TEST 7: ORTHODONTICS & PEDODONTICS Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

All of the following are functional appliances EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Frankel
B. Bionator
C. Clark’s Twin Block
D. Herbst
E. Quad-Helix

E. Quad-Helix

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All of the following are advantages of the indirect method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct method EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Reduced chair-side time
B. More precise location of brackets possible in the laboratory
C. Controlled thickness of the resin between the tooth and the bracket interface
D. Less techniques sensitive
E. Easier clean-up during bonding and de-bonding

D. Less techniques sensitive

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A 12-year-old boy was classified as having class II division 2 malocclusion. What position would you suspect the patient’s maxillary centrals and laterals are in?

A. Maxillary centrals tipped palatally and in retruded position; maxillary lateral tipped labially and mesially
B. Maxillary centrals tipped palatally and in retruded position; maxillary lateral tipped palatally
C. Maxillary centrals tipped labially and in protruded position; maxillary lateral tipped labially and mesially
D. Maxillary centrals tipped labially and in protruded position; maxillary lateral tipped palatally

A. Maxillary centrals tipped palatally and in retruded position; maxillary lateral tipped labially and mesially

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In a pseudo–class III malocclusion, the patient has the ability to:

A. Bring the mandible back with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
B. Bring the mandible forward without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
C. Bring the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
D. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors

D. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors

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A. Long anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion.
B. Short anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.
C. Short anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion.
D. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.

D. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.

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The pulp of a permanent first molar of a 7 year old is exposed while excavating. The pulp is vital, there is no periapical involvement. The tx of choice is:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulp capping
C. Pulpectomy
D. Extraction

B. Pulp capping

NOTES:
Pulpotomy- VITAL, CORONAL, PRIMARY
Pulp capping- pinpoint exposure, PERMANENT
Pulpectomy- NON-VITAL, CORONAL AND RADICULAR, PRIMARY

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Sequence and time of eruption of permanent teeth are largely determined by

A. race
B. genes
C. habits
D. nutrition

B. genes

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Dianne, aged 7, has a carious 1o (primary) maxillary left first molar that is causing discomfort. The buccal soft tissue is inflamed and spongy to palpation. A furcal bone lesion is evident radiographically. The appropriate tx will be:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Establish drainage into the pulp chamber and permit the tooth to remain until exfoliated
D. Tooth removal and placement of space maintainer appliance
E. Tooth removal

D. Tooth removal and placement of space maintainer appliance

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The behavior management that increases the likelihood of a particular behavior to than attempting to repress it is

A. positive reinforcement
B. both of the choices
C. punishment
D. none of the choices

A. positive reinforcement

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The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?

A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

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Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum _____.

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
B. Is accomplished after the frenum surgery.
C. After orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not indicated.
D. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is typically not indicated.

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.

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In the preparation of a primary molar tooth for a stainless steel crown

A. The mesial and distal contact areas must be broken
B. The buccal surface must be reduced
C. The occlusal surface must be reduced
D. All angles must be rounded
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

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The possible result of not correcting a simple anterior crossbite is

Loss of maxillary arch length
Gingival stripping of mandibular incisors
Excessive incisal abrasion of upper and lower incisors
Facets on the labial surface of the malposed incisor

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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The outline form for an occlusal class I cavity preparation should insure that

All unsupported enamel is removed to prevent lateral spread of caries at the dentinoenamel junction
It goes around cusps to conserve tooth structure and avoid exposing pulp horns
Margins are not in stress-bearing areas
If a weak enamel wall (2mm) separates two outlines they are joined together

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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Topical fluoride applications act to reduce the incidence of dental caries in all of the ff ways EXCEPT by:

A. Having a direct antimicrobial effect on plaque
B. Making the enamel more resistant to acid demineralization through improving crystallinity and decreasing solubility
C. Promoting remineralization of surface enamel
D. inhibiting plaque glycolysis
E. Enhancing the coalescence of sesceptible enamel pits and fissures

E. Enhancing the coalescence of sesceptible enamel pits and fissures❌

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Among the etiologic factors in malocclusion in a child the following is the least likely modified

A. congenital defect
B. heredity
C. nutritional deficiency
D. abnormal oral

B. heredity

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Most common cause of sealant failure:

A. Moisture contamination
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Lack of curing time
D. Differences in th ecoefficient of thermal expansion between tooth and sealant

A. Moisture contamination

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A 4-year old child visited a dentist for the first time and received propyhlaxis quite well. Left the dentist was so glad that he gave the child a toy. This kind of gesture is called

A. classical conditioning
B. positive reinforcement
C. bribery
D. public

B. positive reinforcement

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The most reasonable restoration for the grossly broken down anterior primary tooth is

A. Stainless steel crown
B. Porcelain crowns
C. Gold crowns
D. Resin crowns

D. Resin crowns (anterior)

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Which of the following primary teeth are most severely involved with nursing caries?

A. Canines
B. Mandibular incisors
C. Maxillary incisors
D. Second molars

C. Maxillary incisors

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What should the dentist avoid while treating a young uncooperative patient?

A. losing one’s temper and becoming angry
B. gracefulness
C. all the given choices
D. being unreasonable

C. all the given choices

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They are considered remnants of the epithelial tissue trapped along the raphe

A. Bohn’s nodules
B. Epstein pearls
C. Dental lamina cyst
D. None of these
E. Both A and C

B. Epstein pearls

Bohn’s nodules- remnant of dental lamina, compact and calcified
Epstein pearls- remnant of epithelial tissue, papules
Dental lamina cyst- remnant of dental lamina

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A. Sella and nasion
B. Gonion and gnathion
C. Porion and orbitale
D. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis and ante-rior nasal spine (ANS)

C. Porion and orbitale

frankPOrt horizontal plane= Porion and Orbitale

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A 37-year-old Caucasian man has SNA angle of 88 degrees. What does SNA angle of 88 degrees indicate regarding the patient’s occlusion?

A. Maxillary retrusion
B. Maxillary protrusion
C. Class I skeletal pattern
D. Mandibular prognathism
E. Mandibular retrognathism

B. Maxillary protrusion

NOTES:
SNA ANGLE- angle created in the intersection from from the sella turcica (S) to nasion (N) and one from nasion to Point A. (82°)
MAXILLARY PROGNATHISM: > 82° SNA
MAXILLARY RETROGNATHISM: < 82° SNA

SNB ANGLE - created by the intersection of line SN and NB defines the sagittal location of the mandibular denture base. (80°)

MANDIBULAR PROGNATHISM: > 80° SNB
MANDIBULAR RETROGNATHISM: < 80° SNB

SNA- SNB= ANB
ANB= 2°

SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 1: 2° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 2: > 4° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 3: <0° ANB

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Functional appliances have dental and skeletal effect and can be tissue-borne or tooth-borne. Which of the following appliances is tissue-borne? A. Bionator B. Frankel functional appliance C. Herbst D. Edgewise appliance

B. Frankel functional appliance

Which headgear has an extraoral component that is supported by chin and forehead and is used in skeletal class III malocclusions to protract the maxilla? A. Cervical-pull headgear B. Straight-pull headgear C. High-pull headgear D. Reverse-pull headgear

D. Reverse-pull headgear

A 10-year-old girl has teeth #12, #13, #14, and #15 in crossbite. The orthodontist has placed a palatal expander as part of her treatment. Which of the following statements are correct? A. After activation is complete, the expander remains in the mouth for at least 3 months. B. After activation is complete, the expander can be taken off right away. C. The expander is activated once a day by the patient. D. The expander is never activated by the patient, only by the physician. E. The expander is activated 0.5 mm each turn.

A. After activation is complete, the expander remains in the mouth for at least 3 months.

A 20-year-old man is finishing his comprehensive orthodontic treatment that involved a rotated tooth #7. What is the next step of treatment? A. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy prior to removal of orthodontic appliances. B. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy after removal of orthodontic appliances. C. Perform circumferential subcrestal fibro-tomy prior to removal of orthodontic appliances. D. Perform circumferential subcrestal fibro-tomy after removal of orthodontic appliances. E. Circumferential fibrotomy should not be performed.

A. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy prior to removal of orthodontic appliances

What site is responsible for mandibular vertical growth and how will this site affect the facial height during puberty? A. Coronoid process, increase in posterior facial height B. Coronoid process, no change in posterior facial height C. Body of mandible, no change in posterior facial height D. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial height E. Condylar cartilage, no change in posterior facial height

D. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial height

Which process does mandibular growth follow? A. Reposition occurring at the posterior surface of the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the posterior surface of the ramus as well B. Reposition occurring at the anterior surface of the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the anterior surface of the ramus as well C. Reposition occurring at the posterior surface of the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the anterior surface of the ramus D. Reposition occurring at the anterior surface of the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the posterior surface of the ramus

D. Reposition occurring at the anterior surface of the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the posterior surface of the ramus

What is the most common cause of an anterior crossbite of maxillary teeth in young children? A. Oral habits B. Trauma to the incisors C. Jaw size discrepancies D. Prolonged retention of primary teeth E. All of the above

E. All of the above

In orthodontic therapy, adult patients in comparison with adolescent patients: A. Need less periodontal maintenance during comprehensive orthodontic treatment B. Are more compliant C. Are less concerned with esthetic D. Are more prone to decalcification stains on enamel

B. Are more compliant

A 7-year-old boy was previously diagnosed with marked “bowing of the femurs” and decreased radiographic bone opacity. What disease does this patient have? What would you notice upon the examination of this patient’s oral cavity and intraoral radiographs? I. Hyperthyroidism II. Rickets III. Scurvy IV. Missing or delayed tooth eruption V. Premature exfoliation of primary teeth VI. Normal eruption pattern A. III and VI B. III and V C. I and VI D. I and V E. II and IV

E. II and IV (II) Rickets (IV) Missing or delayed tooth eruption

All these conditions are associated with supernumerary teeth except: A. Gardner syndrome B. Down syndrome C. Ectodermal dysplasia D. Cleidocranial dysplasia E. Sturge–Weber syndrome

C. Ectodermal dysplasia❌

What is the most efficient way to move teeth, reinforce anchorage, and avoid friction in the appliance system? A. Apply gentle constant force. B. Incorporate springs into archwire. C. Incorporate interarch elastic. D. Bond magnets to individual teeth. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

What is the condition that may complicate molar uprighting? A. Open bite B. Presence of periodontal disease C. Extruded maxillary and mandibular molars D. Molar having short roots E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following malocclusions is the easiest to maintain after orthodontic treatment? A. Expansion B. Rotation C. Anterior crossbite D. Generalized spacing E. Generalized crowding

C. Anterior crossbite

What single morphologic characteristic of the permanent first molar necessitates early restorative procedures in most children? A. Mesial proximal contact B. Deep grooves and fissures C. Large pulp chamber D. Early beginning of calcification E. Presence of an auxiliary cusp

B. Deep grooves and fissures

The cranial vault is made up of a number of flat bones that are formed by ___, ___ cartilaginous precursors. A. Endochondral bone formation; with B. Intramembranous bone formation; without C. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; with D. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; without

B. Intramembranous bone formation; without

Following premature loss of the second primary molar, an unerupted first permanent molar will migrate and cause space loss in A. The mandible or the maxilla B. The maxilla only C. The mandible only D. Neither the mandible nor the maxilla

A. The mandible or the maxilla

All of the following are types of tooth movement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Tipping B. Pulling C. Extrusion D. Torque E. Rotation

B. Pulling

The dovetail on a modified class III cavity preparation in the primary dentition should be accentual toward the A. Gingival B. Incisal C. Midline D. Crest of the contour of the tooth

A. Gingival

Once bone is formed, it grows by: A. Interstitial growth only B. Appositional growth only C. Both appositional and interstitial growth D. Degenerative changes into bony structures

B. Appositional growth only

By what mechanism does the mandibular condyle grow? A. Subperiosteal surface addition B. Endosteal bone growth C. Appositional growth D. Endochondral bone formation

D. Endochondral bone formation

What are some of the potential negative tissue responses to heavy forces? A. Root resorption B. Excessive tooth mobility C. Discomfort D. All of the above

D. All of the above

An example of simple anchorage is A. Diastema closure by elastic traction tipping the crown together B. Extraoral force C. Diastema closure by bodily movement of incisors D. Intraarch elastics

A. Diastema closure by elastic traction tipping the crown together

Serious and difficult open bite cases are often characterized by which of the following cephalometric findings? A. Shortened face height B. Parallel relationship of anterior cranial base, palatal, occlusal and mandibular planes C. Palatal plane tipped upward in the anterior in conjunction with a steep mandibular plane D. Class II skeletal and dental pattern

C. Palatal plane tipped upward in the anterior in conjunction with a steep mandibular plane

Which of the following cannot be assessed with cephalometric radiographs A. Mandibular retrusion B. Mandibular lateral asymmetry C. Vertical facial disproportion D. Incisor position and angulation E. Adequacy of dental arch perimeter

E. Adequacy of dental arch perimeter

Bones of the cranial base include which of the following? A. Maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital C. Palatal, nasal, and zygoma D. Frontal and parietal

B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital

Why would an orthodontist place a nonrigid archwire at the beginning of treatment? A. The appliance may break if a rigid archwireis placed. B. The nonrigid archwire is more pliable,which is needed in the initial stages of treatment of malocclusions. C. The rigid archwire may become perma-nently deformed if placed at the beginning of treatment. D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

Which is a true statement about edgewise brackets? A. The magnitude of the forces generated in the faciolingual and occlusogingival direction is dependent on the bracket slot size. B. Twin bracket is used to gain more rotational control. C. Single-wing bracket is used to gain more rotational control. D. All statements above are true.

D. All statements above are true.

Which statement is true regarding Invisalign treatment? A. Aligners are worn 24 hours a day and taken off for eating, drinking, and oral hygiene. B. Change set of new aligners every two weeks. C. Focus is esthetic and functional alignment without utilization of complex orthodontic auxiliary treatments. D. Treatment is focused on straight forward cases (20 aligners or less). E. All of the above are true.

E. All of the above are true.

Which case would satisfy the Invisalign criteria? A. More than 2 mm crowding between any two anterior teeth B. Class III bilateral molar relationship C. Patient with moderate to severe periodontal ldisease D. A 9-year-old patient E. Patient must have fully erupted second molars.

E. Patient must have fully erupted second molars

What are the determining factors of the load–deflection rates of wires? A. Modules of elasticity B. Length of wire C. Cross-sectional area D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What type of tooth movement are open-coil springs used for? A. Close spaces between teeth B. Upright teeth C. Intrusion D. Translation

B. Upright teeth

60. Which one of the following statements is true about primate space in the primary dentition? A. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the mandibular arch. B. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the maxillary arch. C. It should be present in permanent teeth. D. It should be present in permanent teeth and deciduous teeth.

A. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the mandibular arch.

Which one of the following statements is false about headgear? A. Headgear is typically used in skeletal class II. B. Headgear needs to be worn 10 to 14 hours per day to be effective. C. Treatment length is 6 to 18 months. D. Headgear can be used in adult patients. E. All of the above statements are true.

E. All of the above statements are true.

Methods employed in orthodontic treatment to align a crowded dentition include: A. Extraction of teeth B. Expansion of arches C. Distalization of teeth D. Interproximal reduction of teeth E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following will require the most force to move tooth #27? A. Tipping B. Translation C. Root uprighting D. Rotation E. Extrusion

B. Translation

The wrist–hand radiograph is used by orthodontists to predict the time of the pubertal growth spurt and thus jaw growth. What is examined in the wrist–hand radiograph? A. Carpal bones of the wrist B. Metacarpal bones of the hand C. Phalanges of the fingers D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Below are the indications for using bands instead of brackets, except for: A. Patient with amelogenesis imperfecta B. Teeth with long clinical crowns C. Patient with cuspal interference D. Teeth that will need both lingual and labial attachment

B. Teeth with long clinical crowns❌

What is the most common site to find a supernumerary tooth? A. Distal to the third molars B. Between the central incisors C. Between the central and lateral incisors D. Inferior border of the mandible

B. Between the central incisors

Which of the following is not considered a method of closing a diastema? A. Posterior bite plate B. Lingual arch with finger spring C. Hawley appliance with finger spring D. Cemented orthodontic bands with inter-tooth traction

A. Posterior bite plate❌

Which of the following is used to maintain the space of one prematurely missing primary molar? A. Lingual holding arch B. Distal shoe C. Band and loop D. A and B E. B and C

E. B and C

A pediatric patient has premature loss of tooth #A, but tooth #B is present, and #3 has not erupted yet. What is the best space maintainer for this situation A. Hawley with finger spring B. Hawley without finger spring C. Distal shoe D. Nance appliance

C. Distal shoe

When is a Nance appliance indicated? A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars B. Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars C. Loss of one primary molar D. To control thumb-sucking behavior

A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars

What percent of the population is in class I occlusion? A. Less than 5% B. 25% C. 50% D. 70%

D. 70%

The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is between the mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar. What classification of occlusion is this? A. Class I B. Class II division 1 C. Class II division 2 D. Class III

D. Class III

In class II occlusion, in what relationship is the maxillary canine to the mandibular teeth? A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar B. Between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar C. Distal to the embrasure between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar D. Lingual to the mandibular canine

A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar

The left molar is in a class II relationship, whereas the right molar is in a class I relationship. A. Class II division 1 subdivision left B. Class II division 1 subdivision right C. Class II division 1 subdivision 1 D. Class I division 2 subdivision left

A. Class II division 1 subdivision left

A headgear appliance is used for: A. Anchorage B. Traction C. Both anchorage and traction D. Neither anchorage or traction

C. Both anchorage and traction Anchorage- maintain space Traction- create space

All of the following are fixed orthodontic appliance EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Lingual archwires B. Whip-spring appliances C. Palate-separating devices D. Frankel’s appliance E. Edgewise mechanism

D. Frankel’s appliance

Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists? a. The beg appliance b. The edgewise appliance c. The universal appliance d. None of the above

b. The edgewise appliance

All of the following are materials used for archwires EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Stainless steel B. Beta titanium C. Nickel-titanium D. Vitalium

D. Vitalium

An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation? A. Tipping B. Extrusion C. Intrusion D. Translation

A. Tipping

Prior to direct bonding, __ is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, ___¬ is used as an etching agent. A. Nothing, 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing C. Nothing; 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid D. 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing

B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing

Orthodontic force can be treated mathematically as vectors. Forces produce either translation (bodily movement), rotation, or a combination of translation and rotation, depending upon the relationship of the line of action of the force to the center of resistance of the tooth. A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

C. Both statements are true

Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite? A. Straight-pull headgear B. Reverse-pull headgear C. Cervical-pull headgear D. High-pull headgear

C. Cervical-pull headgear

Which condition is appropriately treated at an early age? A. Deviated midline in the absence of a functional shift B. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors C. Two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite D. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift

D. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift

The "V" principle of growth is illustrated by the: a. nasal septum b. mandibular condyle c. mandibular symphysis d. spheno-occipital synchondrosis

b. mandibular condyle

Arch length space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by: A. apposition of the alveolar process B. apposition at the anterior border of the ramus C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus D. resorption at the posterior border of the ramus.

C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus

The most stable point in a growing skull from a cephalometric standpoint is: A. Sella turcica B. Nasion C. Pogonion D. Upper central incisor

A. Sella turcica

A 5 year old child with a massive cellulitis of dental origin did not respond to penicillin therapy and a broad spectrum tetracycline antibiotic was prescribed. It is possible that side-effects of tetracycline administration will later be seen in which of the following permanent teeth? A. Canines and second molars B. Premolars C. Incisors and first molars D. Both 1 and 2 E. Both 2 and 3

D. Both 1 and 2

Children in the primary dentition most often present with _____. A. An increased overbite B. A decreased overbite C. An ideal overbite D. A significant open bite

B. A decreased overbite

In placing an alloy in the class II preparation on a primary tooth, much consideration is given to the placement of the matrix band and wedging because the contact point is A. Broad and flat B. Narrow and close to the marginal ridge C. Closer to the buccal, and the wedge should be placed from the lingual D. Closer to the lingual, and the wedge should be placed from the buccal

A. Broad and flat

An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion? A. Class II dental malocclusion B. Class II skeletal malocclusion C. Class I dental malocclusion D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

A. Class II dental malocclusion

What is the chief factor in the formation of the alveolar process? A. Eruption of teeth B. Normal process of growth C. Lengthening of the condyle D. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible

A. Eruption of teeth

This is a process of reshaping and resizing as a consequence of progressive continuous relocation: A. Drift B. Displacement C. Remodeling D. Translation

C. Remodeling

When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify? A. At birth B. One month C. Four months D. One year

A. At birth

A 20-month-old female presents with her mother to your office for her first check-up. Her mother is concerned because her daughter only has a few erupted teeth. Upon examining the patient, which teeth should you expect to find? A. Primary centrals and laterals only B. Primary centrals, laterals, canines C. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, second molars D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars E. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, ca-nines

D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars

A 5-year-old girl lives in an area with 0.4 ppmF in the city drinking water. How much supplemental fluoride should you prescribe for the patient to consume the optimal amount of fluoride? A. 0 B. 0.25 mg C. 0.33 mg D. 0.5 mg E. 1.0 mg

B. 0.25 mg

93. A child presents to your office after a fall from a tree, during which his primary maxillary central incisor was avulsed. The mother has brought the tooth in a cup of milk and says the fall occurred 2 hours ago. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Replant the tooth, stabilize the tooth for 1 to 2 weeks at which time a pulpotomy should be performed B. Replant the tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and then perform a pulpectomy C. Replant tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and begin apexification if pulp necrosis is evident D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not re-plant tooth

D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not replant tooth

A 6-year-old child presents with a Class I fracture to a tooth with an immature apex. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. Restore tooth B. Place calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin,restore tooth C. Perform pulpotomy, then temporarily restore D. Perform pulpectomy, place stainless steelcrown E. Extract tooth, place space maintainer

A. Restore tooth

A disease process is characterized by painful, bleeding gingival tissue, punched out erosions covered by gray pseudomembrane, blunting of interproximal papillae, and a fetid odor. Treatment usually comprises debridement, mouth rinses, and antibiotics. This description is associated with which of the following conditions that may exist in teenagers? A. Aggressive periodontitis B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis C. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Severe gingivitis E. Early childhood caries

B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

How much fluoride, in ppm, is contained in commonly used toothpastes? A. 1,000 ppm B. 5,000 ppm C. 9,000 ppm D. 12,300 ppm

A. 1,000 ppm

As compared with permanent teeth, primary teeth have: A. Pulp horns further away from the tooth surface B. Smaller pulp relative to crown size C. Thicker and shorter roots D. Increased number of accessory canals in pulpal floor

D. Increased number of accessory canals in pulpal floor

The calcification of maxillary and mandibular permanent first molars occurs at what age? A. 3 to 4 months B. Birth C. 10 to 12 months D. 1.5 to 2 years

B. Birth

The definition of primate space is: A. The space mesial to the mandibular primary canines and distal to the maxillary primary canines B. The space distal to the mandibular primary canines and distal to the maxillary primary canines C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines and distal to the mandibular primary canines D. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines only

C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines and distal to the mandibular primary canines

A diastema between the maxillary central incisors at age 8 should be treated by: A. Leaving it alone B. Surgical excision of the labial frenum C. Hawley appliance D. Taking a radiograph to rule out fibrous frenum

A. Leaving it alone

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt? A. Neural tissues B. Lymphoid tissues C. Reproductive tissues

C. Reproductive tissues

What class of malocclusion is characterized by the canine on both 1st and 2nd quadrants being located in the embrasure of the first and second premolars? A. Class II Div 1 B. Class I Div 2 C. Class II Div 2 D. Class III

D. Class III

When the lines connecting sella–nasion and gonion–menton meet, they create an angle that helps to determine the malocclusion. What type of anterior vertical dimension and malocclusion correlates with this steep angle? A. Long anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion. B. Short anterior vertical dimension and an open-bite malocclusion. C. Short anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion. D. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.

D. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.

E. All of the above are true.

This has been adapted as the best horizontal orientation that assesses lateral representation of the skull. Which of the following cephalometric landmarks make up this plane when a line is drawn to connect them? A. Sella and nasion B. Gonion and gnathion C. Porion and orbitale D. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis and ante-rior nasal spine (ANS)

C. Porion and orbitale

A 37-year-old Caucasian man has SNA angle of 88 degrees. What does SNA angle of 88 degrees indicate regarding the patient’s occlusion? A. Maxillary retrusion B. Maxillary protrusion C. Class I skeletal pattern D. Mandibular prognathism E. Mandibular retrognathism

B. Maxillary protrusion

What is the primary mechanism of action of the Herbst appliance? A. To advance the maxilla B. To retract the upper incisors C. To stimulate mandibular growth D. To expand the lower arch

C. To stimulate mandibular growth

A. After activation is complete, the expander remains in the mouth for at least 3 months.

A. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy prior to removal of orthodontic appliances.

D. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial height

What is the characteristic feature of a Class II division 1 malocclusion? A. Retroclined upper incisors B. Proclined upper incisors C. Retroclined lower incisors D. Posterior crossbite

B. Proclined upper incisors

All these conditions are associated with supernumerary teeth except: A. Gardner syndrome B. Down syndrome C. Ectodermal dysplasia D. Cleidocranial dysplasia E. Sturge–Weber syndrome

C. Ectodermal dysplasia

E. All of the above

What is the condition that may complicate molar uprighting? A. Open bite B. Presence of periodontal disease C. Extruded maxillary and mandibular molars D. Molar having short roots E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which is a true statement about edgewise brackets? A. The magnitude of the forces generated in the faciolingual and occlusogingival direction is dependent on the bracket slot size. B. Twin bracket is used to gain more rotationalcontrol. C. Single-wing bracket is used to gain morerotational control. D. All statements above are true.

D. All statements above are true.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Teeth with long clinical crowns

What is the primary mechanism of action of the Hyrax appliance? A. To expand the upper arch through midpalatal sutural separation B. To constrict the upper arch through midpalatal sutural approximation C. To protract the mandible through advancement of the condyles D. To retract the upper incisors through tipping and torque

A. To expand the upper arch through midpalatal sutural separation

Which one of the following statements is true about primate space in the primary dentition? A. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the mandibular arch. B. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the maxillary arch. C. It should be present in permanent teeth. D. It should be present in permanent teeth and deciduous teeth.

A. Primate space is located between canine and first molar in the mandibular arch.

What is the primary goal of infant oral health care? A. To prevent tooth decay B. To promote oral habits C. To assess caries risk and provide preventive strategies D. To restore primary teeth

C. To assess caries risk and provide preventive strategies

What are the determining factors of the load– deflection rates of wires? A. Modules of elasticity B. Length of wire C. Cross-sectional area D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What type of tooth movement are open-coil springs used for? A. Close spaces between teeth B. Upright teeth C. Intrusion D. Translation

B. Upright teeth

E. All of the above

A 3-year-old patient presents with severe early childhood caries (S-ECC). What is the most appropriate treatment approach? A. Restorative treatment under general anesthesia B. Non-restorative treatment with fluoride varnish applications C. Extraction of all affected primary teeth D. Monitoring and prevention with regular follow-up appointments

A. Restorative treatment under general anesthesia

D. All of the above

B. Between the central incisors

A. Posterior bite plate

A 6-year-old patient presents with a traumatic injury to the maxillary central incisors. What is the most important initial step in management? A. Radiographic examination B. Cleaning and dressing the wound C. Administering local anesthesia D. Reattaching the tooth fragment

B. Cleaning and dressing the wound

C. Distal shoe

Disturbances in the morphodifferentiation stage of the development of the tooth germ results in A. An abnormal number of teeth B. Ameloblastomas C. Abnormal forms and sizes of teeth D. All of the above

C. Abnormal forms and sizes of teeth

In class II occlusion, in what relationship is the maxillary canine to the mandibular teeth? A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibu-lar canine and mandibular first premolar B. Between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar C. Distal to the embrasure between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar D. Lingual to the mandibular canine

A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibu-lar canine and mandibular first premolar

A. Class II division 1 subdivision left

What is the primary cause of early childhood caries (ECC)? A. Poor oral hygiene B. Inadequate fluoride exposure C. Frequent consumption of sugary snacks and drinks D. Genetic predisposition

C. Frequent consumption of sugary snacks and drinks

D. Frankel’s appliance

All of the following are materials used for archwires EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Stainless steel B. Beta titanium C. Nickel-titanium D. Vitalium

D. Vitalium

A 9-year-old patient presents with a mixed dentition and a posterior crossbite. What is the most appropriate treatment approach? A. Expand the upper arch with a rapid palatal expander B. Extract primary molars to allow for natural correction C. Use a removable appliance to expand the upper arch D. Monitor the condition and delay treatment until the permanent dentition erupts

C. Use a removable appliance to expand the upper arch

A. Tipping

What teeth are involved when doing Class 2 elastics? A. Maxillary canine to maxillary molar B. Mandibular canine to maxillary molar C. Maxillary canine to mandibular molar D. Mandibular canine to mandibular molar

C. Maxillary canine to mandibular molar

A 4-year-old patient presents with a primary tooth avulsion. What is the most appropriate treatment approach? A. Replant the tooth immediately B. Store the tooth in milk or saliva and seek immediate dental attention. But do not attempt to replant. C. Discard the tooth and monitor the socket for healing D. Use a space maintainer to prevent space loss

B. Store the tooth in milk or saliva and seek immediate dental attention. But do not attempt to replant.

C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus

The "V" principle of growth is illustrated by the: A. nasal septum B. mandibular condyle C. mandibular symphysis D. spheno-occipital synchondrosis

B. mandibular condyle

The most stable point in a growing skull from a cephalometric standpoint is: A. Sella turcica B. Nasion C. Pogonion D. Upper central incisor

A. Sella turcica

A rare congenital birth defect that presents with short mandible and cleft palate A. Klinefelter Syndrome B. Pierre Robin Syndrome C. Treacher Collins Syndrome D. Micromandibular Palatinosis Syndrome

B. Pierre Robin Syndrome

Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages: A. 3-6 years B. 7-10 years C. 11-14 years D. 14-17 years

B. 7-10 years

Long face syndrome is almost always associated with: A. Nail biting B. Tongue thrusting C. Mouth breathing D. Depression

C. Mouth breathing

Intraoral anchorage reinforcement A. Lingual Plate B. Band and loop C. Nance Appliance D. Palatal Crib

C. Nance Appliance

During the 9th or 10th intrauterine week, the palatal shelves are ready to fuse with each other, but a failure of which of the following Structures to move forward and fall into the oral cavity may cause failure of the fusion of the palatal shelves, causing cleft palate. A. Vomer B. Tongue C. Nasal floor D. Premaxilla

B. Tongue

The permanent mandibular first molar has a morphology that closely resembles A. Primary mandibular first molar B. Primary mandibular second molar C. Primary maxillary first molar D. Primary maxillary second molar

B. Primary mandibular second molar

When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify? A. At birth B. One month C. Four months D. One year

A. At birth

What percent of the population is in class I occlusion? A. Less than 5% B. 25% C. 50% D. 70%

D. 70%

What should be the basis when doing mixed dentition analysis? A. two permanent molars B. four permanent molars C. two permanent incisors D. four permanent incisors

D. four permanent incisors

6-year-old child presents with a Class I fracture to a tooth with an immature apex. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. Restore tooth B. Place calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin,restore tooth C. Perform pulpotomy, then temporarily restore D. Perform pulpectomy, place stainless steelcrown E. Extract tooth, place space maintainer

A. Restore tooth

B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

According to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry Guidelines, the following restorative materials for a high-caries experience patient are recommended: A. Composite resin B. Glass ionomer or resin modified GI C. Stainless steel crown D. B and C only E. All of the above

D. B and C only

Bolton analysis determines A. lower teeth to upper teeth B. upper teeth to lower teeth C. lower jaw to upper jaw D. upper jaw to lower jaw

B. upper teeth to lower teeth

Which of the following combinations is correct regarding local anesthesia and pediatric dentistry? A. Short-acting local anesthetics, that is, ones without epinephrine should be avoided B. Articaine can be used to locally infiltrate the mandibular primary posterior teeth C. Increasing the epinephrine dose above 1:100,000 should be avoided D. A and C only E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Cephalometric landmark that pertains to the most anterior part of chin A. Pogonion B. Menton C. Gonion D. Gnathion

A. Pogonion

Elastics classification in which the elastics goes on maxillary canine to mandibular molar? A. Class 1 elastics B. Class 2 elastics C. Class 3 elastics D. Class 4 elastics

B. Class 2 elastics

If the fluoride level in the drinking water is greater than 0.6 ppm at any age, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated. If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C.

Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice? A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy B. Formocresol apexification technique C. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

Which of the following is the most likely cause pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth? A. Ankylosis B. Calcific metamorphosis C. Pulpal hyperemia D. Dilaceration

C. Pulpal hyperemia

Incisors not be extracted because A. permanent incisors will not erupt B. gingiva will be swollen thus poor prognosis of the extraction site C. tendency to develop abnormally deep bite D. tendency of spacing in between tooth

C. tendency to develop abnormally deep bite

Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing lateral incisors? A. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure. B. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age. C. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older. D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

The pulp tissue of primary teeth _____. 1. In general, is smaller proportionately than permanent pulps in relation to tooth crown size. 2. Is closer to the outer surface of the tooth than the permanent teeth. 3. Follows the general surface contour of the crown. 4. Has the mesial pulp horn closer to the surface than the distal pulp horn. A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct. B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct. C. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct. D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct

B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Class III elastics: A. Maxillary canine to mandibular molar B. Maxillary molar to mandibular canine C. Maxillary canine to maxillary molar D. Mandibular molar to maxillary canine

B. Maxillary molar to mandibular canine

Which headgear is indicated for distalization and extrusion of maxillary molar? A. Cervical pull B. Low pull C. High pull D. Reverse face mask

A. Cervical pull

Which of the following drugs modifies fear and anxiety? A. Seconal B. Celestamine C. Ethamizid D. Flanax

A. Seconal

TAD means A. Temporary anchorage device B. Temporary attachment device C. Titanium anchorage device D. Titanium attachment device

A. Temporary anchorage device

Which headgear is used for advancement of the maxilla and prevent further growth of mandible? A. Reverse face mask B. Cervical pull C. High pull D. Low pull

A. Reverse face mask

B. Are more compliant

Which of the following will require the most force to move tooth #27? A. Tipping B. Translation C. Root uprighting D. Rotation E. Extrusion

B. Translation

E. II and IV

child presents to your office after a fall from a tree, during which his primary maxillary central incisor was avulsed. The mother has brought the tooth in a cup of milk and says the fall occurred 2 hours ago. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Replant the tooth, stabilize the tooth for 1 to2 weeks at which time a pulpotomy should be performed B. Replant the tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and then perform a pulpectomy C. Replant tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and begin apexification if pulp necrosis is evident D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not re-plant tooth

D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not re-plant tooth

How much fluoride, in ppm, is contained in commonly used toothpastes? A. 1,000 ppm B. 5,000 ppm C. 9,000 ppm D. d. 12,300 ppm

A. 1,000 ppm

D. Increased number of accessory canals in pulpal floor

The calcification of maxillary and mandibular permanent first molars occurs at what age? A. 3 to 4 months B. Birth C. 10 to 12 months D. 1.5 to 2 years

B. Birth

C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines and distal to the mandibular primary canines

Avulsed teeth, pimary-permanent should be treated as follows: A. Primary: reimplanted/Permanent: reimplanted B. Primary: reimplanted and splinted/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted C. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: re-implanted and splinted rigidly D. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: re-implanted and splinted flexibly for 14 days maximum E. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: re-implanted and splinted flexibly

D. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: re-implanted and splinted flexibly for 14 days maximum

A mother brings her son to your office for his 1-year-old dental appointment. You notice that there is a problem with the shape of his teeth. The problem probably occurred in what stage of development? A. Initiation B. Proliferation C. Differentiation D. Apposition E. Calcification

B. Proliferation

You are counting the teeth of a 5-year old, and there are 20 crowns, but when you look at the radiograph, there are only 19 roots. This is most likely: A. Fusion B. Concrescence C. Gemination D. Attrition E. There is no problem

C. Gemination

A child comes to your office and has a bilateral cleft lip. This is classified as what class? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. There is no classification for bilateral cleft lip

D. Class IV

All of the following are functional appliances EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Frankel B. Bionator C. Clark’s Twin Block D. Herbst E. Quad-Helix

E. Quad-Helix

Frankfort Horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks? A. Nasion and Sella B. Porion and Sella C. Porion and Nasion D. Porion and Orbitale

D. Porion and Orbitale

In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used. In patients with severe Class II malocclusion, this angle is A. Greater than the norm B. Less than the norm C. Normal D. Unrelated

A. Greater than the norm

Clinical studies demonstrate that acidulated phosphate fluoride is most effective at what pH? A. 1.0 B. 2.5 C. 3.5 D. 5.5

C. 3.5

The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between open bite in the primary dentition is most often associated with: A. 1.5 to 2 months in utero B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero C. 7.5 to 9 months in utero D. 10 to 12 months in utero

B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero

A 5-year old who lives in a non-fluoridated area should receive how much fluoride supplementation? A. This child does not need fluoride supple-mentation B. 0.25 mg C. 0.5 mg D. 1.0 mg

C. 0.5 mg

At what age can one expect eruption of a maxillary permanent canine in an individual with an ideal eruption sequence? A. 7 to 8 years B. 8 to 9 years C. 9 to 10 years D. 10 to 11 years E. 11 to 12 years

E. 11 to 12 years

Basic pediatric behavior management techniques include all of the following except: A. Voice control B. Tell-show-do C. Hand over mouth exercise (HOME) D. Positive reinforcement E. Distraction

C. Hand over mouth exercise (HOME)

Which of the following is not a factor in a caries risk assessment tool? A. Previous caries experience B. Socioeconomic status of caregiver C. Exposure to fluoride D. Eruption sequence E. Level of mutans streptococci

D. Eruption sequence

During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged 5-year-old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do? A. Discuss the situation with the parents. B. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose. C. Use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME). D. Use a firm voice control.

A. Discuss the situation with the parents.

Your patient is 9 years old. The mandibular left first primary molar has a large, carious lesion on the distal and on the occlusal and the tooth has greater mobility than what you would normally expect. You should _____. A. Take a radiograph of the area B. Perform a pulpotomy C. Perform a pulpectomy D. Extract the tooth and consider space maintenance

A. Take a radiograph of the area

What is a second-order bend? A. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip) C. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque) D. A bend to rotate a tooth

B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)

Closure of a 2-mm maxillary midline diastema should be accomplished orthodontically in an 8-year-old in which of the following circumstances? A. If the lateral incisors are missing B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it C. If there is also deep overbite present D. If mild crowding is also present

B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it

What is the most common etiologic factor contributing to a Class III malocclusion? A. Maxillary hypoplasia B. Mandibular hyperplasia C. Nasal obstruction D. Thumb sucking habit

B. Mandibular hyperplasia

All of the following may be indications to consider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient except _____. A. Excessive crowding B. Class II interarch relationship C. Flat lip profile D. Anterior open bite

C. Flat lip profile

The preferred surgical procedure to correct a Class II malocclusion due to a deficient mandible is which of the following? A. Maxillary impaction B. Maxillary setback C. Mandibular setback D. Mandibular advancement

D. Mandibular advancement

Of the following, which is considered to be the least stable orthognathic surgical movement? A. Advancement of the mandible B. Advancement of the maxilla C. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

What may be the cause of increased anterior overjet during the treatment of a class II malocclusion? A. Form of the force B. Anterior teeth C. Condylar growth pattern D. Balance between intraoral and facial musculature

D. Balance between intraoral and facial musculature

From where do arch shape and symmetry best evaluated? A. Fontal photograph B. Panoramic X-ray C. Study cast D. Lateral cephalogram

C. Study cast

What is considered to be the best space maintainer? A. Crown and crib B. fixed space maintainer C. functional space maintainer D. Well-restored deciduous teeth

D. Well-restored deciduous teeth