Test 2 GENERAL & ORAL HISTOLOGY, PATHOLOGY, MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

Elastic cartilage is composed of collagen type I and is found in the auricle of the ear, the external auditory meatus and the auditory tube.

Fibrocartilage is formed mainly by collagen type II and is found on the articular surface of the clavicle and mandible.

A. Second statement is true, first statement is false
B. both statement is false
C. both statement is true
D. first statement is true, the second statement is false

B. both statement is false

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Each of the following conditions can lead to tissue hypoxia EXCEPT

A. carbon monoxide poisoning.
B. decreased tissue perfusion.
C. decreased blood oxygenation.
D. vascular ischemia.
E. none of the above.

E. none of the above.❌

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Each of the following is true regarding the embryological growth of the kidney EXCEPT

A. the ureteric bud contributes to the adult kidney.
B. the mesonephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and mesonephric duct.
C. the pronephros ultimately forms the epididymis and ductus deferens.
D. the mesonephros forms before the metanephros.
E. the kidney initially forms in the pelvis.

C. the pronephros ultimately forms the epididymis and ductus deferens. ❌

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The major regulatory protein in muscle tissue are ____.

a. Myosin and actin
b. myosin and tropomyosin
c. Troponin and tropomyosin
d. actin and troponin

c. Troponin and tropomyosin

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The characteristic cells of the herpetic lesion are known as:

A. Lipschutz bodies
B. Civatte bodies
C. Lisch nodules
D. Reed-Stemberg cells

A. Lipschutz bodies

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Which cell is a connective tissue macrophage?

A. Kupffer cells
B. Histiocyte
C. Dust cell
D. Langerhans cell
E. Microglia

B. Histiocyte

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A biopsy specimen demonstrates a ciliated columnar epithelium. From which of the following locations in the female genital tract was the biopsy obtained?

A. Cervix
B. Endometrium
C. Fallopian tube
D. Ovary
E. Vagina

C. Fallopian tube

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A lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of hexosaminidase A with “cherry-red spot formation” in the retina leading to blindness is:

A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Pompe’s disease
C. Tay-Sach’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Her’s disease.

C. Tay-Sach’s disease

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Brunner’s glands secrete an alkaline product that helps achieve optimal pH for the activity of pancreatic enzymes. Where are these glands located?

A. At the base of villi throughout the small intestine
B. In the epithelium of the ampulla of Vater
C. In the mucosa and submucosa of the jejunum
D. In the submucosa of the duodenum
E. In the submucosa of the ileum

D. In the submucosa of the duodenum

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A tumor composed of multiple tissues in which there may be representative of all three embryologic layers is

A. Teratoma
B. An adenoma
C. A carcinoma
D. A sarcoma
E. A hamartoma

A. Teratoma

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Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine of patients stricken with which of the following illnesses?

A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Burkitt lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E. Acute myelogenous leukemia

C. Multiple myeloma

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On microscopic examination of an aspirated fluid of an abscess reveals that it is composed of necrotic debris and numerous dead neutrophils, It is indicative of _____.

A. Suppurative inflammation
B. Fibrinous inflammation
C. Serious inflammation
D. Ulcer

A. Suppurative inflammation

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An esophageal biopsy shows normal smooth muscle and striated muscle in the same section. Which portion of the esophagus was the source of this biopsy?

A. Lower esophageal sphincter
B. Lower third of the esophagus
C. Middle third of the esophagus
D. Upper esophageal sphincter
E. Upper third of the esophagus

C. Middle third of the esophagus

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The nucleolus produces?

A. DNA
B. ribosomal RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. messenger RNA
E. both A & B

B. ribosomal RNA

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Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity?

A. Innate
B. Natural passive
C. Natural active
D. Artificial active
E. Artificial passive

D. Artificial active

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What is chemotaxis?

A. The movement of a bacterium in response to a chemical stimulus
B. The use of an inorganic chemical as a source of energy
C. An increase in the internal osmolarity of cell
D. The form of energy that powers the bacterial filagellum

A. The movement of a bacterium in response to a chemical stimulus

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Under normal cellular conditions, all of the following have a higher extracellular concentration than intracellular concentration EXCEPT

A. Na+.
B. Mg2+.
C. Cl−.
D. Ca2+.
E. HCO3−.

B. Mg2+. ❌

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Organisms that must have oxygen for survival is known as:

A. facultative aerobe
B. obligate anaerobe
C. obligate aerobe
D. facultative anaerobe
E. microaerophilic

C. obligate aerobe

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Place the following organization of DNA in order of smallest to largest.

A. Chromatin fibril, double-helix, chromosome, nucleosome
B. Double-helix, nucleosome, chromatin fibril, chromosome
C. Nucleosome, chromatin fibril, doublehelix, chromosome
D. Double-helix, nucleosome, chromosome, chromatin fibril

B. Double-helix, nucleosome, chromatin fibril, chromosome

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All of the following are caused by an overactive thyroid EXCEPT

A. Graves disease.
B. Plummer disease.
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis.
D. cretinism.
E. toxic multinodular goiter.

D. cretinism. ❌

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Transport of glucose using a group translocation system rather than a binding protein dependent transported system is advantageous to a bacterium because _____.

A. glucose can be transported into the cell against an external concentration gradient
B. glucose, a disaccharide is initially cleaned into its monosaccharide constituents during the transport process
C. it has the effect of decreasing the internal osmolarity within the cytoplasm of the cell
D. glucose is phosphorylated as it transverse the membrane which accomplishes the first step of glycolysis and conserve ATP

D. glucose is phosphorylated as it transverse the membrane which accomplishes the first step of glycolysis and conserve ATP

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Which structure can be seen in histologic examination of the submandibular and sublingual glands but not in the adult parotid gland?

A. Myoepithelial cells
B. Serous cells
C. Intercalated ducts
D. Serous demilunes
E. Striated ducts

D. Serous demilunes

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Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?

A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Fe+2
D. Fibrinogen

C. Fe+2

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A patient received second- and third-degree burns over his body. He later developed a wound infection with a bluish-green exudate. Treatment with chloramphenicol and tetracycline was unsuccessful. A gram-negative, motile organism was isolated. Which of the following organisms was most likely isolated?

A. Candida albicans
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Which statement is true concerning interferons? A. They are antiviral antibodies B. They are antibacterial substances C. They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by including resistance D. They are not considered to be a nonspecific resistance factor

C. They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by including resistance

The part of a developing salivary gland destined to become for its functioning is called the: A. Nephron B. Follicle C. Adenomere D. Lobule

C. Adenomere

An anemia characterized by a reduction in acid secretion and intrinsic factor by the stomach; increase likelihood for gastric carcinoma; atrophic and often painful glossitis; degenerative lesions of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord; macrocytic, hyperchromic red blood cells and hypercellular bone marrow is A. thalassemia B. aplastic anemia C. sickle cell anemia D. sprue E. pernicious anemia

E. pernicious anemia

The portion of the pituitary gland that arises from the roof of the primitive oral cavity is the: A. Pars nervosa B. Adenohypophysis C. Neurohypophysis D. Infundibulum

B. Adenohypophysis

Negri bodies, Guarnieri bodies, and molluscum bodies are example of A. foreign bodies B. inclusion bodies C. asteroid bodies D. Verocay bodies E. psammoma bodies

B. inclusion bodies

An antiseptic is a chemical agent which A. Is germicidal when applied to inanimate objects or living tissues B. Is bacteriostatic C. Is virucidal when applied to living tissues D. Either inhibits or kills microorganisms when applied to living tissues

D. Either inhibits or kills microorganisms when applied to living tissues

Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about mast cells? 1. Contains granules that could lead to difficulty of breathing and anaphylaxis 2. Its is associated with tissues rejection A. 1, 2 B. 2 C. 1 D. none is correct

A. 1, 2

Which rickettsial disease is least likely to cause a rash, although it commonly produces an atypical bronchopneumonia? A. Typhus B. Spotted fever C. Tsutsugamushi D. Q fever

D. Q fever

On microscopic examination of bone, small thread-like canals are seen radiating out from the area of each osteocyte. These structures are the A. Volkman canals B. Canaliculi C. Osteons D. Haversian canals E. Lacunae

B. Canaliculi

The visceral epithelial cells of the Renal (Bowman's) capsule are vital to the function of the kidney because they A. provide mesangial cells that regulate capillary size in the glomerular tuft B. have processes that create the ultimate filter of the capsule C. are pyramidal cells with an efficient brush border for absorption D. are responsible for the absorption of most of the water, salts and amino acids from the provisional urine.

B. have processes that create the ultimate filter of the capsule (PODOCYTES)

Which of the following is a unicellular gland? A. Squamous cell B. Goblet cell C. Basal cell D. Basket cell E. Sertoli cell

B. Goblet cell

The karyotype is 47, XY, +21 A. Down syndrome, male B. Down syndrome, female C. Edward syndrome, male D. Edward syndrome, female

A. Down syndrome, male

The type of hepatitis acquired via ingestion of contaminated water and food. A. Hepatitis A / C B. Hepatitis A /E C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B /E

B. Hepatitis A /E

Which of the following characteristics would help to differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. Alpha-hemolysis B. Carbohydrate capsule C. Cytochrome enzyme system D. Growth in bile E. Oxacillin sensitivity

A. Alpha-hemolysis

Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue? A. Collagen fiber B. Elastic fiber C. Reticular fiber D. Purkinje fiber E. All of the above are fibers found in connective tissue

D. Purkinje fiber ❌

The proper sequence of the adrenal cortex zones, from the inside > out is: A. Zona glomerulosa > zona fasiculata > zona reticularis B. Zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa > zona reticularis C. Zona reticularis > zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa D. Zona reticularis > zona glomerulosa > zona fasiculata

C. Zona reticularis > zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused by_____. A. HIV-A B. Hepa V virus C. HIV D. HSV-B

C. HIV virus

What is the name of the cellular mass for the endocrine portion of the pancreas? A. Islets of Langerhans B. Alpha cells C. Beta cells D. Delta cells E. Acini

A. Islets of Langerhans

What is the functional unit of the liver? A. Lobule B. Portal triad C. Central vein D. Hepatocyte E. Sinusoids

A. Lobule

What type of neurons are in the retina? A. Unipolar B. Pseudounipolar C. Bipolar D. Multipolar E. Both a and b

C. Bipolar Bi- Pairs Eyes Ears

What is line that bisects the light band in muscle? A. A band B. I band C. Z line D. H band E. M line

C. Z line

Sialadenitis is A. Inflammation of salivary ducts B. Inflammation of ducts C. Inflammation of salivary glands D. Inflammation of the tonsils

C. Inflammation of salivary glands

Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell? A. Astrocytes B. Ependymal cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Microglia E. Schwann cells

A. Astrocytes

What type of bacterium in which the bacterial cell is found to possess an axial filament? A. Spirochete B. Bdellovibrio C. Archaea D. Mycoplasma

A. Spirochete

Which of the following have been involved in the transmission of Hepatitis C? A. Accidental needlesticks B. Blood transfusions C. Drug addicts sharing contaminated syringes D. All of the above

D. All of the above

“Sulfur granules” are of diagnostic value in suspected cases of: A. histoplasmosis B. scrofula C. furunculosis D. actinomycosis

D. actinomycosis

Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of Paget's disease of bone? A. Hypercementosis B. Internal resorption C. Apical root resorption D. Widening of the periodontal ligament space

A. Hypercementosis

painful, crater-like, 1.5 cm. ulcer developed within one week in the mucosa of the left hard palate of a 40- year-old woman. The most likely diagnosis is A. actinomycosis. B. pleomorphic adenoma. C. squamous cell carcinoma. D. adenoid cystic carcinoma. E. necrotizing sialometaplasia.

E. necrotizing sialometaplasia.

Gingival involvement is an unusual finding in patients with which of the following conditions? A. Pemphigoid B. Recurrent aphthae C. Pyogenic granuloma D. Primary herpetic infection

B. Recurrent aphthae

Type of oral mucosa which covers the floor of the mouth A. Specialized B. Lining mucosa C. Masticatory mucosa D. None of the above

B. Lining mucosa

The sulcular epithelium in man is A. not keratinized B. slightly keratinized C. heavily keratinized D. usually keratinized and is composed of many layers of cells forming a thick layer of stratified squamous epithelium

A. not keratinized

Ameloblastoma features include the following except: A. may arise in wall of dentigerous cyst B. asymptomatic C. may exhibit aggressive behavior D. multilocular radiopacities

D. multilocular radiopacities

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor exhibits the following except: A. usually affects anterior jaw segment B. well defined radiolucency C. asymptomatic D. usually associated with crown of impacted tooth E. none of the above

E. none of the above

Biologic subtypes of ameloblastoma are the following except: A. solid ameloblastoma B. follicular ameoblastoma C. cystic ameloblastoma D. peripheral ameloblastoma E. none of the above

B. follicular ameoblastoma

Pindborg tumor exhibit the following features except: A. microscopic features are similar to an ameloblastoma B. usually affects the mandibular molar-ramus area C. slow growing D. age of occurrence is same as that in ameloblastoma

A. microscopic features are similar to an ameloblastoma

Which of the following contains enamel and dentin? A. ameloblastoma B. complex odontoma C. cementoblastoma D. ameloblastic fibroma E. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

B. complex odontoma

Neurilemmoma is a benign neoplasm that is derived from a proliferation of: A. neuritis B. axons C. schwann cells D. langerhan cells E. none of the above

C. schwann cells

“Tooth within a tooth” A. Dens in dente B. Dens en dente C. Leong’s premolar D. Fusion E. Gemination

A. Dens in dente

A patient is congenitally missing the maxillary lateral incisors and mandibular second premolars. This individual is said to have the condition known as: A. anodontia B. oligodontia C. hypodontia D. hyperdontia

B. oligodontia

Dens-in-dente is most commonly noted in which tooth? A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Maxillary canine D. Mandibular central E. Mandibular lateral

B. Maxillary lateral

A 12-year-old patient presents with premature loss of primary teeth. On radiographic exam, a sharply marginated lucency is seen in the area of tooth loss. Biopsy shows a round cell infiltrate with numerous eosinophils. This would suggest which of the following? A. Cherubism B. Gardner’s syndrome C. Paget’s disease D. Fibrous dysplasia E. Langerhans cell disease

E. Langerhans cell disease

A 15-year-old patient has a numb lower lip and pain in her right posterior mandible. A radiogram shows uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane space of tooth #30. The tooth shows abnormally increased mobility. Which one of the following should be seriously considered? A. Periapical cyst B. Periapical granuloma C. Traumatic bone cyst D. Ameloblastoma E. Malignancy

E. Malignancy

The submucosa of gingival masticatory mucosa is: A. similar in thickness to that of lining mucosa B. much thicker than that of lining mucosa C. found between the epithelium and lamina propria D. thin or absent

D. thin or absent

The most numerous cell type of the dental pulp is the: A. neuron B. fibroblast C. leukocyte D. macrophage E. ameloblast

B. fibroblast

Collagen fibers inserting into compact bone of the alveolar socket are called: A. Tomes processes B. Sharpey's fibers C. Von Ebner lines D. Contour lines of Owen E. None of the above

B. Sharpey's fibers

Which two tissues are formed by the same part of the tooth bud? A. Enamel and dentin B. Dentin and cementum C. Dentin and pulp D. Pulp and cementum E. None of the above

C. Dentin and pulp

Hypercementosis is the excessive deposition of secondary cementum on the roots. Any tooth may be involved, however, which teeth are most frequently involved? A. Molars B. Incisors C. Premolars D. Canines

C. Premolars

Alveolar bone is composed of: A. cortical bone only B. cancellous bone only C. cortical bone surrounding cancellous bone D. cancellous bone surrounding cortical bone

C. cortical bone surrounding cancellous bone

What type of collagen is found in cementum? A. Type I collagen. B. Type II collagen. C. Type III collagen. D. Type IV collagen. E. Type V collagen.

A. Type I collagen.

The congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth is known as: A. Hypoodontia B. Oligodontia C. Diphyodontia D. Anodontia

B. Oligodontia

The abnormal loss of tooth structure due to non masticatory physical friction is referred to as: A. Erosion B. Abfraction C. Attrition D. Abrasion

D. Abrasion

In type I dentin dysplasia, roots appear extremely short, and pulps are: A. Normal B. Somewhat smaller C. Extremely large D. Completely obliterated

D. Completely obliterated

What disorder is a result of a genetic mutation causing the substitution of glutamic acid by a valine and results in dental radiographs with enlarged marrow spaces? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Muscular dystrophy C. Polio D. Sickle-cell anemia

D. Sickle-cell anemia

An emergency patient walks into your office with swelling of the left submandibular space. He says his lower left molar recently 'broke down" and has been very painful especially when something cold hits it or when he chews down on it. What is the most likely etiology of this swelling. A. Orthodontics B. Trauma C. Infection of the pulp of the tooth D. Periodontal disease

C. Infection of the pulp of the tooth

Pituitary Adenoma in a 9-year old will most likely lead to: A. Gigantism B. Acromegaly C. Achondroplasia D. Dwarfism

A. Gigantism (prior adolesence) Acromegaly (after adolesence)

You are consulting on a pathological case for a fellow dentist. The biopsy of the lesion shows multinucleated giant cells and perivascular collagen cuffing. After asking about the clinical signs, your colleague mentions that the young patient seems always to be “staring off into space” and that she has puffy cheeks." The most likely diagnosis of this case is: A. Aneurysmal bone cyst B. Central Giant Cell Granuloma C. Tumor of hyperparathyroidism D. Cherubism

D. Cherubism

Mature enamel is by weight: A. 74% mineralized or inorganic material, 20% organic material, and 6% water B. 80% mineralized or inorganic material, 18% organic material, and 2% water C. 90% mineralized or inorganic material, 9% organic material, and 1% water D. 96% mineralized or inorganic material, 1% organic material, and 3% water

D. 96% mineralized or inorganic material, 1% organic material, and 3% water

Cancer of which oral cavity structure is most commonly associated with mortality? A. Lip B. Tongue C. Floor of mouth D. Buccal mucosa

C. Floor of mouth

The ______________ presents as a movable, painless submucosal nodule with a yellowish -pink discoloration most commonly in the floor of the mouth. A. Lipoma B. Ranula C. Lymphoma D. Oral lymphoepithelial cyst

D. Oral lymphoepithelial cyst

A patient comes into your dental clinic holding a bag of ice to the side of his face and a sliver of ice tucked between his cheek and teeth. He says the cold relieves the pain in his tooth. This is almost indicative of partial necrosis of the structure which innervates the whole tooth. This structure is a connective tissue that develops from the: A. enamel organ B. dental papilla C. epithelial rests of Malassez D. dental sac

B. dental papilla

The first sign of tooth development as seen in histological sections occurs about the: A. Second week in utero B. Sixth week in utero C. Tenth week in utero D. Fourth month in utero

B. Sixth week in utero

When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, where is the attachment epithelium derived from? A. Dental papilla B. Dental sac C. Reduced enamel epithelium D. Dental pulp

C. Reduced enamel epithelium

Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta features multiple pulp exposures, periapical radiolucencies, and a variable radiographic appearance? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

C. Type III (Brandywine type)

Which of the following diseases is associated with a decrease in caries? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Cystic fibrosis C. Cerebral palsy D. Down syndrome

B. Cystic fibrosis

In which of the following case is an incisional biopsy indicated? A. 3 mm well-encapsulated fibroma B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate C. 2 mm papilloma of left commissure of lips D. Aneurysmal bone cyst

B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate

Which of the following is formed inside the walls of the dentinal tubules? A. tertiary dentin B. mantle dentin C. peritubular dentin D. intertubular dentin

C. peritubular dentin

The most common cause of xerostomia is: A. Hereditary B. Medications C. Tooth decay D. Mouth breathing

B. Medications

A 3-year-old boy is being rushed by his mother to finish up his ice-cream. He is unwilling to bite into it because it hurts his teeth. The reason the teeth of children are more sensitive to thermal changes than those of an adult is that: A. newly erupted teeth have more dentin than older teeth B. newly erupted teeth have larger dental pulps C. newly erupted teeth have more differentiated mesenchymal cells D. newly erupted teeth have less ground substance

B. newly erupted teeth have larger dental pulps

Where in the oral cavity is malignant melanoma most commonly found? A. Tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge B. Buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars C. Palate and maxillary gingiva D. Mucobuccal fold of lower lip

C. Palate and maxillary gingiva

The most common type of malignant melanoma is: A. Superficial spreading B. Lentigo maligna C. Acral lentiginous D. Nodular

A. Superficial spreading

Which structure is the central core and fills the bulk of the enamel organ? A. outer enamel epithelium B. inner enamel epithelium C. stratum intermedium D. stellate reticulum

D. stellate reticulum

Which of the following are partially calcified vertical defects in the enamel resembling cracks or fractures that traverse the entire length of the crown from the surface to the DEJ. A. enamel tufts B. enamel spindles C. enamel rods D. enamel lamellae

D. enamel lamellae

When using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of malignant neoplasms, the N represents: A. The presence of Nikolsky's sign B. The presence of nodules C. The presence of regional lymph node involvement D. The presence of erythroplakia

C. The presence of regional lymph node involvement

Of the following types of squamous cell carcinomas, which is the least common? A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the palate B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus

B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx

The application of excessive heat to a tooth results in pain because: A. excessive stimulation of a heat receptor always results in pain B. heat receptors in the pulp have a low threshold to pain C. all stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation D. blood vessels of the pulp expand and cause strangulation of the tissue

C. all stimuli to the pulp results in a pain sensation

The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the: A. Dorsum B. Ventral surface C. Tip D. Posterior lateral border

D. Posterior lateral border

What is the survival rate for melanoma? A. 80% B. 50% C. 10% D. 20%

A. 80%

Which of the following is TRUE of subgingival plaque? A. It is located coronal to the gingival margin. B. It is not affected by diet and saliva. C. It is predominately gram-positive facultative cocci. D. The calculus it forms is due to saliva. E. It does not attach to gingival epithelial sources.

B. It is not affected by diet and saliva.

Cleft palate occurs in the _________ of embryonic life. A. First to third week B. Fourth to sixth week C. Eighth to tenth week D. twelfth to fourteenth week

C. Eighth to tenth week

The mesenchymal cells in the dental papilla adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium differentiate into: A. ameloblasts B. odontoblasts C. cementoblasts D. fibroblasts

B. odontoblasts

All of the following cysts are developmental (or fissural) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst B. Nasolabial (nasoalveolar) cyst C. Branchiogenic cyst D. Median palatal cyst E. Median alveolar cyst

C. Branchiogenic cyst

Which of the following microorganisms is found in the periodontium A. Tanerella forsythia B. Treponema pallidum C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Retrovirus

A. Tanerella forsythia

What is the most probable diagnosis for a lesion that presents as a translucent, bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulge that protrudes from one side of the floor of the mouth? A. Adenoid carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. A ranula D. A lymphangioma

C. A ranula

Of the neoplasms affecting the major or minor glands, the is the most common. A. Basal cell adenoma B. Sebaceous adenoma C. Pleomorphic adenoma D. Ductal papilloma

C. Pleomorphic adenoma

____is the most common salivary gland malignancy and makes up between 5 and 9% of all salivary gland neoplasms. A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. Acinic cell carcinoma D. Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma

B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Which autoimmune disease is associated with the increase in caries? A. Lupus Erythematosus B. Sjogren's disease C. Sarcoidosis D. Crohn's disease

B. Sjogren's disease

It is an odontogenic tumor, more common in the maxilla and is represented by duct-like structures A. Cherubism B. Aneurysmal blood sinusoids C. Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor D. Odontogenic Keratocyst

C. Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor

Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the: A. Chronic desquamative gingivitis B. Petechial hemorrhage C. Iris or target lesion D. Mucocutaneous rash

C. Iris or target lesion

An 8-year-old boy presents with macroglossia and delayed eruption of his primary teeth. Of the following choices, which one is most likely? A. Plummer’s disease. B. Osteochondroses. C. Cretinism. D. Wilson’s disease. E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

C. Cretinism.

Common in severe periodontal infections, former classification is Bacteroides. A. Campylobacter and Tannerella B. Campylobacter and Prevotella C. Prevotella and Porphyromonas D. Tanerella and Prevotella

C. Prevotella and Porphyromonas

The correct order of tooth formation is _____. A. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odontoblasts start to form dentin B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel C. Odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel D. Ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odontoblasts form,odontoblasts start to form dentin E. Odontoblasts form, ameloblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel

B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel

The bone of the mandible i. is formed by the endochondral ossification of Meckel's cartilage ii. is formed by the endochondral ossification of the Reichert's cartilage iii. is formed primarily by intramembranous ossification iv. is influenced in its growth by the pull of attached muscles v. retains Meckel's cartilage within the mandibular canal A. i B. i, ii, v C. i, iii, v D. ii, iv E. iii, iv

E. iii, iv

Canaliculi and Haversian systems: A. are found in acellular cementum B. are found in cellular cementum C. are found in both types of cementum D. are not found in cementum

D. are not found in cementum

Because of the staining effect, tetracycline is not given to children younger than approximately what age? A. 2 years B. 5 years C. 8 years D. 11 years E. 14 years

C. 8 years

Which of the following signs or symptoms suggest a chronic benign process? A. Paresthesia B. Pain C. Vertical tooth mobility D. Uniformly widened periodontal membrane space E. Sclerotic bony margins

E. Sclerotic bony margins

A fluid-filled cyst that forms in the gingiva above a tooth before it erupts. A. Dentigerous cyst B. Follicular cyst C. Ghorlin cyst D. Eruption cyst

D. Eruption cyst

You have a dental patient who mentions during his health history that he has an "overactive thyroid." You ask him about his medications and he states that he doesn't know what he takes now, but at one time he took methimazole. He had to stop that because “It really tore up my gums and the roof of my mouth." Which condition of the blood is most commonly caused as a reaction to medication which could have caused these symptoms? A. Thrombocytopenic purpura B. Agranulocytosis C. Sickle-cell anemia D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

B. Agranulocytosis

A 25-year-old college student comes into your office complaining that when she wakes up she has trouble opening her mouth. When conducting a TMJ exam, you note tenderness of the right lateral pterygoid and non-reciprocal clicking' of the right TMJ. What is the most likely cause of the patient's myofacial pain? A. Trauma B. Muscle spasm C. Periodontal disease D. Tumor

B. Muscle spasm

All of the following cysts are congenital EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Thyroglossal duct cyst B. Branchial cyst C. Globulomaxillary cyst D. Dermoid cyst

C. Globulomaxillary cyst

Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are A. Production of protease and production of acid B. Production of dextranase and production of soluble dextran C. Production of collagenase and production of hyaluronidase D. Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease E. Synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase

E. Synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase

Which of the following is characterized by a cumulative antimicrobial effect? A. Iodine B. Alcohol C. Cationic detergent D. Acid glutaraldehyde E. Chlorehexidine gluconate

E. Chlorehexidine gluconate

A common oral manifestation of Addison’s disease is A. Melanosis B. Erostomia C. Glossodynia D. “cotton-wool: bone E., Loss of lamina dura

A. Melanosis

Immunosuppressed patients are particularly prone to develop severe oral disease caused by: A. Candida albicans B. Actinomyces israelii C. Pneumocystic carinii D. Streptococcus mutans E. Streptococcus salivarius

A. Candida albicans

The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is A. macrognathia. B. melanin pigmentation of the lips. C. yellowish spots on the oral mucosa. D. small, papillary lesions on the palate. E. a rhomboid-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue.

B. melanin pigmentation of the lips.

Examination of a 6-year-old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of her tongue. it displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3 mm., elevated, gray-pink nodules, some of which contain fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. lymphangioma. B. cystic hygroma. C. neurofibromatosis. D. granular cell tumor. E. Sturge-Weber syndrome

A. lymphangioma.

Physiological depth of the gingival sulcus A. 1-3mm B. 4-5mm C. 6-8mm D. 3-5mm

A. 1-3mm

Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple skin lesions and calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of A. Horner's syndrome. B. Gardner's syndrome. C. Sturge-Weber syndrome. D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. E. basal cell nevus syndrome.

E. basal cell nevus syndrome.

Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst? A. Nasolabial cyst B. Nasopalatine cyst C. Incisive canal cyst D. Median alveolar cyst E. Median palatine cyst

A. Nasolabial cyst

Which of the following is CORRECT for obligate anaerobic microorgansims in the oral cavity? A. They do not exist in this area. B. Only gram-positive organisms are found. C. They are normal flora and opportunistic. D. They are seldom isolated in the laboratory. E. They can be completely controlled by using antibiotics.

C. They are normal flora and opportunistic.

Which of the following is the single MOST numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity? A. Enterococci B. Staphylococci C. Anaerobic streptococci D. Facultative streptococci E. Beta-hemolytic streptococci

D. Facultative streptococci

The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following A. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase B. An increased number of bacteria in saliva C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque

D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque

The dental pulp is a connective tissue that develops from the: A. Enamel prgan B. Dental papilla C. Dental sac D. All of the above

B. Dental papilla

The following describes Peripheral Giant cell Granuloma, EXCEPT _____. A. It arises from periodontal ligaments. B. It arises from the periosteum C. More common in males D. It is seen between the first permanent molar and incisors

C. More common in males

Which two structures join to form Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath? i. Stratum intermedium ii. Inner enamel epithelium iii. Stellate reticulum iv. Outer enamel epithelium A. i and ii B. i and iii C. ii and iv D. ii and iii E. i and iv

C. ii and iv

Which of the following is not a distinct layer of the enamel organ? A. Outer enamel epithelium B. Inner enamel epithelium C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum intermedium E. Stellate reticulum

C. Stratum granulosum

Which stage in the life cycle of a tooth listed below includes final shaping of the tooth? A. Initiation B. Proliferation C. Differentiation D. Eruption E. Attrition

C. Differentiation

Principal fibers of the PDL running from the cementum just below the CEJ to the rim of the alveolus A. Interradicular group B. Apical group C. Alveolar crest group D. Oblique group

C. Alveolar crest group

Thinnest mucosa is located in which part of the oral cavity? A. lips B. alveolar mucosa C. floor of the mouth D. buccal mucosa

C. floor of the mouth

What will determine the number of roots to be formed? A. Epithelial diaphragm B. HERS C. periodontal ligament D. Cushion hammock ligament

A. Epithelial diaphragm

Histologically, the dentin of the root is distinguished readily from the dentin of the crown by the presence of which structure? A. Incremental lines of Retzius B. Rete pegs C. Tomes granular layer D. Sharpey’s fibers

C. Tomes granular layer

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding cementum? A. It has more mineral content than bone B. It is continuously deposited at the apical portion C. it has a component of the tooth and periodontium D. It seals the ends of the dentinal tubules

A. It has more mineral content than bone

A benign hereditary condition of the maxilla and mandible, usually occuring at age 5, presenting marked fullness of the jaw and cheeks. A. Cherubism B. Acromegaly C. Paget’s disease D. Ameloblastoma

A. Cherubism

The histologic part which is involved shaping the anatomy of the root A. Hertwig’s Epithelial Root Sheath B. Sharpey’s fibers C. Gubernacular cord D. Epithelial Rests of Malassez

A. Hertwig’s Epithelial Root Sheath

All of the structures are from the neural crest except: A. enamel B. dentin C. cementum D. pulp

A. enamel

The peripheral layer of dentin, which is the first layer of dentin deposited, is called: A. Mantle dentin B. Peritubular dentin C. Intertubular dentin D. Interglobular dentin

A. Mantle dentin

A clinical term defined as a red patch that cannot be clinically or pathologically diagnosed as any other condition is called: A. Leukoedema B. Psoriasis C. Erythroplakia D. White sponge nevus

C. Erythroplakia

What is occurring when an esophagus is dilated, kinked, tortuous, partly filled with undigested foods, and is associated with chronic dysphagia? A. Achalasia B. Barrett's esophagus C. Hiatal hernia D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome E. Zenker's diverticulum

A. Achalasia

Secretory basket cells are located A. inside secretory acini - acinar cells B. surrounding the intercalated duct - intercalated duct cells - cuboidal C. between secretory cells and the basal lamina D. surrounding the striated duct - Striated duct cells are columnar epithelial cells with striations (stripes) of rows of mitochondria used for ATP generation for active transport.

C. between secretory cells and the basal lamina

In which cellular component are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use? A. The Golgi apparatus B. The endoplasmic reticulum C. The nucleus D. The nucleolus

A. The Golgi apparatus

viral organism was isolated from a painful blister on the lip of a teenage girl. The agent was found to double-stranded, linear enveloped DNA. The patient had a similar sore approximately 2 months ago following a week long trip to the beach. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? A. Adenovirus B. Coxsackie virus C. Herpes simplex type 1 virus D. Herpes zoster virus E. Papilloma virus

C. Herpes simplex type 1 virus

In which of the following organs are fenestrated endothelial cells common? A. Heart B. Liver C. Lungs D. Pancreas E. Stomach

B. Liver

If a newborn child develops an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, how does infection with this organism cause blindness? A. Cataract formation B. Hemorrhage into the anterior chamber C. Hemorrhage into the posterior chamber D. Retinal detachment E. Scarring of the cornea

E. Scarring of the cornea

Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases? A. Klinefelter’s syndrome. B. Multiple myeloma. C. Niemann-Pick disease. D. Pemphigus. E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.

A 5-year-old child develops a febrile disease with cough, a blotchy rash, and cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. Also noted is an erythematous, maculopapular rash behind the ears and along the hairline, involving the neck and, to a lesser extent, the trunk. Examination of this patient's oropharynx would likely reveal which of the following lesions? A. Adherent thin, whitish patch on gingiva B. Cold sores on the lips C. Curdy white material overlying an erythematous base on the oral mucosa D. Large shallow ulcers on the oral mucosa E. Multiple small white spots on the buccal mucosa

E. Multiple small white spots on the buccal mucosa

Which of the following findings would be MOST consistent for a young person in a coma having an acetone-like odor? A. Alcohol intoxication B. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Heroin overdose E. Profound hypoglycemia

C. Diabetic ketoacidosis

73-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents with left ear pain and drainage of pus from the ear canal. She has swelling and tenderness over the left mastoid bone. Which of the following microorganisms is the most likely causative agent? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mucor sp. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A 24-year-old man presents with complaints of itching on his arms and face. He states that he took four 500-mg capsules of amoxicillin 1 hour before a dental procedure. Physical examination reveals well circumscribed wheals with raised, erythematous borders and blanched centers. Which form of hypersensitivity is this patient probably exhibiting? A. Acute serum sickness (Type III) B. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (Type II) C. Antireceptor antibodies (Type II) D. Delayed type hypersensitivity (Type IV) E. Immediate type hypersensitivity (Type I)

E. Immediate type hypersensitivity (Type I)

Which of the following can be present with swollen and painful toes and knees, morning low back stiffness, conjunctivitis, as well as mouth and skin ulcerations in a young adult? A. Gout B. Lyme disease C. Reiter's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Septic arthritis

C. Reiter's syndrome

On physical examination, a man has several disfiguring lesions on his face and loss of cutaneous sensation to fine touch, pain, and temperature. An acid-fast organism is observed in scrapings from a skin lesion. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient's disease? A. Bartonella henselae B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Nocardia asteroides

D. Mycobacterium leprae

Carbon monoxide: A. attaches to the nucleus of red blood cells and blocks their capacity to replicate. B. attaches to the cytoplasmic membrane of red blood cells and causes lysis of the cell C. attaches to the hemoglobin of red blood cells and blocks their capacity to carry oxygen D. attaches to the cell membrane of red blood cells and blocks their capacity to move within vessels

C. attaches to the hemoglobin of red blood cells and blocks their capacity to carry oxygen

In using a compound light microscope, the total magnification when LPO is utilized will be: A. 10x B. 100x C. 40x D. 400x

B. 100x SCANNER- 4x LPO- 10X HPO- 40x OIO- 100X IF there's a statement saying, using a compound microscope= 10x

In a histological section of a normal ovary, an oocyte is surrounded by several layers of follicular cells. A small antrum is present. Which of the following is the correct term for the entire structure, composed of the oocyte, follicular cells, and antrum? A. Corpus luteum B. Graafian follicle C. Primary follicle D. Primordial follicle E. Secondary follicle

E. Secondary follicle

Osgood-Schlatter disease is: A. destruction of the growth plate in the neck of the thighbone B. inflammation of the bone and cartilage at the top of the shinbone C. a relatively common condition in which backache and humpback are caused by changes in the vertebrae D. a rare form of inflammation of bone and cartilage affecting one of the small bones (the navicular bone) in the foot.

B. inflammation of the bone and cartilage at the top of the shinbone

Terminal bronchioles are characterized by _____ cells. A. Goblet B. Ciliated cuboidal C. Nonciliated cuboidal D. Ciliated squamous E. Nonciliated squamous

B. Ciliated cuboidal

A biopsy specimen demonstrates a ciliated columnar epithelium. From which of the following locations in the female genital tract was the biopsy obtained? A. Cervix B. Endometrium C. Fallopian tube D. Ovary E. Vagina

C. Fallopian tube

Which of the following cells are defective in chronic granulomatous disease? A. Neutrophils. B. Lymphocytes. C. Plasma cells. D. Killer T cells. E. Macrophages.

A. Neutrophils.

Which of the following is an acute, self-limited disease that occurs 6-8 days after the injection of a foreign protein (bovine albumin) and is characterized by fever, arthralgias, vasculitis, and an acute glomerulonephritis. A. Arthus reaction B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Serum sickness D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

C. Serum sickness

All of the following statements concerning Histiocytosis X are true, except: A. It is a group of disorders characterized by the proliferation of histiocytic cells (macrophages) that closely resemble the Langerhan’s cells of the epidermis B. Birbeck granules, which are tennis racket-shaped cytoplasmic structures, are characteristic markers of the histiocytic cells. C. It only occurs in bones. D. The etiology and pathogenesis are unknown. E. It is also called Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH) and Differentiated Histiocytosis (DH)

C. It only occurs in bones.

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for a rash in a leukemic patient that consists of multiple erythematous patches on the arms, legs, palms, and soles, some of which show central clearing and surrounding ring formation? A. Urticaria B. Erythema multiforme C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Psoriasis

B. Erythema multiforme

A patient suffers an infarct in the territory of the middle cerebral artery. Pathologic examination of the patient's brain would likely show A. caseous necrosis B. coagulative necrosis C. enzymatic fat necrosis D. gangrenous necrosis E. liquefactive necrosis

E. liquefactive necrosis

What is involved in a smoker with scant clear mucoid sputum, quiet sounding chest, hemoptysis, weight loss, destruction of alveolar septae around the respiratory bronchioles, with marked enlargement of the airspaces, and heavy deposits of anthracotic pigment? A. Asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. Emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Silicosis

C. Emphysema

What is the shape of RBC? A. Oval-shaped B. Round-shaped C. Disc-shaped D. Crescent moon-shaped

C. Disc-shaped

Which of the following occurs after an upper respiratory infection and involves severe lower back pain, generalized muscle weakness, and distal paresthesia and demyelination, but there is no appreciable sensory loss and there is minimal residual sequelae? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Friedreich ataxia C. Huntington's disease D. Multiple sclerosis

D. Multiple sclerosis

An elderly man develops a vesicular rash localized to a narrow circumferential band on one side of his chest. The rash is very painful and the vesicles are confluent with some ulceration. No other significant findings are demonstrated on physical examination. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely to be correct? A. Chicken pox B. Herpes simplex I infection C. Herpes simplex II infection D. Measles E. Shingles

E. Shingles

Electron micrographs of glomeruli reveal prominent deposits between the podocytes and the basement membrane of the glomerular capillaries. If the patient was noted to have a skin infection before this condition, these findings are most likely related to prior infection with which of the following genera? A. Escherichia B. Klebsiella C. Neisseria D. Pseudomonas E. Streptococcus

E. Streptococcus

Brunner's glands secrete an alkaline product that helps achieve optimal pH for the activity of pancreatic enzymes. Where are these glands located? A. At the base of villi throughout the small intestine B. In the epithelium of the ampulla of Vater C. In the mucosa and submucosa of the jejunum D. In the submucosa of the duodenum E. In the submucosa of the ileum

D. In the submucosa of the duodenum

Which of the following is a serious complication of an infant delivered of a mother with gonorrhea? A. Mulberry molar B. Hutchinson’s incisors C. Congenital gonorrhea D. Ophthalmia neonatorum

D. Ophthalmia neonatorum

Which of the following genetic conditions is MOST likely to be the cause of a child born with with a small head, small eyes, six fingers on each hand, and congenital heart defects? A. Trisomy 13 B. Trisomy 18 C. Trisomy 21 D. XXY E. XYY

A. Trisomy 13

Another term used to describe compact bone is: A. Spongy bone B. Intramembranous bone C. Bundle bone D. Woven bone E. Lamellar bone

E. Lamellar bone NOTES: Compact bone= Lamellar bone, Cortical bone Spongy bone= Cancellous bone, Trabecullar bone

The lipidoses are lipid storage diseases caused by abnormalities in the enzymes that metabolize fat. They result in a toxic accumulation of fat byproducts in tissues. Gaucher’s disease is a disorder of lipid metabolism caused by deficiency of: A. Hexosaminidase A B. Sphingomyelinase C. Glucocerebrosidase D. a-L-iduronidase

C. Glucocerebrosidase

All of the following are amyloid-associated conditions, except: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Familial Mediterranean fever C. Diabetes mellitus Type 2 D. Parkinson’s disease E. Senile amyloidosis

D. Parkinson’s disease

Which leukocyte is the predominant cell type in pus, and is known as the hallmark of acute infection because of its fast immune response? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Lymphocyte E. Neutrophil

E. Neutrophil

An autoclave sterilizes dental instruments by causing which of the following? A. Coagulation of proteins. B. Denaturing of proteins. C. Precipitation of nucleic acids. D. Disruption of cell membranes. E. Dissolution of lipids.

B. Denaturing of proteins.

Which of the following skin lesions is most likely premalignant? A. Verruca vulgaris. B. Keloids. C. Seborrheic keratosis. D. Actinic keratosis. E. Compound nevus.

D. Actinic keratosis.

Polycystic kidney disease is most commonly associated with _____. A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Urolithiasis D. Berry aneurysm E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

D. Berry aneurysm

What is the surgical treatment for a patient experiencing repeated occurence of tonsillitis with inflamed adenoids. A. Tonsillectomy B. Adenoidectomy C. Sialoadenectomy D. Observe

A. Tonsillectomy

A brief loss of consciousness and sometime memory after an injury to the brain that doesn’t cause obvious physical damage is called a: A. Hematoma B. Infarction C. Concussion D. Meningioma

C. Concussion

All of the following statements concerning fungal spores are true, except: A. Morphologic characteristics B. A conidium is an asexually formed fungal spore C. Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores D. Fungal spores cause allergies in some people

C. Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores

Regarding the parasites’ phylogeny, each of the following is true EXCEPT A. sporozoans are a type of Protozoa. B. parasites are comprised of Protozoa and Metazoa. C. Nemathelminthes are a type of Protozoa. D. “flatworms” is another name for Platyhelminthes. E. Trematoda and Cestoda are subgroups of Platyhelminthes.

C. Nemathelminthes are a type of Protozoa.

Regarding different types of endocarditis, each of the following are true EXCEPT A. Libman-Sacks form of endocarditis is caused by intrinsic bacteremia. B. dental seeding and intravenous drug use cause the infective form. C. the mitral valve is most often affected in the Libman-Sacks form. D. the rheumatic form occurs in areas of greatest hemodynamic stress. E. the mitral valve is most often affected in rheumatic form.

A. Libman-Sacks form of endocarditis is caused by intrinsic bacteremia.

The specific accumulation of serous fluid in the pericardial space is referred to as A. hemopericardium. B. acute pericarditis. C. constrictive pericarditis. D. hydropericardium. E. myocarditis.

D. hydropericardium.

An interactive association between two populations of different species living together in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected is called: A. Symbiosis B. Mutualism C. Commensalism D. Latency

C. Commensalism

Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses? A. Neuraminidase B. Capping enzyme C. Reverse transcriptase D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C. Reverse transcriptase

Each of the following is seen with DiGeorge syndrome, except A. Hypercalcemia B. Thymic hypoplasia C. Microdeletion of chromosome 22 D. Palatal clefting

A. Hypercalcemia

All of the following are RNA enveloped viruses, except: A. Picornaviruses B. HIV C. Measles, Mumps, Rubella and Hepatitis C viruses D. Respiratory viruses

A. Picornaviruses