There is inflammation in the PDL.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When making a diagnosis as to the vitality of a tooth, you employ the electric pulp tester. You obtain a measurement that suggests the tooth is necrotic. With this information alone, you can determine that:

A. The tooth is necrotic.
B. Further testing is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis.
C. The tooth needs root canal therapy.
D. The tooth has an inflamed PDL.
E. The tooth has calcified canals.

B. Further testing is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You are doing a deep occlusal preparation on tooth #30. The tooth was asymptomatic prior to treatment. All caries have been removed, but you notice a pinpoint mechanical pulpal exposure. Hemorrhage is easily stopped. The treatment of choice is:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Indirect pulp cap
C. Root canal therapy
D. Direct pulp cap
E. Amalgam restoration

D. Direct pulp cap

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient presents to your office with pain in tooth #12. You perform a cold test with Endo Ice to determine vitality. If the tooth has irreversible pulpitis, the cold test will result in:

A. No response to the cold test
B. Severe pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold
C. Mild to moderate pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold
D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold

D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following materials is not used for prefabricated posts?

A. Stainless steel
B. Gold-pleated brass
C. Silver
D. Fiber-reinforced polymers
E. Titanium

C. Silver

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Miller’s index, a tooth has class II mobility when

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction
B. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction and it can be depressed vertically
C. Movement of less than 0.5 mm in any direction
D. Movement of less than 1mm in any direction

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following clinical signs and symptoms is characteristic of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?

A. Minimal bleeding
B. Ulceration of papillae (punched out)
C. Painless
D. Periodontal pocket formation

B. Ulceration of papillae (punched out)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is not a common oral manifestation of Crohn disease?

A. Hypertrophy of the lips
B. Hypertrophy of the gingival tissue
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Cobblestone appearance of the buccal mucosa and palate
E. Dry mouth

E. Dry mouth

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During placement of a post, what is the criterion for the post width?

A. It should not exceed 1/3 of the root width at its narrowest location.
B. It should not exceed 1/2 of the root width at its narrowest location.
C. No criteria since post width does not affect the retention of the post.

A. It should not exceed 1/3 of the root width at its narrowest location.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Presence of lingering pain after the removal of the stimulus is an indication of :

A. irreversible pulpitis
B. reversible pulpitis
C. necrosis
D. all of these

A. irreversible pulpitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived?

A. Dental sac
B. Dental papilla
C. Enamel organ
D. Epithelial root sheath
E. Outer enamel epithelium

A. Dental sac

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is accurate?

A. It is best accomplished with carbon dioxide snow.
B. It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality.
C. It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp.
D. It is best determined with a blast of air.

A. It is best accomplished with carbon dioxide snow.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Supragingival plaque: A. Is unattached or loosely adherent B. is dominated by gram-negative organisms C. acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet D. Is dominated by anaerobes

C. acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet

Which of the following is least affected by occlusal trauma? A. Alveolar bone B. gingival attachment C. Periodontal ligament D. Cementum

B. gingival attachment

The degree of gingival enlargement can be scored as follows: Grade 0, Grade I, Grade II and Grade III. Enlargement confined to the interdental papilla would be scored as: A. Grade 0 B. Grade I C. Grade II D. Grade III

B. Grade I

The outline form of the access cavity of which of the following teeth is trapezoid in shape? A. Maxillary first molar and mandibular first molar B. Mandibular first molar and maxillary second molar C. Maxillary first molar and maxillary second premolar D. Mandibular second premolar and maxillary second molar E. Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar

E. Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar

A patient presents to your office with a fractured tooth #9. The fracture involves enamel, dentin, and pulp. This fracture can be classified as: A. Root fracture B. Crown–root fracture C. Complicated crown fracture D. Uncomplicated crown fracture

C. Complicated crown fracture

You are halfway through the root canal treatment on tooth #30. To prevent bacterial growth in the canal between appointments, you decide to use an intracanal medication. The interappointment medicament of choice is: A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate C. Chlorhexidine D. Calcium hydroxide E. Gutta-percha

D. Calcium hydroxide

The main cells involved in chronic infection are lymphocytes and: A. Plasma cells B. Mast cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages

D. Macrophages

A 9-year-old patient has avulsed tooth #8 in a playground accident. His mother has recovered the tooth and has called to ask how it should be stored while she gets her son to your office. The best way to store an avulsed tooth for the best prognosis is: A. Dry B. Tap water C. Saline D. Saliva E. Milk

E. Milk

Which of the following morphologic variations tend to accelerate existing periodontal disease? I. Shoveling trait in central incisors II. Excessively long roots III. Enamel projections IV. Fused roots V. Excessively short roots Choose the correct answer. A. I, II B. I, II, III, V C. III, IV, V D. IV, V

C. III, IV, V

The biochemical preparation of root canals as a pre-requisite for obturation is A. natural defense mechanism of the patient B. effective use of medicaments C. proper antibiotic therapy D. shaping and debridement of canals

D. shaping and debridement of canals

Gutta percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using _____. A. eugenol B. ethyl chloride C. chloroform D. alcohol

C. chloroform

The desired tissue response after root canal treatment on a tooth with periapical lesion are the following EXCEPT A. deposition of apical cementum B. regeneration of alveolar bone C. apical seal D. regeneration of dentin

D. regeneration of dentin

Which of the following are cells of the innate immune system? a. Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages b. T cells and B cells c. Mast cells and dendritic cells d. Plasma cells A. a and b B. a and c C. b and d D. b and c

B. a and c

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells? A. Neutrophils B. T-lymphocytes C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells

C. Macrophages

Which of the following are the most important proteinases involved in destruction of the periodontal tissues? A. Hylauronidase B. Matrix metalloproteinases C. Glucuronidase D. Serine proteinases

B. Matrix metalloproteinases

The predominant inflammatory cells in the periodontal pocket are _____. A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages

C. Neutrophils

The bacteria that form plaque & calculus release toxins that stimulates the immune system to over produce powerful infection-fighting factors called: A. Free radicals B. cytokines C. amides D. Lymphokines

B. cytokines

In the chronic stage of gingivitis which cells predominate? A. Mast cells B. Plasma cells C. Lymphocytes D. Macrophages

B. Plasma cells

Gingivitis during pregnancy results from an A. Increase in local irritation by an alteration of the saliva B. Alteration of tissue response to local irritation C. Overgrowth of tissue which is unrelated to local irritation D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

Curettage refers to A. Soft tissue debridement of the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket B. Removal of calcified deposits from the gingival sulcus and/or periodontal pocket C. Scaling and/or planing of the root surface D. Removal of dental plaque from the coronal surfaces

A. Soft tissue debridement of the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket

A 35-year-old woman was in a horse back riding accident less than 1 hour ago. On clinical examination, the tooth is painful to palpation and has slight mobility. The tooth is fractured in the occlusal third and there appears to be no exposure. A periapical radiograph reveals fracture above the pulpal space and no periapical radiolucency. The treatment of choice for the asymptomatic maxillary central incisor is: A. Root canal treatment in the occlusal segment B. RCT in the occlusal segment and 2 weeks of passive splinting C. RCT in both segments D. RCT in the occlusal segment and surgical removal of the apical segment E. No treatment at this time and continued observation

E. No treatment at this time and continued observation

The most effective method of diagnosing the origin of fistula is: A. Visually locating the closest tooth to the fistula B. Percussing all of the teeth in the area of the fistula C. Tracing the fistula with a gutta percha point in conjunction with the radiograph D. Periodontal probing of all teeth in the area E. Take radiograph from two different angles

C. Tracing the fistula with a gutta percha point in conjunction with the radiograph

You are playing a soft ball game in Central Park. Your good friend is the catcher. He is not wearing a mask. A foul tip hits him in the mouth and the left central incisor is avulsed and lands in the dirt behind the home plate. Your office is 10 minutes away. The best treatment for the tooth is: A. Scrape off all the debris and remove the contaminated periodontal ligament; then replant immediately B. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant C. Gently clean the tooth and carefully remove the periodontal ligament and initiate endodontic therapy D. Gently clean the tooth of debris with saline; carefully remove several millimeters of the apex so as not to disturb the remaining periodontal ligament

B. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant

A new patient comes to your office. He has no adverse symptoms. On routine radiographic examination, you notice apical radiolucency on a root-canal–treated lateral incisor, which was adequately restored with a post and a PFM crown. The RCT was completed 2 years ago. The radiograph shows an adequate widening and filling of the canal. The patient has no contributory medical history. The tooth is asymptomatic. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Chronic apical periodontitis B. Foreign body reaction C. Apical radicular cyst D. Scar tissue E. Irreversible pulpitis

D. Scar tissue

The purposes of periodontal dressings (packs) include which of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Stop persistent bleeding B. Maintain the sutured position of the flaps C. Improve patient comfort D. Prevent mechanical injury to healing tissues

A. Stop persistent bleeding

In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat: A. The periodontic component first B. The endodontic component first C. Both components at the same time D. Them any way you want to

B. The endodontic component first

Generalized malaise and elevated body temperature are most frequently associated with A. acute pulpitis. B. acute apical abscess. C. necrotic pulp. D. chronic apical periodontitis.

B. acute apical abscess.

Which of these is not a diagnostic feature of occlusal trauma? A. Widening of periodontal surface B. Loss of alveolar bone C. Periodontal pocket formation D. Increased in tooth mobility

C. Periodontal pocket formation

Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused by: i. saliva on the tooth ii. secondary dentin obliterating the pulp chamber iii. multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3

E. 1,2 & 3

Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth? A. Ether B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Chloroform D. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide

E. Hydrogen peroxide

Which of the following antibiotics is used with a biodegradable polymer that is slowly released when inserted into an activity site of periodontitis? A. Tetracycline B. penicillin G C. Chloromycetin D. Amoxycillin

A. Tetracycline

Which is an indication for root amputation or hemisection? A. Preservation of strategically important roots and its accompanying crown B. Root fusion or proximity C. Severe periodontal disease D. Inability to complete root canal treatment on either half

A. Preservation of strategically important roots and its accompanying crown

A patient received a large MOD composite restoration 1 week ago. She is now experiencing intense, spontaneous pain, with exacerbation of symptoms occurring when she applies heat or cold or when she eats sweets. The pulpal diagnosis is: A. Pulp necrosis B. Acute periapical periodontitis C. Reversible pulpitis D. Traumatic occlusion E. Irreversible pulpitis

E. Irreversible pulpitis

A 12-year-old boy has arrived in your office after a fall that fractured tooth #9 up to the gingival margin on the mesial aspect with a pulp exposure. What is the appropriate treatment? A. Extraction B. Pulpotomy C. Direct pulp cap D. Root canal therapy E. Apexogenesis

D. Root canal therapy

Root canal therapy was completed on a nonvital tooth that suffered trauma 5 years prior. At the time of obturation, the tooth exhibited a periapical radiolucency on radiographic examination. Radiographically, healing should be visualized in: A. 1 week B. 6 weeks C. 1 month D. 6 months E. 1 year

D. 6 months

A patient presents with a chief complaint of pain in the upper right quadrant. Cold test produces a response lingering for 1 minute on tooth #4. In addition, tooth #4 is sensitive to percussion with the blunt end of an instrument. What is the pulpal and periapical diagnosis? A. Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex B. Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis C. Reversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis D. Necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis E. Necrotic pulp, acute apical periodontitis

B. Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

You have been treating a patient in your practice for 20 years. As your patient has aged, numerous changes have occurred in his pulp tissues. All of the following can be associated with age-related changes to the dental pulp except: A. Decreased cellular elements B. Pulp stone formation C. Radiographic obliteration of the pulp space D. Increased response to electric pulp testing E. Decreased vascularity

D. Increased response to electric pulp testing

Your patient presents with diffuse pain in her upper right quadrant. She is unable to determine the offending tooth. She states that the pain is exacerbated when she drinks cold liquids but not with mastication. Tooth #4 has an existing MOD amalgam restoration, as does tooth #5. All other teeth in the quadrant are free of restorations and caries. What is the appropriate first-line diagnostic pulp test? A. Electric pulp test B. Heat test C. Cold test D. Test cavity E. Percussion test

C. Cold test

All of the following factors may affect endodontic anesthesia except A. Fatigue B. Anxiety C. Tissue inflammation D. Tooth type E. Previous unsuccessful anesthesia

D. Tooth type

You have placed files in all three canals located in tooth #19 during a root canal procedure to obtain measurement. Upon taking the first radiograph, the two files in the distal canal are superimposed. For your second radiograph, you move the cone to the mesial. The resulting image shows both files in the distal canal. The file that has moved to the mesial is positioned: A. Mesially B. Distally C. Buccally D. Lingually E. Cannot be determined

D. Lingually

You are instrumenting a canal with a size 30, 25 mm k-type file. What does each of the sizes denote, respectively? A. The length of the file and the diameter of the tip of the file B. The diameter of the tip of the file and the length of the file C. The taper of the file and the length of the file D. The diameter of the tip of the file and the taper of the file E. The length of the file and the taper of the file

B. The diameter of the tip of the file and the length of the file 30— diameter 25 —length

An Asian patient presents to your office with pain bilaterally in her lower second premolars. Both teeth are sensitive to percussion and show periapical radiolucencies on radiographic examination. The teeth do not respond to either cold or electric pulp tests. There is an irregular bulge on the occlusal surfaces of each tooth. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Irreversible pulpitis B. Dens invaginatus C. Dens evaginatus D. Pulp stones E. Internal resorption

C. Dens evaginatus

A 10- year-old boy comes to your office with a coronal fracture of #8. The accident happened about 1 hour ago, and there is a large pulp exposure. On x-ray you see the apex of #8 is still not closed. Treatment would consist of A. Direct pulp cap with calcium hydroxide B. Pulpectomy and later gutta-percha fill C. Pulpotomy with Ca(OH)2 D. Pulpectomy and fill with Ca(OH)2 E. Smoothing edges and placing zinc oxide-eugenol over the exposure

C. Pulpotomy with Ca(OH)2

The primary purpose of the endodontic access opening is to A. Remove the coronal pulpal tissue B. Allow for removal of the canal contents C. Allow for the preparation of the dentinal walls D. Establish a straight line access to the apical foramen E. Allow the enlargement of the coronal orifice

D. Establish a straight line access to the apical foramen

During a routine radiographic evaluation, you notice bone loss extending from the cement-enamel junction to the apex of tooth #21. Further evaluation reveals that probing depths are above normal limits all around the tooth however, at one point the probe drops precipitously to an even greater depth. Vitality test is negative. This patient may require: A. Extensive periodontal treatment followed by vitality re-assessment B. Endodontic treatment only C. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontic treatment D. Root and surgery

C. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontic treatment

All of the following statements regarding ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA) are true, EXCEPT: A. It can decalcify up to a 50 mm thin layer of the root canal wall B. Normally it is used in a concentration of 17% C. RC-Prep and EDTAC are other preparations of EDTA D. It is also an excellent irrigation solution

D. It is also an excellent irrigation solution

Which of the following is not suggested to be used for irrigation of a canal during root canal therapy? A. Urea peroxide (Gly-Oxide) B. Hydrogen Peroxide C. Sodium Hypochlorite D. Calcium Hydroxide

D. Calcium Hydroxide

A 4-year-old child has fallen and hit his central incisor. Overtime, the tooth has become increasingly more discolored and does not resolve. The most likely cause of the discoloration is: A. Endemic fluorosis B. Systemic drugs C. Enamel hypocalcification D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage E. Amelogenesis imperfecta

D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage

In an infected canal, the two most commonly found organism are _____. A. streptococci and staphylococci B. lactobacilli and streptococci C. staphylococci and enterococci D. enterococci and streptococci

D. enterococci and streptococci

Which of the following are part of Preliminary Phase therapy? A. Treatment of emergencies B. Extraction of hopeless teeth C. Plaque control D. Removal of calculus A. a, b, and c B. b, c, and d C. a and b only D. b and d only

C. a and b only

Polymorphisms in which of the following genes have been associated with severe chronic periodontitis? A. IL-6 B. IL-1 C. TNF D. PGE2

B. IL-1

Given the same amount of attachment loss and same pocket depth, a single-rooted tooth and a multirooted tooth have the same prognosis. The closer the base of the pocket is to the apex of the tooth, the worse the prognosis. A. Both statements are true. B. Both statements are false. C. First statement is true. Second statement is false. D. First statement is false. Second statement is true.

D. First statement is false. Second statement is true.

Which of the following is most important in determining the prognosis for a tooth? A. Probing pocket depth B. Bleeding on probing C. Clinical attachment level D. Level of alveolar bone

C. Clinical attachment level

Patients with which of the following should not be treated with ultrasonic instruments? A. Deep periodontal pockets B. Edematous tissue C. Infectious diseases D. Controlled diabetes

C. Infectious diseases

Offset angulation is a characteristic feature of _____. A. Sickle scalers B. Universal curettes C. Area-specific curettes D. Chisels

C. Area-specific curettes

What is the most important procedure to perform during the initial postoperative visits following periodontal surgery? A. Plaque removal B. Visual assessment of the soft tissue C. Periodontal probing D. Bleeding index

A. Plaque removal

When performing a laterally repositioned flap, which of the following must be considered relative to the donor site? A. Presence of bone on the facial B. Width of attached gingiva C. Thickness of attached gingiva D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which class of bony defect responds best to regenerative therapy? A. One-walled B. Two-walled C. Three-walled D. Shallow crater

C. Three-walled

The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is . A. Tooth migration B. Tooth abrasion C. Tooth mobility D. Tooth attrition

C. Tooth mobility

For most periodontitis-affected patients, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments? A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 year

B. 3 months

A patient complains of recent severe pain to percussion of a tooth. The most likely cause is _____. A. Acute periradicular periodontitis B. Chronic periradicular periodontitis C. Reversible pulpitis D. Irreversible pulpitis

A. Acute periradicular periodontitis

Bone-fill procedures (new attachment) are most successful in treating: A. Trifurcation involvements B. Deep, two-wall craters C. Narrow, three-wall defects D. Osseous defects with one remaining wall

C. Narrow, three-wall defects

Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss in spite of apparently appropriate therapy? A. Juvenile periodontitis B. Adult periodontitis C. Refractory periodontitis D. Rapidly progressive periodontitis

C. Refractory periodontitis

Expanded Tetrafluoro-ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy to: A. Regenerate bone B. Cover and protect surgical wound C. Barrier against collagen regeneration D. Barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation

D. Barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation

The process of trephination includes a: A. surgical opening created in soft tissue for the purpose of releasing exudate or decompressing the area of swelling B. surgical perforation of the alveolar cortical bone to release accumulated tissue exudate C. surgical procedure to remove diseased or reactive tissue and/or foreign material from the alveolar bone in the apical or lateral region surrounding an endodontically treated tooth D. preparation of a flat surface by the excision of the apical portion of the root and any subsequent removal of attached soft tissue

B. surgical perforation of the alveolar cortical bone to release accumulated tissue exudate

Root resection involves A. a biologically acceptable restorative material placed into a root-end preparation B. surgical removal of a soft and/or hard tissue specimen for histopathologic examination C. surgical separation of a multi-rooted tooth through the furcation in such a way that a root and the associated portion of the crown may be removed D. surgical removal of an entire root/s leaving the crown of the tooth intact

D. surgical removal of an entire root/s leaving the crown of the tooth intact

During instrumentation of tooth #19, you realize that you are unable to negotiate your file to the complete working length. The procedural error that has occurred is most likely: A. Ledging B. Instrument separation C. Vertical root fracture D. Inadequate straight line access E. Furcation perforation

A. Ledging

During instrumentation of the mesial root of tooth #30, your file separates and remains stuck in the canal. In an attempt to remedy this procedural error, you attempt to bypass and remove the instrument. If you are unable to remove the instrument, what should your next step be? A. Extract the tooth B. Perform a root amputation C. Perform a bicuspidation of the tooth D. Prepare and obturate up to the separated instrument E. Obturate the distal canals only

D. Prepare and obturate up to the separated instrument

One of the most serious procedural errors that can occur during root canal therapy is instrument aspiration. What is the most important precaution an operator can take to prevent instrument aspiration? A. Proper rubber dam isolation B. Only use rotary files C. Use adequate lubrication during instrumentation D. Recapitulate between each file E. Irrigate often with sodium hypochlorite

A. Proper rubber dam isolation

A patient presents to your office for initial examination. A root canal procedure had been completed on tooth #3 a year prior. Upon clinical examination, you observe a narrow periodontal pocket measuring the full length of your probe in the area of the mesial root. Upon radiographic examination, you detect a J-shaped radiolucency surrounding the mesial root. Your initial diagnosis is: A. Incomplete debridement of the mesial root B. Ledging of the mesial root C. Underobturation of the mesial root D. Periodontal abscess E. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

E. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

You completed a root canal procedure on tooth #9 approximately 6 months ago. Your patient is still reporting persistent symptoms of acute apical pathosis including sensitivity on mastication and a dull ache, and the periradicular radiolucency that was visible on your obturation radiograph has not appeared to decrease in size. The most likely reason for the persistence of these symptoms is: A. Phantom tooth pain B. Root canal failure C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Traumatic occlusion E. Myofascial pain

B. Root canal failure

After completion of root canal therapy, you call your patient to evaluate the treatment outcome. What are the criteria for successful root canal therapy? 1. Absence of pain 2. Absence of swelling 3. Sinus tract healing 4. No residual probing defects 5. Resolution or healing of periapical lesions A. 1, 3, 5 B. 1, 2, 4, 5 C. 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 E. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Retrograde (apical resection surgery) treatment is considered over orthograde treatment (root canal retreatment) for patients by their dentist after their root canal therapy is considered to have failed. When should retrograde treatment be performed over orthograde treatment? A. When an expensive, yet coronally sealed restoration would have to be refabricated to accommodate orthograde treatment B. When a patient is anxious about traditional retreatment procedures C. If the goal of treatment is to eliminate microorganisms from the root canal system D. When the root canal filling materials are easy to remove E. If the treating dentist prefers surgical intervention

A. When an expensive, yet coronally sealed restoration would have to be refabricated to accommodate orthograde treatment

An 8-year-old patient presents to your office for an emergency visit with a traumatic exposure of tooth #9. The treatment of choice for this patient is: A. Root-end closure procedure/apexification B. Traditional root canal therapy C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis D. Partial pulpectomy E. Temporization and reevaluation in 1 week

C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis

D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage

An objective of incision and drainage is: A. To evacuate exudates and purulence from a soft tissue swelling B. Incision for drainage increases discomfort C. Drainage through the soft tissue accomplished most effectively when swelling is firm and non fluctuant D. Incision for drainage is always made horizontally into the swelling

A. To evacuate exudates and purulence from a soft tissue swelling

How should a vital second permanent molar with a 2.0-mm exposure on a 12-year-old patient be treated? A. Apexification B. Direct pulp capping C. Indirect pulp capping D. Extract E. Apexogenesis

A. Apexification

At what stage is endodontic treatment considered complete? A. When a temporary restoration is placed and the rubber dam removed. B. When canals are seared off and plugged. C. When the coronal restoration is completed. D. When the patient is asymptomatic.

C. When the coronal restoration is completed.

What is the primary advantage of using a rotary instrument with a variable taper in endodontic treatment? A. Improved cutting efficiency B. Enhanced flexibility C. Increased durability D. Better adaptation to the root canal anatomy

D. Better adaptation to the root canal anatomy

Aqueous EDTA is primarily used to _____. A. Dissolve organic matter B. Dissolve inorganic matter C. Kill bacteria D. Prevent sealer from extruding out of the canal space

B. Dissolve inorganic matter

A noncarious tooth with deep periodontal pockets that do not involve the apical third of the root has developed an acute pulpitis. There is no history of trauma other than a mild prematurity in lateral excursion. What is the most likely explanation for the pulpitis? A. Normal mastication plus toothbrushing has driven microorganisms deep into tissues with subsequent pulp involvement at the apex. B. During a general bacteremia, bacteria settled in this aggravated pulp and produced an acute pulpitis. C. Repeated thermal shock from air and fluids getting into the deep pockets caused the pulpitis. D. An accessory pulp canal in the gingival or the middle third of the root was in contact with the pockets.

D. An accessory pulp canal in the gingival or the middle third of the root was in contact with the pockets.

On a radiograph, the facial root of a maxillary first premolar would appear distal to the lingual root if the ___. A. Vertical angle of the cone was increased B. Vertical angle of the cone was decreased C. X-ray head was angled from a distal position relative to the premolar D. X-ray head was angled from a mesial position relative to the premolar

D. X-ray head was angled from a mesial position relative to the premolar

WBC migration into tissue spaces from capillaries is called A. Apoptosis B. Migration C. Chemotaxis D. Diapedesis

D. Diapedesis

E. Milk

Which of the following is NOT a predictable objective of periodontal surgery? A. Remove or eliminate the lesion B. Regenerate interdental papillae C. Promote gingival reattachment D. Pocket reduction E. Treat and/or control the etiology

B. Regenerate interdental papillae

Which of the following are cells of the innate immune system? I. Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages II. T cells and B cells III. Mast cells and dendritic cells IV. Plasma cells A. I and II B. I and III C. II and IV D. II and III

B. I and III

Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as: A. Enamel B. Dental plaque C. Saliva D. Dental caries

B. Dental plaque

Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as: A. Aggressive periodontitis B. Chronic periodontitis C. Refractory periodontitis D. Juvenile periodontitis

C. Refractory periodontitis

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells? A. Neutrophils B. T-lymphocytes C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells

C. Macrophages

The main cells involved in chronic infection are lymphocytes and: A. Plasma cells B. Mast cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages

D. Macrophages

A patient presents to your office with pain in tooth #12. You perform a cold test with Endo Ice to determine vitality. If the tooth has irreversible pulpitis, the cold test will result in: A. No response to the cold test B. Severe pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold C. Mild to moderate pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold

D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold

D. Direct pulp cap

Which of the following statements best describes treatment options for a separated instrument at the initial stage of cleaning and shaping? A. Immediate attempt to remove the instrument. B. Stop canal instrumentation, do not attempt removal, and obturate. C. Attempt to bypass the obstructed instrument. D. Both A and C are options.

D. Both A and C are options.

Which of the following is the most significant cause of ledge formation? A. Infection B. Remaining debris within the canal C. No straight-line access

C. No straight-line access

A classic teardrop-shaped periradicular lesion on a radiograph can be indicative of a vertical root fracture. The prognosis of a vertical root fracture is hopeless, and the tooth should be extracted. A. First statement is true, second is false. B. First statement is false, second is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

C. Both statements are true.

The 02 taper on hand K-files is _____. A. 0.2-mm increase in diameter per 1-mm increase in length B. 0.02-mm increase in diameter per 1-mm increase in length C. 0.2-mm increase in diameter per 2-mm increase in length D. 0.02-mm increase in diameter per 2-mm increase in length

B. 0.02-mm increase in diameter per 1-mm increase in length

Which of the following factors affects long-term prognosis of teeth after perforation repair? A. Size of the defect. B. Location of the defect. C. Time elapsed between the perforation and its repair. D. All of the choices are true.

D. All of the choices are true.

Which of the following statements best describes treatment options for a separated instrument (e.g., finger spreader) at the filling stage of treatment? A. Immediately attempt to remove the instrument. B. Do not attempt removal and proceed to obturate. C. Attempt to bypass the obstructed instrument. D. Both A and C are options.

B. Do not attempt removal and proceed to obturate.

Endodontically treated posterior teeth are more susceptible to fracture than untreated posterior teeth. The best explanation for this is _____. A. Moisture loss B. Loss of root vitality C. Plastic deformation of dentin D. Destruction of the coronal architecture

D. Destruction of the coronal architecture

What is the classification of furcation involvement >1mm but not through-and-through? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

B. Class II

Curette used for buccal and lingual of posterior teeth, especially around the bifurcation. A. 5/6 B. 7/8 C. 9/10 D. 11/12

C. 9/10

D. Increased response to electric pulp testing

A patient presents to your office with a chief complaint of dull, diffuse pain in the lower right quadrant. The nerve fibers responsible for this sensation are: A. Myelinated A fibers B. Unmyelinated A fibers C. Myelinated C fibers D. Unmyelinated C fibers E. Subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow

D. Unmyelinated C fibers

On physical and radiographic examination, your patient presents with DO decay and a gingival swelling at tooth #28. The conical defect on the tooth probes more than 12 mm on the buccal aspect and does not respond to electrical pulp testing. There is no mobility, and this condition is localized to the affected tooth. The periapical radiograph shows destruction of the periodontium from the level of the gingival sulcus to the apex of the tooth. Proper treatment of this condition includes: A. Endodontic treatment only B. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment C. Periodontal treatment only D. Periodontal treatment followed by endodontic treatment E. Extraction

B. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment

Periodontitis that is characterized by low plaque scores and low responsiveness to periodontal therapy. A. Aggressive Periodontitis B. Pregnancy Induced Periodontitis C. Chronic Periodontitis D. Refractory Periodontitis

D. Refractory Periodontitis

A seven year old boy arrives at the office with a complaint that tooth #8 is draining pus into his mouth. The tooth had been traumatized earlier. The vitality tests reveal no response. What is the treatment of choice? A. Extraction B. Apexogenesis / pulpotomy C. Root canal treatment D. It is only necessary to give the child analgesics and antibiotics for pain and infection E. Apexification

E. Apexification

In a clinically healthy periodontium, the microbial flora is largely composed of: A. Gram-negative obligate microorganisms B. Gram-negative facultative microorganisms C. Gram-positive obligate microorganisms D. Gram-positive facultative microorganisms

D. Gram-positive facultative microorganisms

If a 7-year-old patient presents with early loss of Tooth A, maxillary right second primary molar, what is the appropriate space maintainer that can be used? A. Nance appliance B. Distal shoe C. Band-and-loop D. Lower lingual arch

C. Band-and-loop

Which of the following is not a feature of primary resistance form in amalgam preparation? A. Maintain as much sound structure as possible B. Rounded axiopulpal line angle in class II preparation C. Vertical walls that converge occlusally D. Adequate thickness of amalgam

C. Vertical walls that converge occlusally❌ RETENTION form

The predominant inflammatory cells in the periodontal pocket are _____. A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages

C. Neutrophils

PMNs are the predominantly immune cells in which stage of gingivitis? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

A. I NOTES: I- Neutropils II- Lymphocytes III- Plasma cells

An "implant level impression” means that: A. The impression coping (or impression post) was attached to the implant B. The impression coping was attached to the abutment C. The impression captured or recorded the actual abutment attached to the implant D. None of the above

A. The impression coping (or impression post) was attached to the implant

The highest rate of implant failure occurs in: A. Type 1 bone B. Type 2 bone C. Type 3 bone D. Type 4 bone

D. Type 4 bone NOTES: Type 1 bone— Anterior mandible Type 2 bone— Posterior mandible Type 3 bone— Anterior maxilla Type 4 bone— Posterior maxilla

Which of the following intracanal instruments is designed for the removal of pulp tissue, cotton pellet absorbent points, and other soft materials, but not for canal enlargement? A. Files B. Reamers C. Broaches D. None of the above

C. Broaches

Which class of bony defect responds best to regenerative therapy? A. One-walled B. Two-walled C. Three-walled D. Shallow crater

C. Three-walled

The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is A. Tooth migration B. Tooth abrasion C. Tooth mobility D. Tooth attrition

C. Tooth mobility

For most periodontitis-affected patients, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments? A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 year

B. 3 months

A. Acute periradicular periodontitis

An 8-year-old boy received a traumatic injury to a maxillary central incisor. One day later, the tooth failed to respond to electric and thermal vitality tests. This finding dictates _____. A. Pulpectomy B. Apexification C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy D. Delay for the purpose of re-evaluation

D. Delay for the purpose of re-evaluation

What is the safest recommended intracoronal bleaching chemical? A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Sodium perborate C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Carbamide peroxide

B. Sodium perborate

What is the radiographic sign of successful pulpotomy in a permanent tooth? A. Open apex B. That the apex has formed C. Loss of periradicular lucency D. No internal resorption

B. That the apex has formed

Loss of tooth substance by mechanical wear is _____. A. Abrasion B. Attrition C. Erosion D. Abfraction

A. Abrasion

The width of keratinized gingiva is measured as the distance from the _____. A. Free gingival margin to the mucogingival junction B. Cementoenamel junction to the mucogingival junction C. Free gingival groove to the mucogingival junction D. Free gingival margin to the base of the pocket

A. Free gingival margin to the mucogingival junction

Which of the following best distinguishes periodontitis from gingivitis? A. Probing pocket depth B. Bleeding on probing C. Clinical attachment loss D. Presence of suppuration

C. Clinical attachment loss

A 22-year-old college student presents with oral pain, erythematous gingival tissues with blunt papillae covered with a pseudomembrane, spontaneous gingival bleeding, and halitosis. There is no evidence of clinical attachment loss. What form of periodontal disease does this patient most likely have? A. Gingivitis associated with dental plaque B. Localized aggressive periodontitis C. Generalized chronic periodontitis D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

When is an application of heater-injected gutta percha potentially beneficial? A. When there is an open apex B. When there are aberration or irregularities within the canal C. When the canal is non negotiable D. When the canal is non negotiable

B. When there are aberration or irregularities within the canal

Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily because of: A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. B. Its antimicrobial activity. C. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation D. Its ability to temporarily seal the canal. E. None of the above

B. Its antimicrobial activity.

The primary function of which instrument is to fracture or crush large deposits of tenacious calculus? A. Hoe scalers B. Files C. Chisel scalers D. Quetin furcation curettes

B. Files NOTES: Sickle- Used primarily to remove SUPRAGINGIVAL calculus Curette- for remiving deep SUBGINGIVAL calculus, root planing altered cementum, and removing the soft tissue lining the periodontal pocket Hoes- used for removal of LEDGES or RINGS of calculus, primarily from broad or flat root surfaces Chisel - to clean INTERPROXIMAL surfaces of the teeth that are too closely positioned to permit access to other scalers Files- breaking up TENACIOUS or LARGE calcular deposits

B. The endodontic component first

D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage

Following obturation, sealer was left in the coronal pulp chamber of tooth #9, and the conservative access was filled with a composite restoration. This could most likely result in: A. Root canal failure B. Discoloration of the tooth C. Vertical root fracture D. Inadequate coronal seal E. Bacterial leakage

B. Discoloration of the tooth

C. Dens evaginatus

When instrumenting and subsequently obturating a root canal, the length should be determined by the: A. Anatomic apex B. Apical foramen C. Apical constriction

C. Apical constriction

What is guided tissue regeneration? A. A soft tissue graft is used to correct mucogingival junction involvement B. Placement of nonresorbable barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect C. A free gingival graft used to increase the amount of attached gingiva D. Placement of an autograft to treat a bony defect

B. Placement of nonresorbable barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect

While performing nonsurgical endodontic therapy you detect a ledge. What should you do? A. Use a smaller instrument and get by the ledge. B. Fill as far as you have reamed. C. Use a small, round bur and remove the ledge. D. Continue working gently with larger files to remove the ledge.

A. Use a smaller instrument and get by the ledge.

Which perforation location has the best prognosis? A. Coronal third of root B. Apical third of root C. Chamber floor D. Middle third of root

B. Apical third of root

Which of the following are the most important proteinases involved in destruction of the periodontal tissues? A. Hyaluronidase B. Matrix metalloproteinases C. Glucuronidase D. Serine proteinases

B. Matrix metalloproteinases

Which of the following are part of Preliminary Phase therapy? I. Treatment of emergencies II. Extraction of hopeless teeth III. Plaque control IV. Removal of calculus A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I and II D. II and IV

C. I and II

Prolonged, unstimulated night pain suggests which of the following conditions of the pulp? A. Pulpal necrosis B. Mild hyperemia C. Reversible pulpitis D. Periodontal abscess

A. Pulpal necrosis

Direct pulp cap is recommended for teeth with _____. A. Carious exposures B. Mechanical exposures C. Calcification in the pulp chambers D. Closed apices more than teeth with open apices

B. Mechanical exposures

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for a 7-year-old child with a nonvital tooth 30 with buccal sinus tract? A. Gutta-percha filling B. Gutta-percha filling followed by root-end surgery C. Extraction D. Apexogenesis E. Apexification

E. Apexification

What is the purpose of guided tissue regeneration? A. To hasten healing of the surgical site B. To prevent epithelial tissue migration C. To prevent osseous remodelling D. To create a barrier against microorganisms

B. To prevent epithelial tissue migration

Tooth obturated with silver points is badly broken. Silver point is visible. What should you do? A. Build up the tooth B. Remove the silver point and clean the canal and reobturate with gutta percha C. cut the visible silver point then build up D. No treatment

B. Remove the silver point and clean the canal and reobturate with gutta percha

An advantage to AH26 as an endodontic sealer is A. that is can be distinguished from gutta percha B. its low toxicity C. long working time D. the release of formaldehyde for setting

C. long working time

An advantage to AH26 as an endodontic sealer is A. that is can be distinguished from gutta percha B. its low toxicity C. long working time D. the release of formaldehyde for setting

C. long working time

What is the bleaching agent in nightguard vital tooth bleaching? A. Superoxol B. Sodium perborate C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Carbamide peroxide

D. Carbamide peroxide (custom-tray technique)

The apical portion of maxillary lateral incisor usually curves to the _____. A. Facial B. Palatal C. Mesial D. Distal

D. Distal

What part of the alveolar bone is involved with suprabony or infrabony pockets? A. Cribriform plate B. Trabecular bone C. Alveolar crest D. Lamina dura

C. Alveolar crest

Where does obturation end/ point of canal instrumentation? A. Dentinocemental Junction B. Cementoenamel Junction C. Major Apical Diameter D. Dentinal Constriction

A. Dentinocemental Junction

What tetracycline inhibits collagenase formation? A. Minocycline B. Penicillin C. Tetracycline D. Metronidazole

A. Minocycline

Which of the following is the most important principle in outline of opening of the pulp chamber? A. Figuring out the “drop” motion B. Make sure to inject anesthesia C. Direct access along straight lines D. Selection of files to use

C. Direct access along straight lines

Root surface most likely to be strip perforated of the mesial root of mandibular 1st molar A. Mesial B. Distal C. Buccal D. Lingual

B. Distal

Bone ossification of mandible is A. Intermembranous ossification B. Semimembranosus ossification C. Intramembranous ossification D. Pseudomembranous ossification

C. Intramembranous ossification

Differential diagnosis between apical granuloma and cyst can be seen in? A. MRI B. Panoramic x-ray C. Ultrasound D. CBCT Scan

D. CBCT Scan

D. Calcium hydroxide

Changes in periodontal ligament as we age is due to A. Decreased fibroplasia B. Increased fibroplasia C. Ligament remodelling D. Ligament deposition

A. Decreased fibroplasia

Periodontal ligament fibers joining cementum of tooth to cementum of adjacent tooth A. Transgingival fibers B. Circular fibers C. Interpapillary fibers D. Transseptal fibers ,

D. Transseptal fibers

Erythematous, erosive, fiery red and ulcerative appearance of the gingiva. A. Desquamative gingivitis B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis C. Drug-induced gingivitis D. Nutritional gingivitis

A. Desquamative gingivitis

Diffuse, erythematous, shiny involvement of the gingiva and the adjacent oral mucosa, with various degrees of edema and gingival bleeding, most occurs in children younger than 6 years old. A. Desquamative gingivitis B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis C. Drug-induced gingivitis D. Nutritional gingivitis

B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealer… A. antibacterial B. set hard C. set more rapidly D. radiopaque

D. radiopaque

Instrument that is capable of creating a cavitation is called A. Ultrasonic Instruments B. Sickle Scaler C. Curettes D. Explorer

A. Ultrasonic Instruments

The study of pulp and its diseases is called A. Endodontics B. Periodontics C. Orthodontics D. Prosthodontics

A. Endodontics

C. Cold test

What do we measure from marginal gingiva to the base of the pocket? A. Bleeding upon probing B. Gingival index C. Pocket probing depth D. Clinical attachment loss

C. Pocket probing depth

Magnetostrictive ultrasonic pattern A. Vertical B. Circular C. Oblique D. Horizontal

B. Circular NOTES: ULTRASONIC- 20,000-45,000 cycles per second Magnetostrictive- ELLIPTICAL Piezoelectric- LINEAR (BACK AND FORTH) SONIC- 2,000- 6,000 cycles per second

Apicoectomy indicated in: A. incomplete root formed of a molar B. incomplete obturation in apical part of root canal with persistent infection C. incomplete sealing of crown D. incomplete removal of diseased pulp results to persistent infection and inflammation

B. incomplete obturation in apical part of root canal with persistent infection

What is the primary advantage of using a xenogeneic bone graft in periodontal treatment? A. Improved bone regeneration B. Enhanced wound healing C. Reduced risk of rejection D. Increased bone density

A. Improved bone regeneration

A. When an expensive, yet coronally sealed restoration would have to be refabricated to accommodate orthograde treatment

What is the primary advantage of using a self- adjusting file (SAF) in endodontic treatment? A. Improved cutting efficiency B. Enhanced flexibility C. Increased durability D. Three-dimensional adaptation to the root canal

D. Three-dimensional adaptation to the root canal

What is the primary advantage of using a nickel- titanium (NiTi) rotary instrument in endodontic treatment? A. Increased flexibility B. Improved cutting efficiency C. Enhanced durability D. All of the above

D. All of the above

A patient presents with a chief complaint of pain on biting on tooth #30. The tooth has a large amalgam restoration and a history of endodontic treatment. What is the most likely cause of the pain? A. Incomplete root canal treatment B. Vertical root fracture C. Cracked tooth syndrome D. Periodontal disease

B. Vertical root fracture NOTES: Cracked tooth syndrome- pain upon release

What is the primary mechanism of action of the ultrasonic device in endodontic treatment? A. Thermal ablation B. Photoacoustic effect C. Hydrodynamic cavitation D. Acoustic streaming

D. Acoustic streaming

What is the primary advantage of using a collagen membrane in periodontal treatment? A. Improved wound healing B. Enhanced tissue regeneration C. Increased bone density D. Reduced risk of rejection

B. Enhanced tissue regeneration

You have initiated root canal therapy on a patient when he suddenly experiences sudden pain during working length determination, begins to hemorrhage, and detects a burning sensation when you attempt to irrigate with sodium hypochlorite. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms? A. Inadequate straight line access B. Root canal contamination C. Root perforation D. Incomplete canal debridement E. Ledging

C. Root perforation

What is a potential side effect of using metronidazole in periodontal treatment? A. Gastrointestinal upset B. Allergic reactions C. Metallic taste D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following types of dental implants is most suitable for a patient with a partially edentulous mandible? A. Endosteal implant B. Subperiosteal implant C. Transosteal implant D. Intramucosal implant

A. Endosteal implant