TEST 1: GENERAL/ORAL ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

What part is seen on a cervical vertebra which cannot be found on a typical vertebra?

A. Body
B. Transverse Foramen
C. Dens
D. Facet
E. All of the above

B. Transverse Foramen

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Which heart valve is best heard over the apex of the heart?

A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve

B. Mitral valve

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The superior ophthalmic vein directly communicates with which of the following dural venous sinuses?

A. Cavernous sinus
B. Occipital sinus
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Superior petrosal sinus
E. Straight sinus

A. Cavernous sinus

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Signals entering a neuronal pool excites far greater numbers of nerve fibers leaving the pool:

A. Reverberatory circuit
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. both B & C

B. Divergence

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The enzyme required to replicate DNA is called:

A. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA polymerase
D. glucose -6-phosphatase
E. none of them

C. DNA polymerase

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Which of the following types of cartilage has the ability to calcify?

A. Fibrocartilage
B. Hyaline
C. Elastic
D. Elastic and hyaline
E. Hyaline and fibrocartilage

B. Hyaline

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Which structures are called adenoids when enlarged?
A. Lingual tonsils
B. Palatine tonsils
C. Pharyngeal tonsils
D. Waldeyers ring

C. Pharyngeal tonsils

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Which of the following areas of the mediastinum contains the vagus nerve?

A. Superior
B. Posterior
C. Anterior
D. Middle
E. None of the above

B. Posterior

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All of the following structures form the boundary known as the femoral triangle EXCEPT

A. sartorius muscle.
B. inguinal ligament.
C. adductor longus muscle.
D. cremaster muscle.
E. pectineus muscle.

D. cremaster muscle.

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During respiration, carbon dioxide and oxygen exchanged at the junction of the blood and alveolar spaces and the junction of blood and tissue. The actual diffusion of the gases is primarily controlled by the _____.

A. elasticity of blood capillaries
B. atmospheric pressure
C. differentials in partial pressure of the gases
D. bicarbonate content of the blood

C. differentials in partial pressure of the gases

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Which of the following portions of the lung contain the lingula?

A. Middle lobe of right lung
B. Superior lobe of right lung
C. Superior lobe of left lung
D. Inferior lobe of left lung
E. Inferior lobe of right lung

C. Superior lobe of left lung

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The macula densa is located in which portion of the kidney?

A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Bowman capsule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
E. Collecting duct

A. Distal convoluted tubule

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All of the following vessels contribute to Kisselbach plexus EXCEPT

A. lesser palatine artery.
B. sphenopalatine artery.
C. lateral nasal branches of facial artery.
D. superior labial artery.
E. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal carotid artery.

A. lesser palatine artery.

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Rivian ducts allow drainage from which of the following glands?

A. Parotid
B. Sebaceous
C. Lacrimal
D. Sublingual
E. Mammary

D. Sublingual

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Each of the following is TRUE with regard to the carotid sheath EXCEPT

A. the sternocleidomastoid muscle lies medial to it in the cervical region.
B. it lies anterior to the scalene musculature in the cervical region.
C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.
D. it contains the vagus nerve, jugular vein, and common carotid artery.
E. it is associated with the carotid sinus nerve, sympathetic nerves, and lymph nodes.

C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.

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Sublingual gland is situated between

A. Genioglossus and mandible
B. Geniohyoid and genioglossus
C. Hyoglossus and genioglossus
D. Hyoglossus and styloglossus

A. Genioglossus and mandible

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Which of the following structures are involved in steroid synthesis and lipid/glycogen metabolism?

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosomes
C. Peroxisomes
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Mitochondria

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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Which of the following characteristics are true concerning veins?

A. Thin tunics media with few muscle fibers
B. Thick tunics adventitia with little elastic tissue
C. Larger lumen and thinner walls than the arteries they accompany
D. Some contain valves and vase vasorum
E. All of the above are true

E. All of the above are true

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A-gamma fibers function in

A. touch sensation.
B. muscle spindle apparatus.
C. pressure sensation.
D. temperature sensation.
E. sharp pain sensation.

B. muscle spindle apparatus.

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Hilar lymph nodes are located

A. in the lateral thoracic cavity.
B. superior to the clavicle and surrounding the carotid sheath.
C. along the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. at the root of the lungs.
E. at the posterior base of the skull.

D. at the root of the lungs

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Which glandular area secretes hormones which are products of tyrosine metabolism?

A. Alpha cells of pancreas
B. Beta cells of pancreas
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Adrenal medulla
E. Testes

C. Adrenal cortex

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Long bones grow in length primarily by:

A. adding bone onto the ends of the articular cartilage
B. mitosis of bone cells (osteocytes)
C. laying down of bone in the periosteum
D. replacement of epiphyseal plate cartilage with bone
E. replacement of primitive connective tissue.

D. replacement of epiphyseal plate cartilage with bone

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Theoretically, in most human cells, one glucose molecule produces enough usable chemical energy to synthesize:

A. 30-32 ATP molecules
B. 32-34 ATP molecules
C. 36-38 ATP molecules
D. 44-48 ATP molecules

C. 36-38 ATP molecules

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An otherwise healthy student taking no medications is concerned because he has noticed several painless uniform “large bumps” at the back of his tongue. These are most likely:

A. aphthous ulcers
B. candidal colonies
C. circumvallate papillae
D. filiform papillae
E. fungiform papillae

C. circumvallate papillae

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The trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation for all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. Oral cavity B. Nasal cavity C. Paranasal sinuses D. Posterior third of the tongue

D. Posterior third of the tongue (CN IX)❌

A surgeon inadvertently sections the recurrent laryngeal nerve during a procedure. Which of the following muscles would retain its innervation subsequent to this injury? A. Cricothyroid B. Lateral cricoarytenoid C. Posterior cricoarytenoid D. Thyroarytenoid E. Vocalis

A. Cricothyroid

Of the following statements concerning the lymphatic system are true, except: A. The main function is to collect and transport tissue fluids from the intercellular spaces in all the tissues of the body, back to the veins in the blood system B. Lymph is a transparent, usually slightly yellow, often opalescent liquid found in the lymphatic vessels C. It consists of the bone marrow, spleen, thymus gland, lymph nodes, tonsils, appendix, Peyer's patches, lymph, and lymphatic vessels D. Just like the circulatory system, the lymphatic system has a central "heart-like" organ to pump lymph throughout the lymph vessels E. The chief characteristic common to all lymphatic organs is the presence of lymphocytes

D. Just like the circulatory system, the lymphatic system has a central "heart-like" organ to pump lymph throughout the lymph vessels ❌

The ascending palatine artery is a branch of _____. A. Ascending pharyngeal artery B. Sphenopalatine theory C. Pterygopalatine part of the maxillary artery D. First part of the facial artery

D. First part of the facial artery

An individual is suffering from hyperthyroidism and the decision is made to remove a lobe of the thyroid gland. which of the ff structures could be disrupted in this procedure? i. vagus nerve ii. parathyroid gland iii. muscles of the larynx iv. recurrent laryngeal nerve v. thyroid duct A. i, iii B. ii, iv C. i, v D. iii, v E. ii, v

B. ii, iv (ii) parathyroid gland (iv) recurrent laryngeal nerve

Mucopurulent exudate from maxillary sinusitis would be most likely to drain through an ostium in the A. bulla ethmoidalis B. hiatus semilunaris C. inferior nasal meatus D. sphenoethmoidal recess E. superior nasal meatus

B. hiatus semilunaris

the auditory tube A. passes medially from the pinna to the tympanic membrane B. connects the middle ear cavity to the upper part of the pharynx C. is necessary to maintain air in the middle ear D. is the same thing as the cochlea E. both b and c

E. both b and c

Which of the following hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary cells that stain with acidic dyes? A. ACTH B. FSH C. LH D. Prolactin E. TSH

D. Prolactin

Which of the following bones is part of the superior wall (roof) of the orbit? A. Zygomatic. B. Lacrimal. C. Sphenoid. D. Maxilla. E. Ethmoid.

C. Sphenoid.

The latissimus dorsi muscle is supplied by the _____ nerve. A. Medial pectoral B. Cranial nerve XI C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracodorsal

D. Thoracodorsal

The apex of a medullary pyramid in the kidney is called the _____. A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Renal papilla D. Major calyx E. Minor calyx

C. Renal papilla

The cricopharyngeus muscle of the esophagus _____. A. Is a parasympathetic stimulator of peristalsis B. Is a sympathetic inhibitor of peristalsis C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end D. Prevents regurgitation of stomach contents at the abdominal E. Controls the gag reflex

C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end

All of the following are true of maxillary artery, EXCEPT _____. A. It is one of the terminal branches of ECA B. The branches of maxillary artery accompany the branches of maxillary nerve C. It passes deep between the two heads of lateral pterygoid D. It is the arterial supply for mandible

B. The branches of maxillary artery accompany the branches of maxillary nerve

Which of the following cells in the body metabolize glucose only through anaerobic pathways? A. Muscle cells B. Red blood cells C. Hepatocytes D. Neural cells

B. Red blood cells

The hormone that is responsible for “let down reflex”. A. Epinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. Oxytocin

D. Oxytocin

Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy of a lesion on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? A. Lingual, hypoglossal B. Lingual, chorda tympani C. Pharyngeal, lingual D. Glossopharyngeal, hypoglossal

B. Lingual, chorda tympani

Afferent sensation from the lower molar teeth is carried by _____. A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve B. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve C. Long buccal nerve D. motor branch of the facial nerve

A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

All of the following vitamins have little to no risk of overdose EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception? A. niacin B. Biotin C. vitamin C D. vitamin K

D. vitamin K

All of the following muscles are responsible for elevating the mandible, EXCEPT A. Masseter B. Mylohyoid C. Temporalis D. Medial pterygoid

B. Mylohyoid

Reabsorption of glomerular filtrate would be most affected if modifications were made to the permeability of which section of the nephron? A. descending loop of henle B. distal convoluted tubule C. proximal convoluted tubule D. ascending loop of Henle

C. proximal convoluted tubule Filtration- Glomerulus, Bowman's Capsule Reabsorption- PCT Excretion- DCT

What nerve supply has motor action ONLY? A. Auriculotemporal B. Mandibular C. Maxillary D. Facial E. Accessory

E. Accessory

Cardiac function is the volume of blood pumped each minute, and is expressed by which equation? A. CO = SV – HR B. CO = SV + HR C. CO = SV x HR D. CO = SV / HR

C. CO = SV x HR

The ductus venosus present in the fetus becomes what in the newborn? A. Ligamentum arteriosum B. Ligamentum teres C. Fossa ovalis D. Ligamentum venosum

D. Ligamentum venosum

Most skull joints found between the flat bones of the skull are: A. Fibrous joints B. Cartilaginous joints C. Synovial joints D. Diarthroses

A. Fibrous joints

Which of the following is the primary source of plasma proteins? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Plasma cells D. T cells

B. Liver

The entry of which of the following into the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitter? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Calcium E. Acetylcholine

E. Acetylcholine

Which incisor commonly exhibits the most variety in anatomy in both crown form and root form? A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Mandibular central D. Mandibular lateral

B. Maxillary lateral

The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary third molar occludes in: A. the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar B. the distal marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar C. the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular third molar D. the facial embrasure between the mandibular second and third molars E. the buccal groove of the third mandibular molar

E. the buccal groove of the third mandibular molar

Which of the following is the smallest primary molar? A. Maxillary 1st B. Maxillary 2nd C. Mandibular 1st D. Mandibular 2nd

A. Maxillary 1st

A posterior bitewing radiograph reveals a 2 mm × 2 mm radiopaque mass on the distal surface of tooth No. 2, just apical to the CEJ. Which of the following is most likely the finding? A. Enamel pearl B. Cervical enamel projection C. Taurodont D. Distodens E. Hypercementosis

A. Enamel pearl

The distal contact area of a maxillary lateral incisor with ideal alignment is located: A. Near the incisal edge B. In the middle third C. In the incisal third D. At the junction of the incisal and middle thirds E. At the junction of the middle and cervical thirds

B. In the middle third

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar contacts the mandibular first molar on the: A. Central fossa B. Distal fossa C. Mesial fossa D. Mesial marginal ridge E. Distal marginal ridge

A. Central fossa

In an ideal intercuspal relation in a normal dentition, each of the following teeth contacts each other except one. Which one is the exception? A. Maxillary first premolar and mandibular second premolar B. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar C. Maxillary second premolar and mandibular first molar D. Maxillary second molar and mandibular third molar

B. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar

The anterior tooth with the most pronounced lingual ridge is the: A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular lateral incisor C. Maxillary canine D. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary canine

All of the following cusp tips occlude in the central fossa of an opposing tooth during ideal intercuspation EXCEPT A. mesiobuccal of mandibular 1st molar. B. distobuccal of mandibular 1st molar. C. mesiolingual of maxillary 2nd molar. D. distobuccal of mandibular 2nd molar.

A. mesiobuccal of mandibular 1st molar.

Using the Universal Numbering System, which of the following represents the four permanent adult canines? A. 13, 23, 33, 43 B. 6, 11, 22, 27 C. C, H, R, M D. 6, 12, 22, 27 E. 53, 63, 73, 83

B. 6, 11, 22, 27

In centric occlusion, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary third molar will contact: A. the central fossa of the mandibular second molar B. the central fossa of the mandibular third molar C. the distal marginal ridge of mandibular first molar and mesial marginal ridge of the second molar D. the distal marginal ridge of mandibular second molar and mesial marginal ridge of the third molar

B. the central fossa of the mandibular third molar

In comparison to those of permanent molars, the common root trunks of primary molars are proportionately: A. larger B. smaller C. relatively equal D. variable, depending on the tooth

B. smaller

In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial cusp of a maxillary first molar opposes which feature on a mandibular first molar? A. The distal cusp B. The distofacial cusp C. The distofacial developmental groove D. The mesiofacial developmental groove

C. The distofacial developmental groove

In an ideal intercuspation, the tip of the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary second molar opposes which of the following? A. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar B. Distofacial developmental groove of the first molar C. Embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars D. Embrasure between the mandibular second and third molars E. Central fossa

A. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar

Which of these surfaces is a proximal surface? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Incisal D. Buccal E. Mesial

E. Mesial

The larger of the two lingual cusps of a 3-cusp mandibular second premolar A. Mesiolingual B. Distolingual C. Both are of the same size D. None of the above

A. Mesiolingual

This premolar usually has 2 root canals A. Maxillary first premolar B. Maxillary second premolar C. Mandibular first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar

A. Maxillary first premolar

Which premolar is the largest? A. Max. first B. Max. second C. Mand. first D. Mand. second E. All of them

D. Mand. second

Which is found only on maxillary molars? A. Labial ridge B. Marginal ridge C. Oblique ridge D. Transverse ridge E. Triangular ridge

C. Oblique ridge

What is the minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five E. One

C. Four

Triangular shaped spaces located between the proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth? A. Contact area B. An occlusal curvature C. A gingival space D. An embrasure E. All of them

D. An embrasure

Which among the permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than the distal ridge? A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular first molar C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first premolar

D. Mandibular first premolar

Bilateral contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscles results in: A. retrusion B. opening C. protrusion D. closing E. none of these

A. retrusion

In the intercuspal position, facial cusps of mandibular teeth occlude with A. fossae only B. grooves and embrasures C. fossae and marginal ridges only D. fossae, marginal ridges and embrasures

C. fossae and marginal ridges only

Calcification of the permanent dentition typically starts at what time? A. 4-6 months in utero B. 6-8 months in utero C. Birth D. 1-2 months postpartum E. 2-4 months postpartum

C. Birth

In which Angle classification would you typically find a deep overbite with proclined maxillary lateral incisors? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III, division I E. Class III, division II

C. Class II, division II

A labial ridge can be found on which tooth type? A. Incisor B. Canine C. Premolar D. Molar

B. Canine

Which incisor exhibits the most variability? A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Mandibular central D. Mandibular lateral

B. Maxillary lateral

Which of the following teeth have a functional lingual surface? I. Maxillary incisors II. Maxillary canines III. Mandibular incisors IV. Mandibular canines A. I only B. I and IV C. III and IV D. I and II E. None of the above

D. I and II (I) Maxillary incisors (II) Maxillary canines

How many point angles are found on tooth No. 12? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

D. 4

All of the following are features of the permanent mandibular canine EXCEPT A. the mesial cusp ridge is shorter than distal cusp ridge. B. the mesial cusp ridge is almost horizontal. C. the mesial crown outline is in line with the root. D. the cusp tip is located labial to the mid–root-axis line.

D. the cusp tip is located labial to the mid–root-axis line.❌

Which is the only premolar with a longer mesial buccal cusp ridge than distal buccal cusp ridge? A. Maxillary 1st premolar B. Maxillary 2nd premolar C. Mandibular 1st premolar D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

A. Maxillary 1st premolar

On average, how much root structure must be formed before a tooth erupts? A. 0%-25% B. 25%-33% C. 33%-50% D. 50%-66% E. 66%-75%

D. 50%-66%

The glenoid fossa is a portion of which bone? A. Zygomatic B. Temporal C. Maxilla D. Mandible E. Palatine

B. Temporal

All of the following are true of primary canines EXCEPT A. when viewed from the facial, the crown shapes are pentagonal. B. they have cingula. C. the mesial cusp ridge of the maxillary canine is longer than the distal cusp ridge. D. the distal cusp ridge of the mandibular canine is longer than the mesial cusp ridge. E. all of the above.

D. the distal cusp ridge of the mandibular canine is longer than the mesial cusp ridge.

All of the following teeth typically have one root canal EXCEPT A. maxillary central incisor. B. maxillary lateral incisor. C. maxillary canine. D. mandibular canine. E. None of the above.

E. None of the above.

In an ideal occlusion, protrusive contacts can occur on which of the following surfaces? A. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines B. Maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular distal inclines C. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular distal inclines D. Maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular mesial inclines

A. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines

The principal muscle that protrudes the tongue is innervated by which cranial nerve? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN IX D. CN X E. CN XII

E. CN XII

Which portion of the maxillary 1st molar root typically has the greatest surface area? A. Root trunk B. MB root C. DB root D. Palatal root

A. Root trunk

Maxillary incisor protrusion, anterior open bite, crowded laterals, and a high palatal vault are most likely caused by which of the following? A. Mouth breathing B. Thumb sucking C. Tongue thrusting D. Nocturnal bruxism

B. Thumb sucking

Which of the following is the 1st succedaneous tooth to erupt? A. Maxillary 1st molar B. Mandibular 1st molar C. Maxillary central incisor D. Mandibular central incisor E. None of the above

D. Mandibular central incisor

Which premolar has the most square occlusal table shape? A. Maxillary 1st premolar B. Maxillary 2nd premolar C. Mandibular 1st premolar D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

Which of the following is a microdont? A. Geminated incisor B. Cusp of Carabelli C. Peg-shaped lateral D. Dens evaginatus E. Mulberry molar

C. Peg-shaped lateral

Tooth No. 18 has what general crown shape when viewed from the distal? A. Square B. Rectangular C. Rhomboidal D. Trapezoidal E. Oval

C. Rhomboidal

Which two muscles form a sling around the mandible? A. Masseter and temporalis B. Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid C. Masseter and medial pterygoid D. Masseter and lateral pterygoid E. None of the above

C. Masseter and medial pterygoid

Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a trifurcation? A. Maxillary 1st premolar B. Mandibular 1st premolar C. Maxillary 1st molar D. Mandibular 1st molar

C. Maxillary 1st molar

A stray crown is found in your office. It is an anterior tooth and has a cingulum that is offset from center. What tooth is it most likely to be? A. maxillary canine B. maxillary lateral incisor C. mandibular lateral incisor D. mandibular central incisor

C. mandibular lateral incisor

Which characteristic below is common to all mandibular anterior teeth? A. distinct cingula with grooves and pits B. incisal edges that are facial to the root axis line C. facial surfaces that are marked by pronounced labial ridges D. Continuous convexity incisoapically on the facial surface

D. Continuous convexity incisoapically on the facial surface

Which of the following line angles is least "square"? A. mesioincisal of the mandibular lateral incisor B. distoincisal of the mandibular lateral incisor C. mesioincisal of the mandibular central incisor D. distoincisal of the mandibular central incisor

D. distoincisal of the mandibular central incisor

Which tooth has a pulp chamber that is least like the others? A. maxillary central incisor B. mandibular central incisor C. maxillary lateral incisor D. mandibular lateral incisor

A. maxillary central incisor

From which of the following arteries does the sphenopalatine artery arise? A. External carotid B. Facial C. Maxillary D. Ophthalmic E. Transverse facial

C. Maxillary

The following BEST describes skeletal Muscle, _______. A. contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum B. relaxes after calcium binds to troponin C. contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten D. contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin

D. contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin

The smallest bones of the human body are found in the: A. petrous temporal B. mastoid temporal C. zygomatico temporal D. squamous temporal

A. petrous temporal

If a patient has a drooping right eyelid and a dilated right pupil, which of the following neural structures is most likely affected? A. Cervical sympathetic chain B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Superior cervical ganglion E. Trigeminal nerve

C. Oculomotor nerve

The branchial arches disappear when the ________ branchial arch grows down to contact the ______. A. second; third branchial arch B. second; fifth branchial arch C. third; fifth branchial arch D. first; first branchial groove E. first; sixth branchial groove

B. second; fifth branchial arch

An otherwise healthy student taking no medications is concerned because he has noticed several painless uniform "large bumps" at the back of his tongue. These are most likely: A. aphthous ulcers B. candidal colonies C. circumvallate papillae D. filiform papillae E. fungiform papillae

C. circumvallate papillae

Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the ________. A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Confluence of sinuses C. Sigmoid sinus D. Straight sinus E. Internal jugular vein

C. Sigmoid sinus NOTES: UNPAIRED SINUS -Superior sagittal sinus -Inferior sagittal sinus -Straight sinus -Occipital sinus -Posterior intercavernous sinus -Anterior intercavernous sinus

The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the ________. A. Internal jugular vein B. Pterygoid plexus C. Frontal vein D. Infraorbital vein E. Facial vein

E. Facial vein

The duct of a major salivary gland which opens in the area opposite the second molar area region of the maxilla A. Wharton’s Duct B. Bartholin’s Duct C. Rivini’s Duct D. Stensen’s Duct

D. Stensen’s Duct

All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception? A. external jugular vein B. subclavian vein C. hypoglossal nerve D. phrenic nerve E. brachial plexus

C. hypoglossal nerve

B. hiatus semilunaris

Among the muscles of the TMJ, the following muscle opposing stabilizing and antagonistic muscle force as far as the disc is concerned ________? A. Medial pterygoid B. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid D. External Pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

A patient received a severe blow to the lateral side of the head, resulting in an epidural hematoma. Which of the following blood vessels was most likely torn? A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Middle cerebral artery C. Middle meningeal artery D. Superficial temporal artery E. Superior cerebral vein

C. Middle meningeal artery

Which of the following promotes mitosis? A. P2I B. BAX C. RAS D. P53

C. RAS

Which muscle is the chief mover of the mandible TOWARD the left? A. Left medial pterygoid B. Left lateral pterygoid C. Right medial pterygoid D. Right lateral pterygoid

D. Right lateral pterygoid

A. Cricothyroid NOTES: EXTRINSIC MUSCLES OF LARYNGEAL NERVES - SUPRAHYOID "Dye and Style my Jeans" (1) Digastric Anterior: Facial Posterior: Trigeminal (2) Stylohyoid: Facial (3) Mylohyoid: Trigeminal (4) Geniohyoid: C1 - INFRAHYOID (1) Thyrohyoid: C1 (2) Omohyoid: Ansa cervicalis (3) Sterohyoid: Ansa cervicalis (4) Sternothyroid: : Ansa cervicalis

Which of the following bones is formed by intramembranous ossification? A. humerus B. lumbar vertebrae C. frontal bone of the skull D. ribs E. clavicle

C. frontal bone of the skull

Which glandular area secretes hormones which are products of tyrosine metabolism? A. Alpha cells of pancreas B. Beta cells of pancreas C. Adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla E. Testes

D. Adrenal medulla

The volume of gas in the lungs at the end of the normal expiration is _____. A. Functional residual capacity B. Inspiratory reserve volume C. Residual volume D. Expiratory reserve volume

A. Functional residual capacity INSIPRATORY CAPACITY: TV+ IRV TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY: TV+ IRV+ ERV+ RV VITAL CAPACITY: TV+ IRV+ ERV

The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which of the following vessels? A. maxillary artery B. superficial temporal C. deep auricular artery D. middle meningeal artery E. anterior tympanic

D. middle meningeal artery

Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is true? A. The third cranial nerve (the oculomotor nerve) carries sympathetic fibers to the smooth muscles of the eye. B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands. C. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates primarily striated muscle in the body. D. The parasympathetic nervous system is organized for diffuse activation and responses.

B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.

Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right by all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. Rise in temperature B. Rise in carbon dioxide tension C. Rise in pH D. Rise in H+ ion

C. Rise in pH shift to the LEFT= Less except ph shift to the RIGHT= Rise except ph

The AV node is an area of specialized tissue between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. The SA node is considered the pacemaker of the heart. A. The first statement is false, second one is true B. Both statements are true C. Both statements are false D. The first statement is true, second one is false

B. Both statements are true

Also known as the heel bone: A. Calcaneus B. talus C. cuboid D. navicular E. none of these

A. Calcaneus NOTES: BOAT-SHAPED Carpals- Scaphoid Tarsals- Navicular

As a result of a viral infection, a patient has swelling of the left facial nerve within the facial canal. The patient's face appears asymmetrical, and he complains that saliva drips from his mouth while he is chewing. Paralysis of which of the following muscles accounts for these symptoms? A. Buccinator B. Masseter C. Palatoglossus D. Palatopharyngeus E. Temporali

A. Buccinator

Which of the following statements is incorrect A. Plasma cells come from T-lymphocytes B. Neutrophils can increase in chronic bacterial infections C. Prostaglandins cause pain D. Multinucleated giant cells are fusion of many macrophages

A. Plasma cells come from T-lymphocytes❌ B-LYMPHOCYTES

Blood from the internal carotid artery reaches the posterior cerebral artery by the _______. A. anterior cerebral artery B. anterior communicating artery C. posterior communicating artery D. posterior superior cerebellar artery E. basilar artery

C. posterior communicating artery

Which of the following tissues normally has the highest percentage of mucus-secreting cells? A. Esophageal mucosa B. Oral mucosa C. Parotid gland D. Sublingual gland E. Submandibular gland

D. Sublingual gland

During Ventricular systole: Period of ejection, which valves are open? A. AV valves B. Semilunar valves C. 1 AV and 1 semilunar D. No valves are open E. Both A and B

B. Semilunar valves

In which segment of the nephron does the tubular fluid have the highest osmolality? A. bowman's capsule B. proximal tubule C. henle's Loop D. distal tubules

C. henle's Loop

Bile enters the gastrointestinal tract at the ____. A. gastroesophageal sphincter B. duodenum C. jejunum D. ileocecum

B. duodenum

Which of the following best describes the direction of blood flow through a patent ductus arteriosus in an infant? A. From aorta to left pulmonary artery B. From aorta to left pulmonary vein C. From aorta to right pulmonary artery D. From left pulmonary artery to aorta E. From right pulmonary artery to aorta

A. From aorta to left pulmonary artery

Intramembranous ossification does not require the existence of a cartilage bone model. In endochondral ossification, the cartilage transforms into bone, that's why it requires the existence of a cartilage bone model. A. The first statement is false, second one is true B. The first statement is true, second one is false C. Both statements are false D. Both statements are true

D. Both statements are true

Which of the following structures lie in the free edge of the lesser omentum? A. Common bile duct, cystic duct, and hepatic artery B. Cystic duct, hepatic artery, and hepatic vein C. Hepatic vein and cystic duct D. Portal vein, common bile duct, and hepatic artery E. Portal vein, hepatic artery, and hepatic vein

D. Portal vein, common bile duct, and hepatic artery

The following are characteristics of the foramen cecum, EXCEPT _____ A. passage of emissary vein B. at the tip of the circumvallate papilla C. embryologic location of thyroid gland D. at the large intestine

D. at the large intestine❌

RNA that transports activated amino acids to the ribosomes to be used in assembling the protein molecule A. mRNA B. hRNA C. miRNA D. rRNA E. tRNA

E. tRNA mRNA- codon tRNA- anticodon miRNA- regulate rRNA- ribosomes

Which is the constriction of the pupil of the eye condition that can be caused by a normal response to an increase in light, certain drugs or pathological condition? A. myopia B. hyperopia C. miosis D. mydriasis

C. miosis

If a patient is unable to touch the tip of his tongue to the roof of his mouth, dysfunction of which of the following muscles is most likely the cause? A. Buccinator B. Geniohyoid C. Palatoglossus D. Palatopharyngeus E. Tensor palatini

C. Palatoglossus

The mechanism of hearing and memory, include All, (EXCEPT) A. increase protein synthesis B. changes in level of neurotransmitter synapses C. recruitment by multiplication of neurons D. spatial reorganization of synapse

C. recruitment by multiplication of neurons❌ NEURONS DO NOT MULTIPLY

Which of the following modes of action does not relate to rifampin? A. Inhibits RNA synthesis B. Reduce hepatic activity C. Tuberculocidal to cells D. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase

D. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase❌ Binds tightly to PROKARYOTIC RNA polymerase

ABO Blood type that has anti-B antibody: A. Type A B. Type B C. Type AB D. Type O E. a & d

E. a & d

The median pharyngeal raphe serves as the attachment site for which of the following muscles? A. lateral pterygoid B. palatopharyngeus C. levator veli palatini D. stylopharyngeus E. superior constrictor

E. superior constrictor

A knife wound to the neck damages the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the following muscles would be most likely being paralyzed? A. Deltoid B. Flexor carpi ulnaris C. Flexor digitorum superficialis D. Flexor pollicis brevis E. Palmaris longus

A. Deltoid

If a lumbar puncture needle passes through the interlaminar space between the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae, which space does it enter? A. Epidural B. Intramuscular C. Subarachnoid D. Subcutaneous E. Subdural

A. Epidural

Under normal conditions, the main drive for respiration is the A. arterial PCO2 acting through central chemoreceptors B. arterial PCO2 acting through peripheral chemoreceptors C. arterial pH acting through central chemoreceptors D. arterial pH acting through peripheral chemoreceptors E. arterial PO2 acting through central chemoreceptors

A. arterial PCO2 acting through central (BRAIN) chemoreceptors NOTES: CENTRAL- BRAIN- CO2 PERIPHERAL- HEART- O2

A man competing in a weightlifting competition lifts 325 lb over his head and holds it there for 5 seconds. Suddenly, his arms give way and he drops the weight to the floor. Which of the following receptors is responsible for this sudden muscle relaxation? A. Free nerve endings B. Golgi tendon organ C. Merkel disk D. Muscle spindle E. Pacinian corpuscle

B. Golgi tendon organ

Carbon dioxide is transported in blood by a variety of mechanisms. Which of the following is quantitatively the most important method for transporting CO2? A. As carbaminohemoglobin B. As CO2 in gas bubbles C. As CO2 in physical solution D. As sodium bicarbonate in red cells E. As sodium bicarbonate in serum

E. As sodium bicarbonate in serum

During normal diastole, which of the following is most important in preventing overdistension of the ventricles? A. Adjacent lungs B. Aortic valve C. Diaphragm D. Fibrous pericardium E. Mitral valve

D. Fibrous pericardium

Which of the following regions of the nephron is capable of the greatest level of sodium reabsorption? A. Collecting duct B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Proximal convoluted tubule D. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

C. Proximal convoluted tubule

Which part of the hypothalamus controls satiety, and would lead to obesity if destroyed? A. Lateral nucleus B. Septal nucleus C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus D. Supraoptic nucleus E. Ventromedial nucleus

E. Ventromedial nucleus

The following statements pertains to the Gubernacular Cord, except: A. It is found on the lingual surface of deciduous teeth B. It is found on the labial surface of deciduous teeth C. It is composed of a conjunctive tissue D. Links the tooth follicle to the overlying gingiva

B. It is found on the labial surface of deciduous teeth❌

All are functions of the pulp except A. Sensory B. Sympathetic C. Motor D. Afferent

C. Motor❌

The maxillary lateral incisor is smaller than maxillary central incisor in all aspect except which of the following? A. Crown length B. Root length C. Crown width MD D. crown length LL E. Diameter at cervix

B. Root length❌ CI=LI

The height of contour of a mandibular incisor when viewed facially is located at what third of the crown? A. Cervical B. Middle C. Junction of cervical and middle D. Incisal E. Junction of middle and incisal

D. Incisal

Following eruption the root of the mandibular canine is completed developmentally at what age? A. 5 to 6 years B. 9 to 10 years C. 16 to 18 years D. 8 to 9 years E. 12 to 14 years

E. 12 to 14 years

Anterior teeth whose cingulum are located off center to the distal. 1.Maxillary centrals 2.Maxillary laterals 3.Maxillary canines 4.Mandibular centrals 5.Mandibular laterals 6.Mandibular canines A. 1,2,4,5 B. 1,2,4,5,6 C. 1,3,4,5,6 D. 2,3,4 E. 1, 5, 6

E. 1, 5, 6

Cusp of carabelli is found on which cusp of maxillary first molar? A. mesiobuccal cusp B. distobuccal cusp C. mesiolingual cusp D. distolingual cusp

C. mesiolingual cusp

Cervical contours are closely related to the attachment of gingival at the neck of the tooth. The greatest contours of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on which of the following surfaces? A. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth B. Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth C. Distal surfaces of posterior teeth D. Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

B. Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth

The surfaces of teeth that have a trapezoidal outline: 1. Lingual of posterior teeth 2. Labial of anterior teeth 3. Buccal of posterior teeth 4. Proximal of posterior teeth A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 2 & 3 only D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

A. 1,2,3

What is the name of the specific type of epithelial tissue that lines the oral cavity? A. Stratified squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium C. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D. Transitional epithelium

A. Stratified squamous epithelium

Which of the following is an overall description of the basic movement performed by the TMJ? A. The TMJ does not move B. Rotational only C. Gliding only D. Gliding and rotational

D. Gliding and rotational

How many planes of movement can the mandible move in? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

C. Three

The mandible in its physiologic rest or postural resting position has: A. Slight contact of teeth B. Maximum contact of teeth C. No contact D. Premature contact E. Slanted

C. No contact NOTES: Maximum opening= 50-60mm Maximum lateral movement= 10-12mm Protrusive= 8-11mm Retrusive= 1mm Hinge movement of the condyle= 20-25mm

Which teeth/tooth normally has/have three cusps? I. 16 II. 18 III. 24 IV. 45 V. 37 A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, III and V D. IV

B. II and IV

The non-working condyle performs which of the following movements? A. Straight forward B. Downward, forward and medial C. Downward, forward and lateral D. Downward, backward and medial

B. Downward, forward and medial

Which muscle plays an subsidiary role in mastication? A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid E. Temporalis

B. Buccinator

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial cusps of the mandibular second molars contact the maxillary molars on the: A. Distal fossae of the second B. Central fossae of the second C. Lingual embrasures between the first and second D. Facial embrasures between the first and second E. Mesial marginal ridges of the second

E. Mesial marginal ridges of the second

Protrusive movement is produced primarily because of contracture of which of the following muscles? A. Masseter B. Mylohyoid C. Temporalis D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

E. Lateral pterygoid

The dentist instructs the patient, who has a severed left lateral pterygoid muscle, to open wide. The patient’s mandible will move in which direction? A. To the left B. To the right C. In a straight protrusive direction D. In a retrusive direction

A. To the left

It is a part in the oral cavity where the duct of the sublingual gland opens A. Pillar of the fauces B. Near the maxillary 2nd molar C. Sublingual caruncle D. Near the mandibular 2nd molar

C. Sublingual caruncle

The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the A. palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine. B. palatine process of the temporal and the horizontal part of the palatine. C. vomer and the vertical part of the palatine. D. palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine.

D. palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine.

The superior portion of the genioglossal muscle joins A. mandible to styloid process of the skull. B. mandible to tongue. C. mandible to hyoid D. hyoid to tongue.

B. mandible to tongue. NOTES: INFERIOR— mandible to hyoid

The permanent mandibular second molar differs from the permanent mandibular first molar in number of A. cusps. B. roots. C. lingual grooves. D. marginal ridges.

A. cusps.

Which forms the curve of wilson? A. Buccal and lingual cusp tips of both sides B. Only the buccal cusp tips C. Only the lingual cusp tips D. Cementoenamel junction of all teeth

A. Buccal and lingual cusp tips of both sides

What is the structure seen between condyle and coronoid? A. mandibular notch B. coronoid notch C. condylar notch D. glenoid fossa

A. mandibular notch (SIGMOID NOTCH)

In development of the human permanent dentition, the first teeth to begin calcification are the A. mandibular first molars. B. maxillary first premolars. C. maxillary central incisors. D. mandibular central incisor

A. mandibular first molars.

A mandibular canine viewed from the mesial aspect may be differentiated from a maxillary canine in that A. its cusp tip will be lingual to a line bisecting the root. B. its cervical level labially and lingually is on a plane. C. its cingulum is more pronounced. D. there is greater taper of the root.

A. its cusp tip will be lingual to a line bisecting the root.

The premolar with the occlusal groove pattern that may simulate the letter "Y" is the A. maxillary first. B. mandibular first. C. maxillary second. D. mandibular second.

D. mandibular second.

The follicles of the developing permanent incisors are in a position A. Iabial to the deciduous roots. B. distal to the deciduous roots. C. lingual to the deciduous roots. D. directly beneath the apices of the deciduous. roots.

C. lingual to the deciduous roots.

If the pulp of a single-rooted tooth canal were triangular in cross section with the base of the triangle located facially and the apex lingually, with a longer mesial than distal side, the tooth most likely is a A. maxillary second premolar. B. maxillary central incisor. C. maxillary lateral incisor. D. mandibular central incisor.

B. maxillary central incisor.

Due to the presence of a fissured groove, cavity preparations would most frequently have to be extended from the occlusal surface to the A. buccal of maxillary molars. B. lingual of maxillary molars. C. buccal of mandibular molars. D. lingual of mandibular molars. E. lingual of maxillary first premolars.

B. lingual of maxillary molars. (distolingual groove)

Which of the following mesial root surfaces are unlikely to be thoroughly cleaned with the use of floss? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary first premolar D. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary first premolar

Which of the following is the smallest primary molar? A. Maxillary 1st B. Maxillary 2nd C. Mandibular 1st D. Mandibular 2nd

A. Maxillary 1st

A. Enamel pearl

Which cusp of permanent maxillary molars becomes progressively smaller from first to second to third molars? A. Mesiofacial B. Distofacial C. Cusp of Carabelli D. Mesiolingual E. Distolingual

E. Distolingual

The cornerstone of the oral cavity is A. Maxillary canine B. Maxillary first molar C. Mandibular second molar D. Mandibular canine E. Mandibular first molar

A. Maxillary canine

The lingual cusp of the mandibular first premolar contacts: A. the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary first premolar B. the distal marginal ridge of the maxillary second premolar C. the central fossa of the maxillary second premolar D. the lingual embrasure between the maxillary first and second premolars E. the lingual embrasure between the maxillary first premolar and canine

E. the lingual embrasure between the maxillary first premolar and canine

A fracture through the neck of the condyle can result in the forward displacement of the condylar head because of the pull of which of the following muscles? A. Temporal B. Buccinator C. Masseter D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

E. Lateral pterygoid

The composition of dentin is: A. 50% organic, 40% inorganic, and 10% water B. 60% organic, 35% inorganic, and 5% water C. 20% organic, 70% inorganic, and 10% water D. 30% organic, 68% inorganic, and 2% water

C. 20% organic, 70% inorganic, and 10% water

When you move the mandible from centric occlusion (maximum intercuspation) to protruded contact (edge-to-edge) position: A. vertical dimension decreases B. horizontal overlap increases C. vertical overlap increases D. None of the above

D. None of the above

The lingual lobe of an anterior teeth is referred to as the: A. lingual ridge B. mamelons C. cingulum D. tubercles E. lingual pit

C. cingulum

In the Posselt envelope of motion, protruded contact position (PCP) is: A. achieved with the posterior teeth in occlusion B. an extreme border position C. the same as edge-to-edge D. the same as an Angle Class II relationship

B. an extreme border position

The distolingual cusp of the mandibular second molar contacts: A. the lingual embrasure between the maxillary first molar and second molar B. the lingual groove of the maxillary second molar C. the central fossa of the maxillary second molar D. the lingual groove of the maxillary first molar E. the lingual embrasure between the maxillary second molar and third molar

B. the lingual groove of the maxillary second molar

This is a position assumed by the jaw when it is not engaged in any activity: A. initial contact B. centric occlusion C. physiologic rest position D. habitual occlusal position E. most protruded position

C. physiologic rest position

In protrusive movements, the lingual surface of the maxillary lateral incisor will contact which mandibular teeth? A. Central incisor only B. Central and lateral C. Lateral incisor only D. Lateral and canine E. Canine only

D. Lateral and canine

The buccal cusp of the maxillary first premolar occludes in: A. the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar B. the distal marginal ridge of the mandibular second premolar C. the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second premolar D. the facial embrasure between the mandibular first and second premolars E. the facial embrasure between the mandibular first premolar and canine

D. the facial embrasure between the mandibular first and second premolars

The lingual fossa is normally deepest on which incisor? A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Mandibular central D. Mandibular lateral

B. Maxillary lateral

Synovial fluid-producing tissue in the TMJ: A. is found throughout all surfaces B. is not found within the joint C. is found only on articular surfaces D. is found only on non-articular surfaces

D. is found only on non-articular surfaces

What is the study of the tooth and its related structures that is related to speech and digestion? A. General Anatomy B. Oral Anatomy C. Microbiology D. Oral Cytology

B. Oral Anatomy

All of the following are true of primary canines EXCEPT A. When viewed from the facial, the crown shapes are pentagonal. B. They have cingula. C. the mesial cusp ridge of the maxillary canine is longer than the distal cusp ridge. D. the distal cusp ridge of the mandibular canine is longer than the mesial cusp ridge. E. none of the above.

E. none of the above.