TEST 3: RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY, COMMUNITY DENTISTRY & PUBLIC HEALTH Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

When using a zinc phosphate cement you place the varnish first.

This is because zinc phosphate cements are not biocompatible.

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

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What distinguishes a base from a cement, from a cavity liner.

A. Final application thickness
B. Degree of pulpal protection
C. Biocompatibility of material
D. Degree of hardness

A. Final application thickness

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A/An __________ base is a base that is typically placed over a calcium hydroxide base that has been placed over a pulp exposure.

A. Primary base
B. Secondary base
C. Direct base
D. Indirect base

B. Secondary base

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Solution liners should not be placed under composite restorations because composites do not require the pulpal protection.

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
Composites do not require the pulpal protection. ❌

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When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed?

A. Turbid dentin
B. Infected dentin
C. Transparent dentin
D. Normal dentin
E. Sub-transparent dentin

C. Transparent dentin

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The rate of senile caries is increasing in part because of the increase in gingival recession.

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT .
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

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Chronic caries is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION.

A. Slowly progressing or arrested
B. Pain is common
C. Common in adults
D. Extrinsic pigmentation

B. Pain is common

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The initiation of caries requires four entities. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A. Host
B. Bacteria
C. Carbohydrates
D. Saliva
E. Time

D. Saliva

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Enamel Etching is typically completed with:

A. 37% Phosphoric acid
B. 13% Phosphoric acid
C. 37% Hydrochloric acid
D. 13% Hydrochloric acid

A. 37% Phosphoric acid

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Rapid cooling by immersion in water, of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it has been shaped is referred to as:

A. Annealing
B. Tempering
C. Quenching
D. None of the above

C. Quenching

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Gold Alloys _____ upon solidification in the investment. This needs to be compensated for by an equal amount of_____ of the mold.

A. Shrink, expansion
B. Expand, shrinkage
C. Shnnk, shrinkage
D. Expand, expansion

A. Shrink, expansion

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Which of the following finishing margins is essentially a hollow ground bevel, creating more bulk of restorative material near the margin and providing a greater cavosurface angle?

A. Knife edge
B. Beveled shoulder
C. Chamfer
D. Shoulder

C. Chamfer

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On delivery of your first ever crown, you notice that the margins are open when you attempt to seat the crown in the mouth. Which of the following should you check first?

A. The occlusal contacts
B. The proximal contacts
C. For a void on the crown’s interior
D. For a nodule on the crown’s interior

B. The proximal contacts

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To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades.

This is because less cutting blade cut more efficiently.

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades. ❌
To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with MORE cutting blades.

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A cold test reveals lingering pain. You ask the patient to raise their hand until the pain subsides. The patient raises their hand for about 8 seconds. What does this data suggest?

A. Pulpal necrosis
B. Irreversible pulpitis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Acute apical periodontitis

C. Pulpal hyperemia

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The most retentive style of pin is the self-threaded pins because they are cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself.

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

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What was previously an MOD amalgam in #20 now shows that the entire lingual portion of the tooth has fractured off. You believe that the tooth is restorable with a pin-retained amalgam restoration/core. How many pins will you likely use and why?

A. one, because you are missing the lingual cusp only
B. two. because you are missing both the mesio and distolingual line angles
C. three. because you are missing the mesial, distal, and lingual walls

B. two. because you are missing both the mesio and distolingual line angles
every missing line angle= 1 pin

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When preparing a pin channel, you perforate into the vital pulp chamber. What best describes your next step.

A. Explain to the patient the need for root canal treatment
B. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place calcium hydroxide
C. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place pin to depth of I mm as to not enter the pulp chamber
D. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place pin elsewhere and restore with amalgam

B. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place calcium hydroxide

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Two most quoted disadvantage of using the rubber dam are:

i. Time consumption
ii. Patient objection
iii. Cost
iv. Staff allergies to material

A. i and iii
B. ii and iv
C. ii and iii
D. i and ii

D. i and ii

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The rubber dam can still be used effectively even if teeth are crowded and overlapped because the hole punch pattern does not always have to be followed.

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

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Put the following steps in order for proper sealant placement.
1. Apply acid etch
2. Place the low viscous sealant material
3. Apply bonding agent
4. Wash acid etch away
5. Use rubber prophy cup with pumice

A. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
D. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3

A. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

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The light cure sealants require UV light.

The light cure sealants are known to be clinically better than chemical cure.

A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

D. Both statements are false

The light cure sealants require UV light. ❌
The light cure sealants require UV light AND VISIBLE LIGHT

The light cure sealants are known to be clinically better than chemical cure. ❌
The light cure sealants = chemical cure

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Fluoride reduces the rate of enamel solubility.

This increases the hardness of enamel.

A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
This increases the hardness of enamel.❌
This DOES NOT increase the hardness of enamel.

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Acidulated phosphate fluoride has a low pH.

Because of this, it is contraindicated on porcelain and composite restorations.

A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

C. Both statements are true

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Sealants can be effective when placed over incipient caries lesions because caries is caused by anaerobic microorganisms. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and tlle reason are conect but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT Incipient caries is caused by anaerobic microorganisms.❌ Incipient caries is caused by AEROBIC microorganisms.

Which of the following is least associated with the short term strength of a material? A. Creep B. Modulus of elasticity C. Resilience D. Brittleness

A. Creep

Plastic deformation takes place prior to elastic deformation. The distinction between these two is termed the elastic limit. A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

The outline form of a cavity preparation is defined as: A. "That form the cavity takes to resist the forces of mastication" B. "That form the cavity takes to resist dislodgement or displacement of the restoration" C. "The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth" D. "The shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated" E. "The shape or form the preparation assumes after the retention form has been completed"

C. "The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth"

A patient returns to your office only 24 hours after you cemented her new gold crown on tooth #19. She claims to feel a sharp electrical sensation in both her upper and lower jaw on the left side. When you explain to her what might be. happening, you call it: A. Electromagnetic pulse B. Alternating current corrosion C. Electrolyte explosion D. Galvanic shock

D. Galvanic shock

What is the most effective community-based intervention to control dental decay? A. School-based dental sealant programs B. Community health centers with dental clinics C. Fluoridation of drinking water D. Introduction of sugarless chewing gums

C. Fluoridation of drinking water

All of the following are true for Class II amalgam preparations, except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Proximal retention locks if placed, should be entirely in dentin, and are deeper gingivally than occlusally B. The axio-pulpal line angle is beveled or rounded to reduce stress C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal D. The pulpal depth aids in the resistance form of the preparation E. The buccal and lingual walls should con-verge to provide mechanical retention to the restorative material

C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal❌ The uninvolved proximal wall should DIVERGE slightly toward the occlusal

All of the following are advantages of glass ionomer cements except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Anticariogenic B. Biocompatibility C. Bond chemically to tooth structure D. Set via an acid–base reaction E. More soluble in the conditions of the oral cavity than zinc phosphate cements

E. More soluble in the conditions of the oral cavity than zinc phosphate cements❌

All of the following are characteristics of a Class V (five) composite preparation except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. All internal line angles should be rounded B. Retention provided by undercuts made in to the axial walls C. Cavosurface margins when placed on enamel should be beveled D. Outline form of the prep is determined by the extent of the carious lesion E. A butt joint is not indicated when finishing the preparation on root surfaces

E. A butt joint is not indicated when finishing the preparation on root surfaces❌

Which of the following marginal designs is the best for cast gold restorations? A. Shoulder B. Shoulder bevel C. Chamfer D. Shoulder with retention groves

C. Chamfer

What are the requirements of a good provisional restoration? A. Provide pulpal protection B. Be able to be easily cleaned C. Have non impinging margins D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following teeth retain sealants the best? A. Permanent first molars B. Primary second molars C. Permanent second premolars D. Permanent second molars E. Primary first molars

C. Permanent second premolars

Which of the following teeth retain sealants the worst? A. Permanent first molars B. Primary second molars C. Permanent second premolars D. Permanent second molars E. Primary first molars

A. Permanent first molars

All of the following cavity classifications can involve any teeth except for: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class V D. Class VI

B. Class II

When preparing a tooth for a composite restoration, the dimension of the preparation is solely determined by the access and: A. Removing sound tooth structure to obtain the most optimal preparation B. The extent of the caries C. Removing sound tooth structure to obtain mechanical retention D. The shade of the tooth.

B. The extent of the caries

The modified pen grasp is the most common instrument grasp in dentistry; this is because it allows for the greatest intricacy and delicacy of touch. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

What are the structural components of composite? A. Polymer matrix and filler particles B. A coupling agent and initiator C. Polymer matrix and coupling agents D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What is an advantage of using a cast-gold restoration? A. Gold is a strong material and rarely fractures B. A cast-gold restoration has esthetics superior to other restorations C. The impression material that is used for cast-gold restorations is less expensive D. Gold has a wear rate that is similar to porcelain

A. Gold is a strong material and rarely fractures

Which of the component of DMF index measures tooth mortality A. M component B. D component C. F component D. all of these

A. M component

When restoring an endodontically treated tooth, what are the first two things that must be considered? A. The canal configuration and if a post will be necessary B. Which restoration is indicated and if a post will be necessary C. The canal configuration and which restoration is indicated D. Which restoration is indicated and the function of the restored tooth

B. Which restoration is indicated and if a post will be necessary

Concerned with factors that influence occurrence and distribution of health etc A. Public Health B. Administration C. Epidemiology D. Ecology

C. Epidemiology

Republic Act 3626 in June 22, 1963 is the A. fluoridization law B. fluoridation law C. generics law D. rural health law

B. fluoridation law

Endemic involves A. sudden outbreak B. worldwide occurrence C. habitual occurrence D. none is correct

C. habitual occurrence

The maximum production with the least cost with available resources: A. Principle of allocations B. principle of administration C. Principle of management D. principle of efficiency E. both A & D

D. principle of efficiency

The combination of educational and environmental supports for actions and conditions of living conducive to health is A. Health promotion B. Health education C. Health instruction D. Empowerment

A. Health promotion

Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present A. Tertiary prevention B. Primary prevention C. Secondary prevention D. Any of these

C. Secondary prevention

The effectivity date of Magna Carta of Public Health workers: A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. January 28, 1992

C. April 17, 1992

It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community’s water supply to an optimal level for the prevention of dental caries. A. Fluoride supplement B. School water fluoridation C. Fluoride mouthrinse program D. None of these

B. School water fluoridation

Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___ community: A. Mature B. Immature C. Progressive D. Organize E. None of these

B. Immature

It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavior changes that lead to a better level of health. A. Health promotion B. Public health C. Preventive dentistry D. All of these E. None of these

A. Health promotion

Are activities that are aimed at the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease in order to prevent sequelae. A. Tertiary prevention B. Pathogenesis C. Secondary prevention D. Prepathogenesis E. Primary prevention

C. Secondary prevention

Detailed analysis of the working of the organization: A. Standing order B. Records C. Organizational chart D. Budgeting E. Procedure manual

E. Procedure manual

Which of the following is a properly expressed disease rate? A. Population at risk/cases of disease/100,000 B. Total population/cases of disease/100,000 C. Cases of disease/total population D. Cases of disease/total population/100,000 E. Cases of disease/ population at risk/100,000

E. Cases of disease/ population at risk/100,000

City A had 54 cases of a certain disease last year while City B had 127. What, if anything, is missing to make a meaningful comparison of the disease experiences of the two cities? A. Nothing --- city B’s experience was worse than city A’s B. The number of cases from a control city C. Population at risk in the two cities D. Number of doctors in the two cities

C. Population at risk in the two cities

An epidemiologist examines the population of a small town for both the incidence and prevalence rates of arteriosclerosis. Assume that all cases can be identified and that cure rate is nil. Which rate is probably larger? A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Mortality D. Morbidity

B. Prevalence

It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a population based on information from a sample. A. Descriptive statistics B. Inscriptive statistics C. Inferential statistics D. Differential statistics E. None of these

C. Inferential statistics

An index which use a dichotomous scoring system: A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. None of these

E. None of these

ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in: A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

A. Africa

An index that measure the number of surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries: A. RCI B. GI C. DMF D. UTN E. PI

C. DMF

This index that is designed to be repeated to following patient oral hygiene education: A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. None of these

A. OHI-S

Index assess pockets, bleeding, plaque, retentive factors and periodontal treatment needs: A. CPTIN B. GI C. PI D. OHI-S E. None of these

D. OHI-S

It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that impose segregation to a group of people: A. Entry into community B. Area selection C. Community study D. Integration E. Both C & D

D. Integration

It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined criteria under specific conditions. A. Indices B. Prevalence C. Incidence D. Epidemiology E. None of these

D. Epidemiology

All Class III lesions should be filled with composite resin, because they are esthetically important. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

The ideal amount of dentin required between an amalgam restoration and the pulp for insulation is: A. 0.5 mm B. 1.0mm C. 2.0 mm D. 3.0 mm

C. 2.0 mm

A patient comes in claiming that their holistic doctor told him that he has an allergy to mercury and needs only white fillings. Your best response is: A. There is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus, there is no mercury in amalgam fillings B. You might have mercury allergy, but that is very rare. Plus, there is no mercury in amalgam filling C. There is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus, with proper isolation and technique your exposure will be minimal D. You might have a mercury allergy, but that is very rare. Plus, with proper isolation and technique your exposure will be minimal

D. You might have a mercury allergy, but that is very rare. Plus, with proper isolation and technique your exposure will be minimal

You would prefer your assistant over triturate the amalgam rather than under triturate it, this is because an over triturated amalgam will still have optimal strength. A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

C. Both statements are true

All of the followings are similarities between amalgam Class II restorations and inlay Class II restorations EXCEPT one, which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Occlusal isthmus width B. Depth into dentin C. Axio-pulpal line angle shape D. Gingival wall form

D. Gingival wall form

Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations is associated with which two factors? A. Insufficient trituration and condensation B. High residual mercury C. The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation D. The failure to use a cavity varnish

A. Insufficient trituration and condensation

Proper condensation and carving makes an amalgam restoration stronger because it removes the mercury-rich matrix. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT . The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct D. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth: A. Should result in a long bevel B. Is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam C. Should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture D. Is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong

C. Should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture

When preparing a class Il amalgam restoration, all surface angles should be approximately 90 degrees. However, the internal angles should be rounded. A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

C. Both statements are true

Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for a restoration? A. Mandibular first bicuspid B. Mandibular second bicuspid C. Maxillary first molar D. Maxillary first bicuspid

A. Mandibular first bicuspid

The occlusal marginal enamel for an onlay restoration: A. 30 degree B. 40 degree C. 140 degree D. 90 degree E. None of the above

C. 140 degree

All four walls of a Class I amalgam preparation should diverge slightly because divergence prevents undermining of the marginal ridges. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct are related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct

Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth syndrome: A. Collar preparation B. Skirt preparation C. Slot preparation D. Facial and lingual surface groove extension

B. Skirt preparation

A retention groove whose length is transverse plane and in dentin: A. Skirt B. Slot C. Lock D. Collar E. None

B. Slot

A person does not seek treatment for bleeding gums because of a financial handicap. Such an example comes under the category of A. Potential demand B. Effective demand C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

A. Potential demand

The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except: A. Promote mineralization of the tooth B. Reserve the process of cavity formation C. Retard cavity formation D. Decrease pH level E. None of the above

D. Decrease pH level

Refers to measure taken to diagnose a disease that is already present. A. Tertiary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Primary prevention D. Any of the three

B. Secondary prevention

A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to achieve health policy objectives; A. Civic action B. Dental mission C. Outreach program D. Health program E. Public program

D. Health program

The maximum production with the least cost with available resources; A. Principle of allocations B. Principle of management C. Principles of administration D. Principle of efficiency E. Both A & D

D. Principle of efficiency

In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with certain group of students on a subject matter. A. Development method B. Team teaching method C. Discussion method D. Lecture method E. Both A & C

B. Team teaching method

Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work. A. Autonomy B. Esprit de corps C. Authority D. Discipline E. Projection

A. Autonomy

Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are the factors under; A. Health related socio-economic factors B. Health status C. Population analysis D. Health resource analysis E. None of the above

A. Health related socio-economic factors

They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involve; A. Para-dental professional B. Dental assistant C. Dental hygienists D. Dental auxiliaries E. All of these

A. Para-dental professional

Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data; A. Limited resources B. Allocation C. Priority determination D. Both A & C E. None of these

C. Priority determination

The main intent of the national health planning and resources development act is to 1. Provide equity in access to care 2. Keep costs reasonable 3. Assure quality 4. Redistribute health resources A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3 E. 2

B. 1 and 2

Regardless of whether health care is financed by self pay, government subsidy, or other third party mechanism, the ultimate cost falls on A. Only the taxpayer B. Big business C. the middle class D. government E. the public at large

E. the public at large

The insurance concept is essentially one of A. budgeting payments B. sharing risks C. subsidized financing D. capitation

B. sharing risks

It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of disease: A. Experimental epidemiology B. Analytical epidemiology C. Descriptive epidemiology D. Epidemiology E. None of these

B. Analytical epidemiology

It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue: A. Dental caries activity B. Susceptibility test C. pH test D. both A & B only E. A & c only

E. A & c only

Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time: A. Incidence B. Rate C. Ratio D. Prevalence E. None of these

D. Prevalence

What is a sampling method where a subset of the population is selected in a way that each population member has an equal chance of being selected? A. Multi stage B. Cluster C. Systematic D. Simple random

D. Simple random

A table which shows the frequency of occurrence of different values of the variable or the frequency of values following within arbitrarily defined ranges of the variables is______ A. 2- way table B. Differential distribution table C. Dummy table D. Frequency distribution table

D. Frequency distribution table

One of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency. A. Mean B. Median C. Range D. Mode

C. Range

What are the requirements of a good provisional restoration? A. Provide pulpal protection B. Be able to be easily cleaned C. Have non impinging margins D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following teeth retain sealants the best? A. Permanent first molars B. Primary second molars C. Permanent second premolars D. Permanent second molars E. Primary first molars

C. Permanent second premolars

A community dental program aims to reduce the prevalence of dental caries in children. Which of the following strategies is most effective in achieving this goal? A. Providing fluoride varnish treatments B. Promoting oral hygiene education C. Conducting dental screenings D. Providing dental sealants

D. Providing dental sealants

All of the following cavity classifications can involve any teeth except for: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class V D. Class VI

B. Class II

B. The extent of the caries

A. Gold is a strong material and rarely fractures

B. Which restoration is indicated and if a post will be necessary

Why is it challenging for individuals with dengue fever to maintain good oral hygiene practices? A. Due to the cost of dental care B. Because of the symptoms of the disease C. As a result of lack of access to dental care D. Due to fear of dental procedures

B. Because of the symptoms of the disease

D. You might have a mercury allergy, but that is very rare. Plus, with proper isolation and technique your exposure will be minimal

C. Both statements are true

D. Gingival wall form

Concerned with factors that influence occurrence and distribution of health etc A. Public Health B. Administration C. Epidemiology D. Ecology

C. Epidemiology

Republic Act 3626 in June 22, 1963 is the A. fluoridization law B. fluoridation law C. generics law D. rural health law

B. fluoridation law

The combination of educational and environmental supports for actions and conditions of living conducive to health is A. Health promotion B. Health education C. Health instruction D. Empowerment

A. Health promotion

Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism by which xylitol prevents dental caries? A. Inhibition of bacterial growth B. Neutralization of acid C. Promotion of remineralization D. Inhibition of sugar metabolism

D. Inhibition of sugar metabolism

The occlusal marginal enamel for an onlay restoration: A. 30 degree B. 40 degree C. 140 degree D. 90 degree E. None of the above

C. 140 degree

A retention groove whose length is transverse plane and in dentin: A. Skirt B. Slot C. Lock D. Collar E. None

B. Slot

A. Potential demand

Curette used for the distal surface of posterior teeth A. ½ B. ¾ C. 13/14 D. 15/16

C.13/14

You are planning your dental office. Which type of patient chair will most convenient for your fourhanded dental practice? A. Straight-backed, thin-backed B. Straight-backed, thick-backed C. Contoured, thin-backed D. Contoured, thick-back

C. Contoured, thin-backed

The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-etch technique? A. Microleakage B. Pulpal irritation C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix D. Coefficient of thermal expansion

A. Microleakage

Refers to a laminated restoration using glass ionomer to replace dentin and composite resin to replace enamel. A. Composite veneers B. Labial veneers C. Sandwich technique D. Laminates E. None of these

C. Sandwich technique

The gingival-to-occlusal divergence of the activity walls for class II inlay cast metal restoration: A. 2-3 degrees B. 2-4 degrees C. 2-5 degrees D. 3-5 degrees

C. 2-5 degrees

What do you call the motion of a piezoelectric ultrasonic? A. hammering B. scrapping C. vibrating D. elliptical

B. scrapping

It describes the chain of superiors from the highest to the lower ranks: A. Centralization B. Span of control C. Scalar principle D. Administration E. Autonomy

C. Scalar principle

It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action: A. Planning B. Coordination C. Objective D. Strategy E. Actions

A. Planning

Central tendency- which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? A. mean B. mode C. median D. range

D. range

The maximum production with the least cost with available resources; A. Principle of allocations B. Principle of management C. Principles of administration D. Principle of efficiency E. Both A & D

D. Principle of efficiency

Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data; A. Limited resources B. Allocation C. Priority determination D. Both A & C E. None of these

C. Priority determination

They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involve; A. Para-dental professional B. Dental assistant C. Dental hygienists D. Dental auxiliaries E. All of these

A. Para-dental professional

The Magna Carta of Public Health Worker; A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572 E. None of these

B. RA 7305

The difference between the lowest and highest values. A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Range

D. Range

Regardless of whether health care is financed by self-pay, government subsidy, or other third party mechanism, the ultimate cost falls on A. Only the taxpayer B. Big business C. The middle class D. Government E. The public at large

E. The public at large

The insurance concept is essentially one of A. Budgeting payments B. Sharing risks C. Subsidized financing D. Capitation

B. Sharing risks

It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders to have a better understanding of the community. A. Mobilization B. Training C. Core grouping D. Area selection E. Setting up an organization

C. Core grouping

Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___ community: A. Mature B. Immature C. Progressive D. Organize E. None of these

B. Immature

Detained analysis of the working of the organization: A. Standing order B. Records C. Organizational chart D. Budgeting E. Procedure manual

E. Procedure manual

E. Cases of disease/ population at risk/100,000

C. Population at risk in the two cities

In filling a Class II amalgam preparation, it is the tooth most difficult to adapt a matrix band A. Disto-occlusal of maxillary 1st molar B. Disto-occlusal of mandibular 2nd molar C. Mesioocclusal of maxillary first premolar D. Mesio-occlusal of maxillary 1st molar

C. Mesioocclusal of maxillary first premolar

C. Inferential statistics

It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human population and those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury: A. Epidemiology B. Dental epidemiology C. Descriptive epidemiology D. Experimental epidemiology E. None of these

A. Epidemiology

It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of disease: A. Experimental epidemiology B. Analytical epidemiology C. Descriptive epidemiology D. Epidemiology E. None of these

B. Analytical epidemiology

Components of a mercury spill kit, except A. Warning tape and dampening spray B. Protective apron and nitrile gloves C. Goggles and amalgam well D. Scraper and aspirator

C. Goggles and amalgam well

ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in: A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

A. Africa

An index that measure the number of surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries: A. RCI B. GI C. DMF D. UTN E. PI

C. DMF

As sample size decreases, standard deviation A. May increase or decrease B. Decreases C. remains the same D. Increases

D. Increases

The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers: A. Just B. Humane C. Service to mankind D. Both A & B E. All of these

E. All of these

Which statement best describes the rationale of the DMF index? A. Adult teeth are easier to measure than deciduous teeth B. Dental caries is permanently observable in the mouth C. Dental caries is universally prevalent D. Dental caries is best measured by scoring active lesions only E. Dental caries is best measured by ignoring missing teeth

B. Dental caries is permanently observable in the mouth

A 12 year old patient scored using the DMF index. Data from this child revealed the following 2 missing permanent 1st molars 4 missing 3rd molars 3 filled permanent teeth 4 active carious lesions on permanent teeth 2 filled deciduous teeth 2 missing deciduous teeth What is the DMF score for this patient? A. 6 B. 9 C. 13 D. 15 E. 19

B. 9

A dentist is preparing tooth #27 for an occlusal amalgam restoration. Once the ideal outline form and depth have been established, the dentist notice that caries remains on the facial, pulpal and lingual walls of the preparation. The next step in treatment is to: A. Extend the outline form B. Remove the caries with a larger round bur C. Remove the caries with a spoon excavator D. Place CAOH over caries

A. Extend the outline form

A dentist inadvertently scaled a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a maxillary first molar. This would most likely result in: A. Arrested caries B. Extension of caries C. Discoloration of the tooth D. Increased microleakage

B. Extension of caries

Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not requires a gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline: A. Facially B. Lingually C. Gingivally D. Occlusally E. Vertically

C. Gingivally

Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. The severely of disease perceived by the patient affects patient compliance. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A. Both statements are true

The technique of etching enamel and dentin simultaneously is A. Priming B. Microetching C. enamel etching D. Total etch technique

D. Total etch technique

The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is: A. The reducing zone B. The zone closed to the nozzle C. The oxidizing zone D. A combination of oxidizing and reducing zone

A. The reducing zone

The rate of which carious destruction of dentin progresses tends to be slower in older adults than in young person because of the: A. Change in pH of saliva with aging B. Generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging C. Increase in intertubular organic content D. Decrease in sugar consumption of older adults

B. Generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging

Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative procedure? A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors C. Minimize dehydration of the dentin surface D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation

C. Minimize dehydration of the dentin surface

Which of the following is not a preventive service provided by a dentist? A. Plaque control measure B. Tooth extraction C. Dental caries activity test D. Diet counselling

B. Tooth extraction

The dentist adjusts the shade of restoration using a complementary color. This procedure will result in A. Increased value B. Decreased value C. Intensified color D. Increased translucency

B. Decreased value

In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal surface. The marginal ridges. A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges B. Provide convenience form C. Resist the forces of mastication D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed

A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges

Bonding of composite restorative materials to dentin depends on: A. Dysfunctional coupling agents B. Dehydration of the dentin C. Etching with dilute phosphoric acid D. Covalent bonding

C. Etching with dilute phosphoric acid

A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental caries would include _____. A. Limiting cariogenic substrate B. Controlling cariogenic flora C. Elevating host resistance D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What is used in mercury spillage? A. Charcoal B. Talcum C. Sulfur D. Pumice

C. Sulfur

test result that erroneously excludes an individual from a specific diagnostic or reference group is called ___. A. Erroneous B. False positive C. False negative D. Mistaken E. None of the above

C. False negative

Which of the following terms refers specifically to the process where an antimicrobial agent destroys(germicide) or avoids the growth (microbiostatic) of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate surfaces? A. Antisepsis B. Microbacterial control C. Sterilization D. Disinfection E. Asepsis

D. Disinfection

Which of the following is the most common method of sterilization? A. Dry heat B. Ethylene oxide C. Glutaraldehyde at 2% D. Autoclave E. Chemi-clave

D. Autoclave

How would you treat kissing class III caries lesions? A. Prepare the smaller first, then fill the large first B. Prepare the large first, then fill the smaller first C. Prepare and fill the smaller first, then prepare and fill the larger next D. Prepare and fill the larger first, then prepare and fill the smaller next

B. Prepare the large first, then fill the smaller first

In this section of a scientific article, the researcher interprets and explains the results obtained. A. Summary and conclusion B. Results C. Discussion D. Abstract E. None of the above

C. Discussion

A correlation analysis shows that as the income of the population increases, the number of decayed teeth decreases. Therefore, an expected value for this correlation coefficient (r) would be _____. A. 0 B. 1 C. −1 D. 2 E. −2

C. −1

What type of glass ionomer is used for atraumatic restorative treatment? A. VIII B. VII C. VI D. V

A. VIII

When is a patient restored with tooth colored restoration allowed to bite on the tooth restored? A. Immediately after the appointment B. After 24 hours C. After 1 week D. After 48 hours

A. Immediately after the appointment

C. Fluoridation of drinking water

All of the following are true for Class II amalgam preparations, except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Proximal retention locks if placed, should be entirely in dentin, and are deeper gingivally than occlusally B. The axio-pulpal line angle is beveled or rounded to reduce stress C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal D. The pulpal depth aids in the resistance form of the preparation E. The buccal and lingual walls should converge to provide mechanical retention to the restorative material

C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal

E. More soluble in the conditions of the oral cavity than zinc phosphate cements

E. A butt joint is not indicated when finishing the preparation on root surfaces

Which of the following marginal designs is the best for cast gold restorations? A. Shoulder B. Shoulder bevel C. Chamfer D. Shoulder with retention groves

C. Chamfer

Which of the following teeth retain sealants the worst? A. Permanent first molars B. Primary second molars C. Permanent second premolars D. Permanent second molars E. Primary first molars

E. Primary first molars

What are the structural components of composite? A. Polymer matrix and filler particles B. A coupling agent and initiator C. Polymer matrix and coupling agents D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The ideal amount of dentin required between an amalgam restoration and the pulp for insulation is: A. 0.5 mm B. 1.0mm C. 2.0 mm D. 3.0 mm

C. 2.0 mm

C. Should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture

A. Mandibular first bicuspid

ZOE cements make good temporary sedative restorations because their pH is very basic. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

IRM (Intermediate Restorative Material), will interfere with subsequent placement of a resin filling, This is because IRM is a form of Zinc Oxide Eugenol. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct D. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Zinc phosphate cement can cause irreversible pulpal damage because it shrinks slightly upon setting. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

What distinguishes a base from a cement, from a cavity liner. A. Final application thickness B. Degree of pulpal protection C. Biocompatibility of material D. Degree of hardness

A. Final application thickness

A/An __________ base is a base that is typically placed over a calcium hydroxide base that has been placed over a pulp exposure. A. Primary base B. Secondary base C. Direct base D. Indirect base

B. Secondary base

When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed? A. Turbid dentin B. Infected dentin C. Transparent dentin D. Normal dentin E. Sub-transparent dentin

C. Transparent dentin

The initiation of caries requires four entities. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Host B. Bacteria C. Carbohydrates D. Saliva E. Time

D. Saliva

Enamel Etching is typically completed with: A. 37% Phosphoric acid B. 13% Phosphoric acid C. 37% Hydrochloric acid D. 13% Hydrochloric acid

A. 37% Phosphoric acid

Rapid cooling by immersion in water, of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it has been shaped is referred to as: A. Annealing B. Tempering C. Quenching D. None of the above

C. Quenching

Gold Alloys _____ upon solidification in the investment This needs to be compensated for by an equal amount of_____ of the mold. A. Shrink, expansion B. Expand, shrinkage C. Shrink, shrinkage D. Expand, expansion

A. Shrink, expansion

The heart and soul of Primary Health Care is: A. community participation B. essential health C. service improvement D. health care system E. health service

A. community participation

What is health according to the World Health Organization? A. It is the general condition of something in terms of soundness, vitality and proper functioning. B. It is the general condition of the body or mind, especially in terms of the presence or absence of illnesses, injuries, or impairments. C. It is the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. D. It is the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and the absence of disease or infirmity. E. None of the above

C. It is the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

Primary Health Care was declared during the first international conference as Alma Ata Declaration held last: A. Oct. 19-21, 1979 B. Sept. 6-12, 1978 C. Nov. 6-12, 1978 D. Oct. 9-13, 1979 E. Sept. 8-14, 1978

B. Sept. 6-12, 1978

Magna Carta of Public Health Workers was a consolidation of Senate Bill 3592 & House Bill 1369 A. True B. False C. None of the above

B. False

The program objectives should specify the ff. questions, except: A. when B. who C. what D. how E. none of the above

D. how

A program’s success is determined by: A. implementation B. evaluation C. monitoring D. identifying constraints E. all of these

B. evaluation

Streptococcus mutans are A. Acidogenic, cariogenic B. Aciduric, cariostatic C. Acidogenic, cariostatic D. Aciduric, cariogenic

A. Acidogenic, cariogenic

Chisels are used primarily to cut: A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Enamel D. Amalgam

C. Enamel