TEST 6: PHARMACOLOGY & ANESTHESIOLOGY Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

A patient presents to your office with the following current medication list: warfarin, aspirin, and clotrimazole. Before beginning the procedure you had planned, you decide it is worthwhile to look up further information on these drugs. Warfarin is metabolized in the liver and has a volume of distribution of approximately 0.14 L/kg. You are slightly concerned that this patient may experience increased bleeding because of these properties along with the concomitant medications he is taking. Which of the following properties of a drug is the least likely to contribute to a significant adverse interaction with another drug?

A. The drug has a low therapeutic index
B. The drug has minimal protein binding
C. The drug undergoes extensive cytochrome P450 metabolism
D. The drug is an enzyme inducer
E. The drug has a low volume of distribution

B. The drug has minimal protein binding

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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococci are most likely to be inhibited by which drug?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Vancomycin
E. Penicillin V

D. Vancomycin

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The ratio of LD50 and ED50 is:

A. Potency
B. Toxicity Index
C. Efficacy
D. Therapeutic index

D. Therapeutic index

LD50- lethal to 50% of population
ED50- desired therapeutic effect of 50% of population
= LD50/ED50

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If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to stimulate or combine with the alpha receptors in the eye, which response listed below would you, except?

A. Miosis (contraction of the pupil)
B. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil)
C. Neither of the above; norepinephrine and epinephrine do not stimulate or combine with alpha receptors in the eye

B. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil)

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Which of the following is not an action of diazepam?

A. Antianxiety
B. Anti-inflammatory
C. Sedative
D. Antispasticity

B. Anti-inflammatory❌

Diazepam- a benzodiazepine has ha ff effects
(1) anti-anxiety- reduces anxiety and fear
(2) sedative- reduce agitation and promoting relaxation
(3) antipasticity- muscle relaxant

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What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of aspirin?

A. Stimulates μ opioid receptors
B. Blocks histamine H2 receptors
C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
D. Inhibits lipoxygenase
E. Blocks sodium channels in nerves

C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase

OPIODS— Stimulates μ opioid receptors (Morphine)
RANITIDINE— Blocks histamine H2 receptors: for ulcers and gerds
LEUKOTRIENES— Inhibits lipoxygenase
LOCAL ANESTHETICS— Blocks sodium channels in nerves

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Which of the following compounds after being metabolized to form ACETAMINOPHEN is an active analgesic and antipyretic agent?

A. Propoxyphene
B. Aminopyrine
C. ASA
D. Phenacitin
E. Phenylbutazone

D. Phenacitin

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You received a call from the emergency department at your local hospital concerning a pediatric patient that you recently treated. The patient is a 6-year-old boy who was brought to the emergency department in a comatose state. His parents state that he recently visited your office for extraction of a grossly decayed primary tooth. The parents state that they had given him a few pain pills to help with the discomfort following the extraction. Physical examination of the boy revealed “comatose, hepatomegaly, and yellow sclera.” A computerized tomography (CT) scan revealed cerebral edema. Laboratory results showed elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and prothrombin time (PT). The emergency department physician believes that treatment with the antidote N-acetylcysteine is necessary but has called you to confirm whether you prescribed any medications. What agent is most likely involved in the symptoms of this patient?

A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Codeine
D. Celecoxib
E. Ibuprofen

B. Acetaminophen

Symptoms: (all about liver)
- comatose state
- hepatomegaly
- yellow sclera
- elevated ALT, AST
- elevated PT

N-acetylcysteine — antidote for acetaminophen

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Penicillin V is ideally given

A. Orally
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intravenously
D. None of the above

A. Orally

Penicillin V— Orally (ViVig)
Penicillin G— Intravenously (uGat)

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Which of the following refers to potency of drug?

A. The strength of a drug in relation to its usage
B. The ability of the drug to produce an effect
C. The amount of drug needed to produce an action
D. The amount of drug required to produce a given maximal effect

C. The amount of drug needed to produce an action

CONCENTRATION— The strength of a drug in relation to its usage
EFFICACY— The ability of the drug to produce an effect
MAXIMAL EFFECT— The amount of drug required to produce a given maximal effect

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Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to:

A. DNA
B. Messenger RNA
C. 30s ribosomal particle
D. 50s subunit

C. 30s ribosomal particle

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Nitrous oxide is used during conscious sedation. The maximum NO2-O2 mixture should be:

A. 95% NO2, 5% O2
B. 70% NO2, 30% O2
C. 70% O2, 30% NO2
D. 50% NO2, 50% O2

B. 70% NO2, 30% O2

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What is the antibiotic classification of Tetracycline?

A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal
C. all of the above
D. None of the above

A. Bacteriostatic

Bacteriostatic - inhibit bacterial growth
Bactericidal - kill bacteria

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Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Metronidazole
E. Trimethoprim

E. Trimethoprim

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Identify the enzyme whose inhibition is most responsible for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G.

A. β-lactamase
B. DNA gyrase
C. Nitro reductase
D. Transglycosylase
E. Transpeptidase

E. Transpeptidase

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Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because it has what action?

A. It inhibits Streptococci at a low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
B. It inhibits transpeptidase.
C. It inhibits penicillinase.
D. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC.
E. It inhibits DNA gyrase.

C. It inhibits penicillinase.

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Areas anesthetized by Nasopalatine nerve block

A. Bilateral posterior molars
B. Unilateral canine
C. Bilateral canine
D. Unilateral posterior molars

C. Bilateral canine

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Nitrates and nitrites have what effect on blood vessel smooth muscle?

A. Increase in the level of intracellular calcium
B. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
C. Antagonism at α1-adrenergic receptors
D. Antagonism at β-adrenergic receptors
E. Inhibition of L-type calcium channels

B. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)

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Which of the following is a method of true mandibular nerve block?

A. Lingual Nerve Block
B. Akinosi Technique
C. Classical IAN Block
D. Gow-Gates Technique

D. Gow-Gates Technique

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All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs, except:

A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases
B. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases
C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected
D. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and antipyrexia
E. Side effects include dyspepsia, GIulcers,and renal failure

C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected ❌
Prostaglandin synthesis is ALWAYS affected

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The following are the nerves to be anesthetized when extracting tooth #26, except

A. Greater Palatine Nerve
B. Lesser Palatine Nerve
C. Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve
D. Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve

B. Lesser Palatine Nerve

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Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively reduces the release of renin from the kidney?

A. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. α-adrenergic receptor blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

A. β-adrenergic receptor blockers

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The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinically useful at what cell type?

A. Beta cells of the pancreas
B. Basophils
C. Mast cells
D. Juxtaglomerular cells
E. Parietal cells

E. Parietal cells

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What is the clinical setting for the use of ketorolac by the oral route?

A. For severe pain
B. For initial treatment of pain
C. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac
D. Only in combination with an opioid
E. Only in combination with an NSAID

C. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac

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The following effects result from what type of pharmacological agent? - Tachycardia - Lower blood pressure - Vasodilation - Orthostatic hypotension A. alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker) B. beta adrenergic receptor blocker (beta blocker) C. muscarinic cholinergic blocker (muscarinic blocker) D. nicotinic cholinergic blocker (nicotinic blocker)

A. alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker)

A patient presents to your office for a surgical extraction. Following the procedure, you prescribe the patient tylenol #3 (acetaminophen + codeine). The patient is taking several other drugs concurrently. Which of the following drugs is most likely to inhibit the effectiveness of codeine? A. Terazosin B. Glipizide C. Lisinopril D. Fluoxetine E. Lithium

D. Fluoxetine

Duration of action of bupivacaine A. 4 hours B. 2 hours C. 10 hours D. 8 hours

C. 10 hours (6-12 hours) closest to maximum hours

Brand name of mepivacaine A. carbocaine B. Marcaine C. Cocaine D. Metacaine

A. carbocaine Carbocaine- mepivacaine Marcaine- bupivacaine

Of the following, which is clinically significant adverse reaction due to metoprolol? A. Drowsiness B. Hallucinations C. Arthralgia D. Dry mouth

A. Drowsiness METOPROLOL ADVERSE EFFECT F—fatigue I—insomia L—lethargy D—drowsiness

All of the following are centrally acting antihypertensives, except: A. Methyldopa (Aldomet) B. Clonidine (Catapres) C. Tolazoline (Priscoline) D. Guanabenz (Wytension) E. Guanfacine (Tenex)

C. Tolazoline (Priscoline) — vasodilation

After taking Drug X for 5 days, steady free blood levels average about 20 ug/mL. Drug Z is then introduced while the patient continues to take Drug X, and the free blood levels of Drug X increase to 100 ug/mL. What could have accounted for this? A. Drug Z is a liver microsomal enzyme inducer B. Drugs X and Z formed a chelation product in the intestine C. Drug Z increased the glomerular filtration rate D. Drug Z has a positive inotropic and chronotropic effect E. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins

E. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins

What substance produces all of the following physiologic actions? - Constrict arteriolar blood vessels (vasoconstriction) - Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (bronchodilation) - Decrease blood volume in nasal tissues - Causes a hypertensive response - Produces physiological actions opposite to that of histamine A. Epinephrine B. Bradykinin C. Acetylcholine D. Serotonin

A. Epinephrine

Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers to a decrease response to a drug? A. Dependence B. Cross dependence C. Tolerance D. Withdrawal

C. Tolerance

Which of the most preferable antibiotic form the treatment of non-penicillinase producing gram-positive staphylococcal infections? A. Clindamycin B. Penicillin VK C. Ampicillin D. Cefaclor

B. Penicillin VK

Which of the following has the broadest spectrum of action, activity against gram positive and gram-negative bacteria? A. Tetracycline B. Clindamycin C. Erythromycin D. Ampicillin

D. Ampicillin

The heart is generally considered to have predominantly which type of adrenergic receptors? A. Alpha 1 receptors B. Beta 1 receptors C. Alpha 2 receptors D. Beta 2 receptors

B. Beta 1 receptors

Many people use herbal supplements as alternate therapy for a variety of conditions. It is important for physicians and dentists to know what medications their patients are taking, including herbal supplements. St. John’s Wort is an example of a supplement commonly used to relieve depression. The simultaneous ingestion of the herbal St. John’s Wort has been shown to decrease the half-life of oral contraceptives because St. John’s Wort: A. Blocks the active secretion of oral contraceptive B. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver C. Increases stomach acidity D. Blocks both estrogen and progesterone receptors E. Decreases serotonin levels in the brain

B. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver

A 55-year-old female patient was referred to your office by her physician because she is preparing to receive an infusion of zoledronic acid. Her physician told her to see a dentist to determine if she has any teeth that may need to be extracted in the near future. If so, these should be extracted prior to the infusion because of the risk of poor bone healing (osteonecrosis) that sometimes occurs in patients receiving infusions of zoledronic acid. Prior to the infusion, the patient was taking an oral form of this type of drug. What is another major side effect of the oral form that her physician may have warned her about? A. Anemia B. Xerostomia C. Edema D. Esophageal perforation E. Orthostatic hypotension

D. Esophageal perforation Mallory Weiss- laceration in esophagus Boerhaave's Sndrome- rupured esophagus

Which of the following organisms is usually sensitive to clindamycin? A. Candida albicans B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus viridans E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Streptococcus viridans

Pharmaceutical agents that bring about tissue responses resembling those produced by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system are called? A. Cholinomimetic B. Antiadrenergic C. Anticholinergic D. Sympathomimetic

D. Sympathomimetic

Agent of choice for anesthetizing patients without plasma cholinesterase enzyme A. Pontocaine B. Ravocaine C. Prilocaine D. Tetracaine

C. Prilocaine (amide) AMIDES= have letter "I"; ah may I ESTHERS= don't have letter "I" EPAL Esther- plasma Amide- liver

What type of antibiotics are sulfonamides? A. Bacteriostatic B. Bactericidal C. Neutral D. PABA

A. Bacteriostatic

Using Articaine reduces the risk for toxicity because: A. It is biotransformed through plasma cholinesterase B. Biotransformation through the liver is better C. Its action and properties are very similar to lidocaine D. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation and in the liver

D. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation and in the liver

In patients with malignant hyperthermia, which anesthetic is recommended? A. Propoxycaine B. Lidocaine C. Etidocaine D. Mepivacaine

A. Propoxycaine

The local anesthetic agent with the shortest duration of action is: A. Novocaine B. Propoxycaine C. Lidocaine D. Nesacaine

A. Novocaine (procaine) 30-60 mins

The patient developed an allergy following injection of an amide type of local anesthetic. This most likely result is a reaction to: A. Lidocaine B. Contamination C. Methylparaben D. Epinephrine

C. Methylparaben

The metabolite of Prilocaine which can produce methemoglobinemia: A. Gamma-toluidine B. Beta-toluidine C. Ortho-toluidine D. Levo-toluidine

C. Ortho-toluidine

A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine. How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive? A. 3.6 B. 9 C. 18 D. 36 E. 180

D. 36

According to AHA guidelines, the maximum # of carpules of local anesthetic containing 1:200,000 epinephrine that can be used in a patient with cardiovascular disease is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 11

D. 4 AHA: 0.04 mg HEALTHY: 0.2 mg

A recently introduced local anesthetic agent is claimed by the manufacturer to be several times as potent as procaine. The product is available in 0.05% buffered aqueous solution in 1.8 ml cartridge. The maximum amount recommended for dental anesthesis over a 4- hour period is 30 mg. the amount is contained in approximately how many cartridges? A. 1-9 B. 10-18 C. 19-27 D. 28-36 E. Greater than 36

D. 28-36

Continuous infusion of medication A is given to a 65- kg patient. The pharmacokinetic parameters are as follows: clearance = 9mL/min/kg, volume of distribution =65 L, half-life=4 hours. How long will it take for the medication level to reach 93.75% of steady state? A. 8 hours B. 10 hours C. 14 hours D. 16 hours E. 18 hours

D. 16 hours 1 half life= 50% 2 half lives= 75% 4 half lives= 93.75% 4 ml x 4 hours

Which one of the following is true regarding paroxetine? A. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake B. It is used to treat mania C. It can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) D. GI upset is not a common side effect E. Sexual dysfunction is rarely reported

C. It can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase

Which one of the following benzodiazepines does not require Phase I metabolism by the liver? A. Alprazolam B. Oxazepam C. Midazolam D. Triazolam E. Diazepam

B. Oxazepam (phase 2: glucornidation)

Your 55-year-old male patient is scheduled for three quadrants of periodontal surgery. Each surgical procedure is scheduled 4 weeks apart. This patient is allergic to penicillin and has a history of a mitral valve prolapse. On the basis of the current guidelines, which prescription would be most appropriate to adequately premedicate this patient for all of his visits? A. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure B. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 6 tables; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure C. Clindamycin 600-mgtablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60minutespriortodental procedure D. Clindamycin 600-mgtablets; Disp: 6 tablets; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure E. No prescription necessary

E. No prescription necessary

Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic effects of which drug? A. Acetaminophen B. Aspirin C. Carbamazepine D. Fentanyl E. Ibuprofen

D. Fentanyl

N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for overdose of which of the following medications? A. Acetaminophen B. Ibuprofen C. Celecoxib D. Indomethacin E. Naproxen

A. Acetaminophen

What is the approximate elimination half-time for penicillin V? A. 0.5 hour B. 2 hours C. 4 hours D. 8 hours E. 12 hours

A. 0.5 hour

Pick the organism that is usually clinically sensitive to clarithromycin but not to penicillin V. A. Streptococcus viridans B. Leptotrichia buccalis C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pneumoniae E. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Most drug molecules are absorbed into the tissue by way of _____. A. Blood circulation B. Lipid solubility C. Water solubility D. Carrier specificity

B. Lipid solubility

What does HAART stands for? A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (suppress HIV)

What is the reaction of drugs that cannot be explained by known mechanism? A. Idiosyncracy B. Allergic reaction C. Teratogenic effects D. Adverse effects

A. Idiosyncracy

Which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of high pH? A. Permanently charged drugs B. Drugs that are not charged C. Weak organic acids D. Weak organic bases E. Inorganic ions

C. Weak organic acids

Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity also have the same _____. A. Maximal effect B. Potency C. Receptor affinity D. Therapeutic index E. Aqueous solubility

A. Maximal effect

Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia when administered at the same time as epinephrine? A. Desflurane B. Halothane C. Isoflurane D. Propofol E. Sevoflurane

B. Halothane

According to Malamed, the maximum local anesthetic dose of lidocaine (with or without vasoconstrictor) is __. A. 1.5 mg/kg. B. 2.0 mg/kg. C. 4.4 mg/kg. D. 7.0 mg/kg.

C. 4.4 mg/kg WITH VASOCONSTRICTOR—7.0 mg/kg.

The optimal volume of local anesthetic solution delivered for a true anterior superior alveolar (ASA) nerve block is usually about _____. A. 0.5 mL B. 1.0 mL C. 1.5 mL D. 1.8 mL

B. 1.0 mL

Which of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris? A. Sodium nitrate B. Epinephrine C. Theophylline D. Nitroglycerin E. Isosorbide dinitrate

D. Nitroglycerin

The local anesthetic agent that is most appropriate for use in most children is _____. A. 3% mepivacaine B. 2% mepivacaine with 1:20,000 levonordefrin C. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine D. 0.5% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine

C. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine

How is the therapeutic index of a drug calculated? A. The therapeutic dose is divided by the toxic base. B. Half the toxic dose is divided by half the therapeutic dose. C. The maximum tolerated dose is divided by the minimum therapeutic dose. D. The lethal dose for 50 percent of animals is divided by the therapeutic dose for 50 per cent of animals.

D. The lethal dose for 50 percent of animals is divided by the therapeutic dose for 50 percent of animals

Which of the following local anesthetics causes the least amount of vasodilation? A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine D. Articaine

B. Mepivacaine (2-3%)

If a local anesthetic has a low pKa, then it will usually have a _____. A. Greater potency B. Higher degree of protein binding C. Faster onset of action D. Greater vasodilating potential

C. Faster onset of action

The primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is A. a slowing of the cardiac rate. B. a decrease in the venous pressure. C. a decrease in cardiac enlargement. D. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction

D. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction

Anticipating correct administration of the (long) buccal injection, what areas will be anesthetized? A. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth B. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular molar teeth C. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular premolar teeth D. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular premolar teeth

A. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth

The cholinergic effect of pilocarpine is due to A. reversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic synapse. B. irreversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic synapse. C. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site. D. stimulation of release of acetylcholine from the nerve terminal.

C. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.

Prilocaine hydrochloride four percent is supplied in a 1.8 ml cartridge. It is recommended that 600 mg not be exceeded in a two-hour period. This amount is contained in approximately A. 4 cartridges. B. 8 cartridges. C. 12 cartridges. D. 16 cartridges.

B. 8 cartridges.

Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow? A. Streptomycin B. Penicillin G C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol E. Amphotericin B

D. Chloramphenicol

A. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth

Which drug has an antibacterial spectrum that is limited to anaerobes? A. Amoxicillin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Gentamicin E. Metronidazole

E. Metronidazole

When methohexital is used to induce general anesthesia, the initial effect wears off within a short time and the patient awakens. This occurs because the drug is A. detoxified. B. biotransformed. C. eliminated from the body. D. redistributed from the brain.

D. redistributed from the brain.

Lidocaine is more widely used than procaine in routine dental practice because lidocaine A. is a vasoconstrictor. B. does not cause CNS stimulation. C. causes fewer allergic reactions. D. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse. E. is 50 times more potent as a local anesthetic.

C. causes fewer allergic reactions.

Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to A. herpesvirus. B. Candida albicans. C. Treponema pallidum. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Bacteroides melaninogenicus

B. Candida albicans

Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response? A. Diazepam B. Atropine C. Chlorpheniramine D. Hexylresorcinol E. Phenoxybenzamine

C. Chlorpheniramine (antihistamine)

If a narcotic agent were chosen for intravenous sedation, which of the following drugs should be available as the antagonist of choice? A. Naloxone B. Doxapram C. Pentazocine D. Fentanyl

A. Naloxone

B1-adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the following actions of epinephrine? A. Glycogenolysis B. Cardiac acceleration C. Vasoconstriction in gastrointestinal vasculature D. Vasodilatation of skeletal muscle vasculature

B. Cardiac acceleration

Malignant hyperthermia is a pharmacogenetic disease of skeletal muscle. Characteristically patients with this disease: A. Have congenital heart disease B. Suffer from arteriosclerosis C. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic D. Have sickle-cell anemia

C. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic

Horace Wells was known for: A. The invention of the first gas apparatus B. Being the father of modern anesthesia C. The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first anesthesiologist D. Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes

B. Being the father of modern anesthesia HEWITT— The invention of the first gas apparatus MORTON— The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first anesthesiologist COOK— Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes

The first sensation lost after injection of a local anesthetic to a mixed nerve A. Pressure B. Pain C. Temperature D. Proprioception

B. Pain "PAIN-Tay naman, PRE, PROmise ah?" (1) Pain (2) Temperature (3) Touch (4) Pressure (5) Proprioception

Clark’s rule: A. (Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose) / 150 B. (Age in Months) x (Adult Dose) /150 C. BSA x adult dose /173 D. (Age in Years) x (Adult Dose)+ 12

A. (Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose) / 150 Si Clark ay mabigat FRIED'S RULE (Age in Months) x (Adult Dose) /150 BODY SURFACE AREA (BSA x adult dose) /173 YOUNG'S RULE (Age in Years) x (Adult Dose)+ 12

The only local anesthetic which causes vasoconstriction is A. Propoxycaine B. Cocaine C. Benzocaine D. Mepivacaine

B. Cocaine

Minimum Effective Dose is: A. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect B. the maximum amount of drug given without lethal effects C. the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population D. the amount of drug required to produce a response in 50% of the population

A. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect

Thick viscous liquid containing large amount of sugar: A. spirit B. tincture C. suspension D. syrup E. elixir

D. syrup spirit = ethanol flavoring tincture = ethanol medicinal agent suspension = mixture of solid particles in a liquid vehicle elixir = sweetened flavor liquid in ethanol

Dissociative anesthesia is a unique method of pain control that reduces anxiety and produces a trancelike state in which the person is not asleep, but rather feels separated from his or her body. The primary medication used is: A. Demerol B. Ketamine C. Pentobarbital D. Promethazine hydrochloride

B. Ketamine

Epinephrine and levonordefrin are added to local anesthetics because of their: A. Ability to increase the potency of the local anesthetic B. Ability to decrease the pain (burning) caused by the injection of the local anesthetic C. Vasoconstrictive properties D. Ability to decrease the possibility of an allergic reaction to the local anesthetic

C. Vasoconstrictive properties

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the nerve axon? A. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon B. Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside the nerve C. Increases the membrane’s permeability to sodium D. Increases the excitability of the nerve axon

A. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon

Which form of a local anesthetic can readily penetrate tissue membranes? A. Ionized form B. Nonionized free-base form C. Both ionized and nonionized forms D. None of the above

B. Nonionized free-base form (lipid soluble)

Which component of a lidocaine local anesthetic solution causes an allergy? A. Water B. Bisulfites C. Lidocaine D. Epinephrine (vasoconstrictor)

B. Bisulfites

When phentolamine mesylate (Ora Verse) is given after a dental procedure to reverse the local anesthetics effects, approximately how fast is the return to normal nerve sensation compared to the normal time for the anesthetic to wear off? A. 10% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return B. 25% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return C. 50% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return D. 80% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return

C. 50% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return

What is the contraindication of metronidazole? A. SABE B. Tachycardia C. Hypertension D. Trichomoniasis

C. Hypertension SABE- Subacute bacterial endocarditis/ Seizures and blood Encephalopathy

Which antihypertensive drug also increases bradykinin levels? A. Candesartan B. Furosemide C. Lisinopril D. Metoprolol E. Nifedipine

C. Lisinopril

Inhibiting a-glucosidase and reducing glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is the mechanism of action of which drug? A. Acarbose B. Acetoheximide C. Glyburide D. Metformin E. Pioglitazone

A. Acarbose

Areas anesthetized by Nasopalatine nerve block A. Bilateral posterior molars B. Unilateral canine C. Bilateral canine D. Unilateral posterior molars

C. Bilateral canine

What is the maximum safe dose of epinephrine that can be administered to patient with history of significant cardiovascular impairment? A. 1cc, 1:50,000 B. 1cc, 1:100,000 C. 2cc,1: 50,000 D. 2cc, 1:100,000

B. 1cc, 1:100,000

What is the pH value of mepivacaine HCL 2 % ? A. 4.5 – 6.8 B. 5.5 – 7 C. 2.5 -3.3 D. 3.3 - 5.5

A. 4.5 – 6.8

Nitrous oxide alone is not use as a general anesthetic because of the _____. A. Adverse effect on the liver B. Difficulty in maintaining an adequate oxygen concentration C. Poor analgestic properties D. Expenses of the agent and its explosive hazard

B. Difficulty in maintaining an adequate oxygen concentration

The majority of injectable local anesthetics used today are _____. A. Tertiary amines B. Secondary amines C. Primary amines D. Esters

A. Tertiary amines

_____ has a shorter half-life than other amides because a portion of its biotransformation occurs in the blood by the enzyme plasma cholinesterase. A. Lidocaine B. Bupivacaine C. Mepivacaine D. Articaine

D. Articaine

Brand name of mepivacaine A. carbocaine B. Marcaine C. Cocaine D. Metacaine

What is the direct effect of local anesthetics on blood vessels in the area of injection? A. Constriction B. Dilation C. Sclerosis D. Thrombosis

All of the following describe lidocaine as packaged in dental cartridges except _____. A. Provided in a 2% solution B. Provided with or without epinephrine C. Has a pKa = 8.1 D. Has a rapid onset

C. Has a pKa = 8.1

According to Malamed, slow injection is defined as the deposition of 1 ml of local anesthetic solution in not less than _____. A. 15 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 2 minutes

B. 30 seconds

The _____ nerve block is recommended for management of several maxillary molar teeth in one quadrant. A. Posterior superior alveolar (PSA) B. Inferior alveolar (IA) C. Long buccal (LB) D. Nasopalatine (NP)

A. Posterior superior alveolar (PSA)

In an adult of normal size, penetration to a depth of _____ mm places the needle tip in the immediate vicinity of the foramina, through which the posterior superior alveolar (PSA) nerves enter the posterior surface of the maxilla. A. 10 B. 16 C. 20 D. 30

B. 16

Effect of sodium bisulfite in epinephrine in local anesthesia A. To prevent oxidation B. To prolong shelf life C. To decrease acidity D. Isotonicity of solution

A. To prevent oxidation METHYLPARABEN- To prolong shelf life

If the pH of an area is lower than normal body pH, the membrane theory of local anesthetic action predicts that the local anesthetic activity would be A. greater, owing to an increase in the free-base form of the drug B. Greater, owing to an increase in the cationic C. Less, owing to an increase in the free-base form of the drug D. Less, owing to a decrease in the free-base form of the drug E. None of the above

E. None of the above

Local anesthetics act on what type of receptor? A. An ion channel receptor B. A nuclear receptor C. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gs D. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gq E. A membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity

A. An ion channel receptor

Which drug lacks the amine group that other anesthetics have and is used only topically? A. Procaine B. Mepivacaine C. Lidocaine D. Benzocaine E. Prilocaine

D. Benzocaine

What condition can result due to multiple insertion of needles? A. Trismus B. Infection C. Hematoma D. Nerve injury

A. Trismus

A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine. How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive A. 3.6 B. 9 C. 18 D. 36 E. 180

D. 36

Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to cause an allergic reaction? A. Lidocaine B. Propoxycaine C. Prilocaine D. Mepivicaine E. Bupivacaine

B. Propoxycaine

According to AHA guidelines, the maximum # of carpules of local anesthetic containing 1:200,000 epinephrine that can be used in a patient with cardiovascular disease is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 11

D. 4

A recently introduced local anesthetic agent is claimed by the manufacturer to be several times as potent as procaine. The product is available in 0.05% buffered aqueous solution in 1.8 ml cartridge. The maximum amount recommended for dental anesthetic over a 4-hour period is 30 mg. the amount is contained in approximately how many cartridges? A. 1-9 B. 10-18 C. 19-27 D. 28-36 E. Greater than 36

D. 28-36

Which of the following is a local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? A. Procaine B. Lidocaine C. Prilocaine D. Mepivacaine E. Bupivacaine

A. Procaine

What is the most widely used method in dentistry for controlling pain? A. Pharmacodynamics B. Use of pain reliever C. neuropathic painkiller D. Block pathway of pain

D. Block pathway of pain

Which of the following local anesthetics is the most potent? A. Lidocaine B. Bupivacaine C. Articaine D. Procaine

B. Bupivacaine

Of the amide-type local anesthetics, which is the only one that is metabolized in the bloodstream rather than the liver? A. Articaine (Septocaine, Zorcaine) B. Mepivacaine (Carbocaine) C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) D. Prilocaine (Citanest) E. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

A. Articaine (Septocaine, Zorcaine)

BID is abbreviation for A. Twice a day B. every 4 hours C. 3 times a day D. As needed

A. Twice a day

What is the most commonly used local anesthesia in dentistry? A. Atropine B. Mepivacaine C. Lidocaine D. Bupivacaine

C. Lidocaine

C. causes fewer allergic reactions.

Which of the following local anesthetics causes the least amount of vasodilation? A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine D. Articaine

B. Mepivacaine

What is the alternative anesthesia if lidocaine is contraindicated, especially in patients with liver failure? A. Articaine B. Bupivacaine C. Prilocaine D. Mepivacaine

A. Articaine

What determines duration of action of local anesthetics? A. Protein binding B. Lipid Solubility C. pKa of the solution D. pH of the tissues

A. Protein binding

Which local anesthetic has no place in the routine practice of dentistry? A. Articaine B. Cocaine C. Lidocaine D. Bupivacaine E. Prilocaine

B. Cocaine

Local anesthetics theoretically should be less effective in acutely inflamed tissue than in normal tissue than in normal tissue because in inflamed tissue what happens? A. The pH rises, thus inactivating the anesthetic B. The pH rises, thus decreasing available free base C. The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free base D. The pH remains the same, the extracellular fluid dilutea the anesthetic

C. The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free base

Local anesthetics depress which is the following fibers first? A. Large myelinated fibers B. Small unmyelinated fibers C. Small myelinated fibers D. Large unmyelinated fibers

B. Small unmyelinated fibers

At a pH of 7.8 lidocaine (pKa = 7.8) will exist in A. The ionized form B. The nonionized form C. An equal mixture of ionized and nonionized forms D. A mixture 10 times more ionized than nonionized forms

B. The nonionized form

After an injection, which drug would be expected to have the longest duration of action? (Assume no vasoconstrictor was injected with the local anesthetic.) A. Bupivacaine B. Lidocaine C. Mepivacaine D. Prilocaine E. Procaine

A. Bupivacaine

According to Guedel's stages of anesthesia, the proper use of nitrous oxide achieves which level of anesthesia? A. stage I B. stage II C. stage III D. stage IV

A. stage I

Methemoglobinemia is an adverse effect associated with which local anesthetic due to its metabolism to o-toluidine? A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Prilocaine D. Bupivacaine E. Benzocaine

C. Prilocaine

C. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine

If a local anesthetic has a low pKa, then it will usually have a _____. A. Greater potency B. Higher degree of protein binding C. Faster onset of action D. Greater vasodilating potential

C. Faster onset of action

Prilocaine hydrochloride four per cent is supplied in a 1.8 ml. cartridge. It is recommended that 600 mg. not be exceeded in a two-hour period. This amount is contained in approximately A. 4 cartridges. B. 8 cartridges. C. 12 cartridges. D. 16 cartridges

B. 8 cartridges.

Which of the following teeth could be removed without pain after administration of an inferior alveolar and lingual nerve block? A. All anterior teeth on the side of the injection B. Canine and first premolar on the side of the injection C. All teeth in that quadrant on the side of the injection D. Both premolars and first molar on the side of the injection

B. Canine and first premolar on the side of the injection

Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia when administered at the same time as epinephrine? A. Desflurane B. Halothane C. Isoflurane D. Propofol E. Sevoflurane

B. Halothane

The optimal volume of local anesthetic solution delivered for a true anterior superior alveolar (ASA) nerve block is usually about _____. A. 0.5 mL B. 1.0 mL C. 1.5 mL D. 1.8 mL

B. 1.0 mL

According to Malamed, the maximum local anesthetic dose of lidocaine (with or without vasoconstrictor) is ___. A. 1.5 mg/kg. B. 2.0 mg/kg. C. 4.4 mg/kg. D. 7.0 mg/kg.

C. 4.4 mg/kg.

All the following are classified as what type of drug? Gabapentin (Neurontin) Carbamazepine (Tegretol) Phenytoion (Dilantin) Diazepam (Valium) Valproic acid (Depakene) A. Antidepressant B. Antimanic C. Anti-anxiety D. anticonvulsant

D. anticonvulsant

The optimal dose of a drug administered to a px refers to: A. Minimum dose needed for therapeutic relief B. Maximum dose needed for therapeutic relief C. Relative dose needed for therapeutic relief D. Any of these since it varies from person to person

A. Minimum dose needed for therapeutic relief

PROBENICID is given in combination w/ Amoxicillin in order to: A. Reduce the severity of diarrhea B. Prolong the half-life of amoxicillin C. Extend amoxicillin antibacterial spectrum D. Treat patients under stress

B. Prolong the half-life of amoxicillin

QID A. 4 times a day B. every 4 hours C. 4 hours before bedtime D. 4 hours a day

A. 4 times a day

The main adverse effect of the anti-TB Ethambutol A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Retrobulbar neuritis D. Distal neuropathy

C. Retrobulbar neuritis

The dental usefulness of H1-receptor blockers is based on their: A. Sedative and anti-emetic action B. Reduction of diziness and vertigo C. Reduction of salivary flow D. Reduction of post-operative swelling

A. Sedative and anti-emetic action

In therapeutic doses, Digitalis acts primarily on cardiac muscles by increasing the: A. Rate of impulse conduction B. Refractory period of atrial muscles C. Refractory period of ventricular muscles D. Force of contraction

D. Force of contraction

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin? A. inhibits cell wall synthesis B. interfere with 50s sites C. interfere with 30s sites D. interferes with nucleic acids

A. inhibits cell wall synthesis

Rare side effect of erythromycin A. hearing loss B. GI irritations C. nausea D. vomiting

A. hearing loss

The primary antihypertensive effect of captopril is due to the accumulation of: A. Serotonin B. Angiotensin I C. Angiotensin II D. Bradykinin metabolites

B. Angiotensin I

What are the classic features of ATROPINE poisoning? A. Pale skin, sweating, slow heart rate B. Red, dry skin, fast heart rate C. Pale, dry skin, fast heart rate D. Red, dry skin, slow heart rate

B. Red, dry skin, fast heart rate

Which of the following drugs should not be administered to pxs with Myasthenia Gravis? A. Atropine B. Curare C. Insulin D. Digitalis E. Prostigmine

B. Curare

Patients on bishydroxycoumadin should be monitored with which laboratory test prior to surgery: A. Bleeding time B. Prothrombin time C. Partial thromboplastin time D. Clotting time

B. Prothrombin time

A patient is taking a medication that is a substrate of the enzyme CYP3A4. If the patient is also taking a medication that is an inhibitor of CYP3A4, what is the potential effect on the substrate medication? A. Increased levels of the substrate medication B. Decreased levels of the substrate medication C. No effect on the substrate medication D. Increased metabolism of the substrate medication

A. Increased levels of the substrate medication

All of the following drugs are indirect-acting adrenergic agonists, except: A. Tyramine B. Amphetamine C. Epinephrine D. Methamphetamine E. Hydroxyamphetamine

C. Epinephrine

What is the primary mechanism of action of the cytokine TNF-alpha? A. Induction of apoptosis B. Activation of inflammatory cells C. Inhibition of cell cycle progression D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs is a bronchodilator? A. Epinephrine B. Albuterol (Proventil) C. Salmeterol (Serevent) D. Metaproterenol (Alupent) E. All of the above

E. All of the above

The major sites of drug elimination A. liver and kidneys B. lungs and liver C. kidneys and lungs D. liver and skin

A. liver and kidneys

The principal therapeutic action of the glucocorticoids is: A. Antidiuretic B. antihypertensive C. antianabolic D. anti-inflammatory E. anti-infective

D. anti-inflammatory

The safest and easiest route for drug administration is: A. Oral B. IV C. Rectal D. Inhalation

A. Oral

All of the following sites are generally accepted for IM injections, except: A. The buttocks B. The biceps muscle C. The deltoid muscle D. The anterior thigh

B. The biceps muscle

Your patient is continually taking a small daily dose of aspirin (82 mg) prescribed by the patient’s physician. The object of this therapy is most likely what mechanism? A. To mimic the effect of endogenous endorphins B. To inhibit the production of prostaglandin E1 C. To inhibit the production of thromboxane A2 D. To inhibit the production of arachidonic acid E. To inhibit the production of leukotrienes

C. To inhibit the production of thromboxane A2

Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the treatment of A. Cancer B. Hyperthyroidism C. Sodium retention D. Pheochromocytoma E. Allergic manifestations

B. Hyperthyroidism

Succinylcholine acts to block neuromuscular transmission by A. Inhibiting cholinesterase B. Inhibiting the central nervous system C. Depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle D. Inducing the formation of cholinesterase at the endplate E. lock the release of acetylcholine at the endplate

C. Depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle

When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed A. synergism. B. induction. C. cumulation. D. antagonism E. tachyphylaxis

A. synergism.

Your patient indicates that he is taking medication for atrial fibrillation. He reports that a blood test has indicated that he has an INR number of 4.0. An emergency dental extraction is now required. Which postoperative medication would pose the greatest risk for an adverse effect in this patient? A. Acetaminophen B. Amoxicillin C. Aspirin D. Codeine E. Ibuprofen

C. Aspirin

Which drug blocks H1 histamine receptors but is least likely to cause sedation? A. Diphenhydramine B. Hydroxyzine C. Fexofenadine D. Albuterol E. Famotidine

C. Fexofenadine

Fanconi syndrome from outdated tetracyclines affects predominantly which organ? A. Brain B. Heart C. Kidney D. Pancreas E. Stomach

C. Kidney

The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is A. potentiation. B. chemical antagonism. C. competitive antagonism. D. physiologic antagonism. E. noncompetitive antagonism

D. physiologic antagonism.

Which of the following anticoagulants is NOT therapeutically effective when administered orally? A. Bishydroxycoumarin B. Warfarin sodium C. Heparin sodium D. Anisindione

C. Heparin sodium

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents have a tendency to produce A. xerostomia. B. drowsiness. C. constipation. D. gastric irritation. E. metabolic alkalosis

D. gastric irritation.

Administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to prolong clotting time? A. Morphine B. Vitamin K C. A barbiturate D. Acetaminophen E. Acetylsalicylic acid

E. Acetylsalicylic acid

Which of the following is an irreversible side effect resulting from long-term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics? A. Sedation B. Xerostomia C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism E. Tardive dyskinesia

E. Tardive dyskinesia

The following signs: nausea, pallor, cold perspiration, widely dilated pupils, eyes rolled up, and brief convulsions are indicative of a patient having a _________ reaction. A. Somatogenic B. Psychogenic C. Either of the above D. None of the above

B. Psychogenic

The branch of medical science that deals with the biochemical and physiologic effects and mechanism of drugs: A. Pharmacognosy B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Posology

B. Pharmacodynamics

It is a measure of how much drug is required to elicit a given response A. Potency B. Efficacy C. Efficiency D. Dose

A. Potency

The letters “PRN" appearing on a prescription indicate that a medication is to be administered: A. twice a day B. after meals C. immediately D. when needed

D. when needed

The state of mind and body induced by a drug and requiring the contamination of that drug without which serious physical and mental derangement will result: A. Tolerance B. Tachyphylaxis C. Addiction D. Resistance

C. Addiction

Prototype drug of the drug class involving clindamycin A. Vancomycin B. Clarithromycin C. Lincomycin D. Erythromycin

C. Lincomycin

A prescription for which of the following drugs requires a valid DEA number on the prescription? A. Amoxicillin B. Carbamazepine C. Dexamethasone D. Diphenhydramine E. Oxycodone

E. Oxycodone

Motor adverse effects from phenothiazine antipsychotic drugs are due to drug effects in what region of the brain? A. Chemoreceptor trigger zone B. Cerebrum C. Cerebellum D. Nigro-striatal pathway E. Mesolimbic pathway

D. Nigro-striatal pathway

Which is a nicotinic receptor? A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the skeletal–neuromuscular junction B. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and sweat glands C. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve and the parotid gland D. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and blood vessels E. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve and the heart

A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the skeletal–neuromuscular junction

A patient is administered haloperidol. Along with the haloperidol, the patient also receives benztropine. What is the most likely reason for administering the benztropine? A. To reduce the effects of histamine release B. To aid in the therapeutic response to haloperidol C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of haloperidol D. To overcome a decrease in salivary flow resulting from haloperidol E. To reduce the rate of kidney excretion of haloperidol

C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of haloperidol

Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia when administered at the same time as epinephrine? A. Desflurane B. Halothane C. Isoflurane D. Propofol E. Sevoflurane

B. Halothane

Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers to a decrease response to a drug? A. Dependence B. Cross dependence C. Tolerance D. Withdrawal

C. Tolerance

A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would be expected from which drug? A. Albuterol B. Epinephrine C. Glucagon D. Insulin E. Parathyroid hormone

D. Insulin

Oropharyngeal candidiasis is an adverse effect most likely with which drug? A. Inhaled salmeterol B. Inhaled ipratropium C. Inhaled nedocromil D. Inhaled beclomethasone E. Inhaled methacholine

D. Inhaled beclomethasone

Tight capillary cell junctions resulting in an added barrier to the entry of drugs is most characteristic of which organ or tissue? A. Adrenal gland B. Brain C. Heart D. Liver E. Lung

B. Brain

How many human drug testing phases are carried out before a drug is marketed? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

C. Three

The benzodiazepine receptors BZ1 and BZ2 are located on which ion channel? A. Calcium B. Chloride C. Magnesium D. Potassium E. Sodium

B. Chloride

What does HAART stands for? A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections? A. Amoxicillin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Clindamycin D. Metronidazole E. Trimethoprim

E. Trimethoprim

All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs, except: A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases B. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected D. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and antipyrexia E. Side effects include dyspepsia,GIulcers,and renal failure

C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected