Test 8 Urinary, Fluid Balance, Reproductive Systems Flashcards
1
Q
What are four (4) functions of the urinary system?
A
- Regulate blood volume
- Regulate blood pressure
- Filter blood
- Maintain fluid balance
2
Q
What chemical do the kidneys produce to regulate blood pressure?
A
Renin
3
Q
Describe the location of the kidneys (2 components)
A
(1) retroperitoneal and (2) superior lumbar region
4
Q
What are four (4) components of the kidney external anatomy?
A
- Renal fascia
- Renal fat pad
- Renal capsule
- Renal hilum
5
Q
What is the function of the renal fascia?
A
Anchor kidneys
6
Q
What is the function of the renal fat pad?
A
Cushions kidneys from trauma
7
Q
Describe the renal capsule
A
Thin outer membrane of kidney
8
Q
Describe the renal hilus (2 components)
A
(1) concave surface where (2) renal arteries, lymphatics, veins and ureters join kidney
9
Q
What are the three (3) layers of the kidney from superficial to deep?
A
- Renal capsule
- Renal cortex
- Renal medulla
10
Q
Describe the renal cortex (2 components)
A
(1) The layer between the renal capsule and the renal medulla (2) that contains the renal corpuscles, proximal convoluted tubules and the beginning of cortical collecting ducts.
11
Q
Describe the renal medulla (2 components)
A
(1) The deepest layer of the kidney (2) that contains renal pyramids and renal columns.
12
Q
Describe the renal pyramids (2 components)
A
(1) Located within the renal medulla and (2) are composed of straight parallel segments of nephrons.
13
Q
Describe the renal columns (2 components)
A
(1) An extension of the renal capsule into the renal medulla (2) that allows the cortex to be better anchored.
14
Q
Describe the minor calyx of the kidney (2 components)
A
(1) Chambers (2) that surround the apex of each renal pyramid.
15
Q
Describe the major calyx of the kidney
A
Chambers that are formed by the convergence of 2-3 minor calyces.
16
Q
Describe the renal pelvis
A
Large chamber formed by the convergence of all major calyces.
17
Q
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
A
Nephron
18
Q
What is the function of the nephron and what are three (3) components of this function?
A
To produce urine:
- Filter blood
- Reabsorption
- Secretion
19
Q
How many nephrons are in each kidney?
A
About one million.
20
Q
What are the two classes of nephrons?
A
- Cortical nephrons
2. Juxtamedullary nephrons
21
Q
Where are the renal corpuscles for cortical nephrons located?
A
Renal cortex
22
Q
Where are the renal corpuscles for juxtamedullary nephrons located?
A
Renal cortex
23
Q
Where is the Loop of Henle located for cortical nephrons?
A
In the renal medulla near its junction with the renal cortex.
24
Q
Where is the Loop of Henle located for juxtamedullary nephrons?
A
Deep within the renal medulla
25
Describe the origin of the name juxtamedullary nephrons
The Loop of Henle is located deep within the renal medulla, so although the renal corpuscle is located in the renal cortex, it is closer to the medulla than cortical nephrons.
26
What are the three (3) components of the nephron?
1. Renal corpuscle
2. Renal tubule
3. Collecting ducts
27
What are two (2) components of the renal corpuscle?
1. Glomerulus
| 2. Bowman's capsule
28
Describe the structure of the glomerulus
Composed of a bed of fenestrated capillaries
29
List two (2) function of the glomerulus
1. Filters blood
| 2. Forms filtrate
30
Describe the anatomy of Bowman's capsule (3 components)
(1) A cup-like sac that (2) surrounds glomerulus (3) at the beginning of the nephron.
31
What is the function of Bowman's capsule? (2 components)
(1) Glomerular filtrate is collected in the Bowman's capsule and (2) passed along to rest of nephron.
32
What are three (3) regions of the renal tubule?
1. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
2. Loop of Henle
3. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
33
What are three (3) functions of the proximal convoluted tubule?
1. Reabsorb solutes
2. Reabsorb water
3. Secretion
34
What are two (2) regions of the Loop of Henle?
1. Ascending limb
| 2. Descending limb
35
Which percent of all nephrons do cortical nephrons constitute?
85%
36
What is the function of the Loop of Henle?
Process filtrate
37
What are renal arteries?
Arteries from descending aorta
38
What are interlobar arteries?
Arteries between renal pyramids
39
What are arcuate arteries?
Arteries that arch between medulla and cortex
40
What are cortical radiate arteries?
Arteries that branch off arcuate arteries
41
What are afferent arterioles of kidney?
Arteries that carry blood into each nephron
42
What are efferent arterioles of kidney?
Arteries that carry blood out of glomerular capillaries
43
Compare the diameters of afferent arterioles and efferent arterioles of kidney
Efferent arterioles have much smaller diameter than arteriole which increases pressure
44
Where are peritubular capillaries and vasa recta located?
Surround renal tubule
45
Describe the twelve (12) step flow of blood to the kidneys
1. Renal arteries
2. Interlobar arteries
3. Arcuate arteries
4. Cortical radiate arteries
5. Afferent arterioles
6. Glomerular capillaries
7. Efferent arterioles
8. Peritubular capillaries/Vasa rectar
9. Cortical radiate veins
10. Arcuate veins
11. Interlobar veins
12. Renal veins
46
Describe the three (3) step course of the ureters
1. Ureters (from Renal hilus)
2. Urinary bladder
3. Urethra
47
How much filtrate is produced each day?
180 L fluid
48
How much urine is produced each day?
1.5 L urine
49
When does filtrate become urine?
After processing in the Loop of Henle
50
Where is the urinary bladder located?
Sitting on the pelvic floor posterior to the pubic symphasis.
51
Describe three (3) structures of the urinary bladder
1. Wall composed of collapsible detrusor smooth muscle
2. Rugae
3. Trigone
52
Describe the anatomy of the trigone
(1) a smooth triangular region of the internal urinary bladder (2) formed by the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice
53
What role does the trigone play in urination?
(1) The area is very sensitive to expansion and once stretched to a certain degree, the urinary bladder signals the brain of its need to empty. (2) The signals become stronger as the bladder continues to fill.
54
What is the urethra?
A hollow tube from urinary bladder to the external of body to allow removal of urine
55
What is the internal urethral sphincter?
An involuntary smooth muscle that prevents leakage
56
What is the external urethral sphincter?
A voluntary skeletal muscle that allows voiding
57
What is the external urethral orifice?
Region of urethra that is outside the body
58
What are three (3) components of the male urethra?
1. Prostatic urethra
2. Membranous urethra
3. Spongy (Penile) urethra
59
What is micturition?
The release of urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body.
60
What is the holding reflex of micturition? (3 components)
(1) Stretching of bladder results in urge to pee; (2) inhibits peristalsis of detrusor muscle in bladder and (3) increases contraction of external urethral sphincter.
61
What is the voiding reflex of micturition? (3 components)
(1) Visceral sensory signals are sent to micturition center in the pons which results in stimulation of parasympathetic fibers; (2) results in increased peristalsis of detrusor muscle and (3) relaxation of internal and external sphincters.
62
At what volume does holding reflex occur?
About 200 mL
63
At what volume does the voiding reflex occur spontaneously (i.e. urinate involuntarily)?
500-600 mL
64
What is the purpose of afferent arteriole resistance?
Protects thin glomerulus from high systemic pressure
65
What are two (2) purposes of efferent arteriole resistance?
1. Maintains glomerular pressure
| 2. Reduces hydrostatic pressure in peritubular capillaries
66
What are two (2) components of the juxtaglomerular complex?
1. Macula densa
| 2. Juxtaglomerular (granular) cells
67
Where is the macula densa located?
In the distal convoluted tubule
68
What are two (2) functions of the macula densa?
Respond to a decrease in NaCl:
1. Vasodilation decreases afferent resistance to return glomerulus filtration rate to normal
2. Signals granular cells to release renin
69
Where are juxtaglomerular (granular) cells located?
Mostly in walls of afferent arterioles and some in efferent arterioles
70
What is the function of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells?
Synthesize, store and secrete renin
71
What two (2) instances do juxtaglomerular (granular) cells secrete renin?
1. Drop in pressure detected by mechanoreceptors
| 2. Stimulation by macula densa
72
What are three nephron functions that sum to renal excretion (urine formation)?
1. Filtration
2. Reabsorption
3. Secretion
73
What is the driving force of glomerular filtration?
Hydrostatic pressure gradient (passive process)
74
What is the filtering mechanism for glomerular filtration?
Mechanical filter created by fenestrated capillaries
75
What four (4) substances can pass through the filtration membrane easily?
1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Amino acids
4. Nitrogenous waste
76
What two (2) substances cannot pass through the filtration membrane easily?
1. Plasma proteins
| 2. Blood cells
77
What is net filtration pressure? (3 components)
(1) The effective pressure (2) determined by glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the opposing forces, (3) glomerular osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.
78
Define glomerular osmotic pressure? (2 components)
(1) Pressure caused by solute gradient (e.g. plasma proteins) (2) pulling water back into glomerulus
79
Define capsular hydrostatic pressure? (2 components)
(1) Mechanical pressure that pushes water back into glomerulus; (2) caused by elastic recoil of Bowman's capsule as it stretches
80
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
Volume of filtrate formed by all glomeruli in one minute (ml/min)
81
What three factors affect Glomerular Filtration Rate?
1. Permeability of filtration membrane
2. Available surface area
3. Net Filtration Pressure
82
What is the normal range for GFR?
120-125 mL/min
83
What are two (2) consequences of above normal GFR? (Too much filtrate)
1. More water and solutes lost in urine
| 2. Decrease in blood pressure
84
What are two (2) consequences of below normal GFR?(Too little filtrate)
1. Too much water and solutes reabsorbed
| 2. Increase in blood pressure
85
What two classes of control mechanisms regulate GFR?
1. Intrinsic controls
| 2. Extrinsic controls
86
Describe intrinsic controls of GFR (2 components)
(1) Renal autoregulation (2) maintains GFR
87
Describe extrinsic controls of GFR (2 components)
(1) Neural and hormonal mechanisms (2) control blood pressure
88
What are two (2) mechanisms of renal autoregulation?
1. Myogenic mechanism
| 2. Tubuloglomerular Feedback mechanism
89
Describe the myogenic mechanism for GFR regulation (2 components)
Vascular smooth muscles respond to stretching:
1. High BP -> afferent arteriole dilation, decreasing GFR.
2. Low BP -> afferent arteriole constriction, increasing GFR.
90
Describe the relationship between GFR and BP
GFR is directly proportional to NFP, of which blood pressure is a major factor.
91
Describe the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism
Macula densa monitors NaCl concentration in distal convoluted tubule:
1. Low flow/NaCl -> Afferent arteriole dilation, increasing GFR.
2. High flow/NaCl -> Afferent arteriole constriction, decreasing GFR.
92
Describe the neural mechanism of extrinsic control of GFR (3 components)
(1) Low blood pressure (2) results in sympathetic release of norepinephrine (3) resulting in vasoconstriction
93
Describe the hormonal mechanism of extrinsic control of GFR (3 components)
(1) Low blood pressure (2) results in a release of renin by juxtaglomerular cells, (3) increasing water reabsorption and thus blood pressure.
94
Tubular reabsorption involves what two types of extraction of substances from the tubular fluid?
1. Passive transport
| 2. Active transport
95
What five (5) substances are reabsorbed through passive transport?
1. Water
2. Sodium
3. Other ions
4. Lipid-soluble substances
5. Urea
96
What is primary active transport?
Active transport involving chemical energy, such as ATP.
97
What is secondary active transport?
Active transport involving an electrochemical gradient.
98
What substance is reabsorbed through primary active transport?
Sodium
99
What four (4) substances are reabsorbed through secondary active transport?
1. Other ions
2. Glucose
3. Amino acids
4. Non lipid-soluble vitamins
100
What is tubular secretion?
transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to renal tubulules, usually through active transport.
101
What is the purpose of tubular secretion? (4 examples)
To remove certain substances:
1. Drugs that were not filtered by glomerulus
2. Urea reabsorbed through passive transport
3. Remove excess K+
4. Control blood pH
102
How does tubular secretion regulate pH?
1. pH becomes too acidic -> secrete H+
| 2. pH becomes too basic -> secrete bicarbonate
103
Describe the permeability of the descending limb and the molality of the filtrate (3 components)
(1) Impermeability to solutes and (2) permeability to water (3) results in filtrate becoming more concentrated
104
Describe the permeability of the ascending limb and the molality of the filtrate (3 components)
(1) Permeability to solutes and (2) impermeability to water (3) results in filtrate becoming more concentrated.
105
What is osmolality?
A measure of the amount of solute in a solution
106
When is dilute urine produced? (2 components)
(1) A large volume of dilute urine is produced (2) during overhydration.
107
When is concentrated urine produced? (2 components)
(1) A small volume of concentrated urine is produced (2) during dehydration.
108
What are two (2) purposes of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism of the kidneys?
1. Allow kidneys to vary urine concentration
| 2. Maintain solute concentrations in the body
109
What are the two (2) structures that flow counter to each other in the countercurrent multiplier mechanism?
1. Vasa recta (blood vessel continuing from glomerulus)
| 2. Loop of Henle
110
Describe the countercurrent multiplier mechanism
1. Hyperosmotic region in medulla is created
| 2. Water permeates descending limb and enters the hyperosmotic vasa recta.
111
What two factors contribute to the formation of the hyperosmotic region in the medulla?
1. Ascending limb pumps sodium out of filtrate
| 2. Vasopressin (ADH) increases collecting duct water permeability
112
What is urea recycling? (2 components)
(1) When ADH is present, collecting ducts also become permeable to urea which increase osmotic potential of medulla. (2) Urea can re-enter the nephron and be recycled once more or be excreted.
113
What structures does ADH act on?
Distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts.
114
Compare the composition of glomerular filtrate to plasma
Similar except glomerular filtrate has much less protein
115
Define plasma clearance
the volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed by the kidney in a given amount of time.
116
Define transport maximum
the point at which increases in concentration do not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a membrane.
117
Define renal threshold
the concentration of a substance dissolved in the blood above which the kidneys begin to remove it into the urine.
118
What is the medical term for kidney stones
Renal calculi
119
What is the medical term for a bladder infection
Cystitis
120
What is the medical term for the inability to hold urine
urinary incontinence
121
What is the term for a chemical that is harmful to nephrons
Nephrotoxin
122
What is renal failure (2 components)
Failure of a kidney (1) to remove wastes and (2) to concentrate urine
123
Describe the function of aldosterone
(1) acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts, (2) increasing reabsorption of ions and water (3) to conserve sodium, secrete potassium, increase water retention, and increase BP and BV.
124
Describe the effect of angiotensin II on electrolyte balance
Angiotensin II has a direct effect on the proximal tubules to increase Na+ reabsorption.
125
Describe the effect of parathyroid hormone (parathormone) on electrolyte balance
Increases calcium concentration in the blood
126
What is normal pH range of blood
7.35-7.45
127
What blood pH is considered acidosis?
< 7.35
128
What blood pH is considered alkalosis?
> 7.45
129
What is respiratory acidosis?
Acidosis caused by increasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide
130
What is respiratory alkalosis?
Alkalosis caused by decreasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide
131
What type of breathing causes acidosis?
Shallow breathing with inefficient gas exchange
132
What type of breathing causes alkalosis?
Hyperventilation
133
What is metabolic acidosis/alkalosis?
Any acid-base imbalance not caused by partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
134
How is metabolic acid-base imbalance identified?
Concentration of blood bicarbonate
135
What are two (2) causes of metabolic acidosis?
1. Drinking alcohol (converts to acetic acid)
| 2. Excessive loss of bicarbonate ion (diarrhea)
136
What are three (3) causes of metabolic alkalosis?
1. Vomiting of HCl from stomach
2. Too much antacid ingestion
3. Constipation (HCO3- reabsorbed in colon)
137
Where does water intake come from?
Ingested liquids and food
138
List four (4) routes of water output
1. Urine
2. Vaporize into air
3. Perspiration
4. Feces
139
What are three (3) common buffer systems in the body?
1. Bicarbonate buffer system
2. Phosphate buffer system
3. Protein buffer system
140
What are the components of the bicarbonate buffer system?
1. carbonic acid (H2CO3)
| 2. sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
141
What are the components of the phosphate buffer system?
1. sodium dihydrogen phosphate (NaH2PO4)
| 2. sodium monohydrogen phosphate (Na2HPO4)
142
What are the components of the protein buffer system?
1. Acidic carboxylic acid group (R-COOH)
| 2. Basic amino group (R-NH2)
143
How does the respiratory system respond if there is too much CO2 in the blood?
Respiratory center in medulla oblongata is activated, increasing respiratory rate and depth.
144
What are two (2) ways the kidneys contribute to pH balance?
1. removes metabolic acids
| 2. replace used chemical buffers
145
What are four (4) metabolic acids excreted by kidneys?
1. Phosphoric acid
2. Uric acid
3. Lactic acid
4. Ketone bodies
146
What are two (2) functions common to both male and female reproductive systems?
1. Produce gametes
| 2. Produce sex hormones
147
What are gonads?
Organs that produce gametes
148
Contrast primary and accessory sex organs
Primary: produce gametes (testes, ovaries)
Secondary: produce secretions
149
What is the function of the scrotum?
Regulate temperature of testes which are optimized 3 degrees Celsius below body temp.
150
What muscle does the cremaster muscle originate from?
Internal oblique (skeletal)
151
What is the function of the cremaster muscle?
Elevate testes to manage temperature
152
What is the function of the dartos muscle?
Smooth muscle that wrinkles skin of scrotum
153
What are three (3) components of the scrotum?
1. Skin
2. Superficial fasia [contains dartos muscle]
3. Septum
154
What are two types of cells in the testes?
1. Seminiferous tubules
| 2. Interstitial cells
155
What is produced in the seminiferous tubules?
Sperm
156
What is produced in the interstitial cells of the testes?
Testosterone
157
What are two tunics that cover the testis from superficial to deep?
1. Tunica vaginalis (from peritoneum)
| 2. Tunica albuginea (fibrous capsule)
158
Where are interstitial cells located?
Between seminiferous tubules
159
What is the rete testes?
The junction of seminiferous tubules before entering the epididymis
160
What is the epididymis? (2 components)
(1) Coiled tubes surrounding testes (2) that is the site of sperm maturation.
161
What three (3) things comprise the spermatic cord?
1. Vas deferens
2. Blood vessels
3. Nerves
162
What is the vas deferens? (2 components)
(1) Thicker and uncoiled tube (2) that is continuous with the tail of the epididymis
163
What structure does the spermatic cord pass through?
The inguinal canal
164
What division of the nervous system innervates the testes?
Autonomic nervous system:
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic
165
What is the term for the bundle of veins located in the spermatic cord?
Pampiniform plexus
166
Describe the eight (8) step pathway of sperm from the testes to the outside of body
1. Seminiferous tubules
2. Rete testes
3. Epididymis
4. Vas deferens
5. Ejaculatory duct
6. Prostatic urethra
7. Membranous urethra
8. Penile urethra
167
What are the three male accessory glands?
1. Seminal vesicles
2. Prostate gland
3. Bulbourethral glands
168
What happens to sperm that are stored in the epididymis for too long?
They are phagocytized.
169
What is the ejaculatory duct?
Junction of vas deferens and seminal vesicles
170
What two secretions do seminal vesicles add to semen?
1. Fructose
| 2. Prostaglandins
171
What two secretions do prostate gland add to semen?
1. Citrate (nutrient)
| 2. Enzymes, including sperm activators.
172
What secretion does bulbourethral gland add to semen? (2 components)
(1) Thick, clear mucous (2) to neutralize acidic urethra.
173
Describe the composition of semen by percent
1. 60% from seminal vesicles
2. 33% from prostate
3. 50-130 million sperm/mL
174
What are two (2) functions of prostaglandins in semen?
1. start backward uterine contractions
| 2. decrease mucous covering cervix
175
Describe how erection occurs (2 components)
(1) Parasympathetic reflex causes dilation of arterioles supplying penis with blood and (2) muscles contract to close drainage veins
176
Describe the process of ejaculation (3 components)
Sympathetic stimulation causes (1) ducts and glands to contract into urethra, (2) bladder sphincter muscle to contract, (3) muscles at base of penis contract to propel semen.
177
What is resolution? [male physiology] (2 components)
1. Reduced blood flow into penis
| 2. Penile muscle contraction empties erectile tissue
178
What is latent period? [male physiology]
Period following orgasm where a second erection is unable to be generated.
179
What type of cell division is needed for gamete production?
Meiosis
180
What stage of cell division does genetic recombination (crossover) occur?
Prophase I
181
What are pre-sperm that undergo mitosis called?
Spermatogonia
182
What are two types of spermatogonia
Type A and Type B
183
What is the fate of Type A spermatogonia? (2 components)
(1) Remain as spermatogonia (2) to undergo mitosis and form one Type A and one Type B.
184
What is the fate of a Type B spermatogonia?
(1) Primary spermatocytes (2) that will undergo meiosis
185
______ undergo meiosis to form _____ [spermatogenesis]
1. Spermatocytes
| 2. Spermatids
186
______ undergo spermiogenesis to form _____
1. Spermatids
| 2. Sperm
187
Where are Sertoli cells (sustentocytes) located?
In the walls of the seminiferous tubules
188
What is the function of Sertoli cells?
Supplies nutrients to spermatids
189
What are three (3) regions of the sperm?
1. Head
2. Midpiece
3. Tail
190
What are two (2) functions of the sperm head?
1. contain DNA
| 2. contain acrosome
191
What is the function of the sperm midpiece?
Contain many mitochondria for energy
192
What is the function of the sperm tail?
Flagella provides motility
193
What is the acrosome?
Tip of cell containing enzymes to penetrate ova.
194
What is the term describing the relationship between the male gonads and the nervous system?
Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis
195
What does the hypothalamus produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
196
What two (2) hormones does the pituitary gland produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]
Anterior pituitary releases:
1. FSH
2. LH
197
What two (2) hormones does the testes produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]
1. Testosterone
| 2. Inhibin
198
What is the function of FSH in male reproductive system?
Promote spermatogenesis
199
What is the function of LH in male reproductive system?
Promote Testosterone secretion
200
What are two (2) functions of testosterone in male reproductive system?
1. induce male secondary sex characteristics
| 2. inhibits GnRH release
201
What is the function of inhibin in male reproductive system?
inhibits FSH
202
What are the four (4) types of follicles in order from least to most developed?
1. Primordial follicle
2. Primary follicle
3. Secondary follicle
4. Vesicular follicle
203
What two (3) hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and their relative abundance?
1. Mostly progesterone
2. Some estrogen
3. Inhibin
204
What are three ligaments associated with female reproductive system?
1. Ovarian ligament
2. Broad ligament
3. Suspensory ligament
205
What is the function of the ovarian ligament?
Attach ovary to uterus
206
What is the function of the broad ligament? (3 components)
(1) Support uterus, (2) uterine tubes and (3) vagina.
207
What is the function of the suspensory ligament?
Attach ovaries to pelvic wall
208
What are uterine tubes? (2 components)
(1) Tubes flanking the uterus (2) that receive oocyte from ovary.
209
What are three regions of the uterine tubes?
1. Infundibulum
2. Ampulla
3. Isthmus
210
Describe the infundibulum of a uterine tube (3 characteristics)
1. Contains finger-like fimbraie
2. Contains cilia
3. Cone-shaped
211
Describe the ampulla of a uterine tube (2 characteristics)
1. Expanded distal end
| 2. Typical site of fertilization
212
Describe the isthmus of a uterine tube
Constricted region
213
Where is the uterus located anatomically?
Between the rectum and the bladder
214
What does anteverted mean?
Lean forward
215
What does retroverted mean?
Lean backward
216
When is the uterus anteverted?
Before pregnancy
217
When is the uterus retroverted?
Following pregnancy
218
What are the three regions of the uterus from inferior to superior?
1. Cervix
2. Body
3. Fundus
219
What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
inflammation of the female genital tract
220
What are causes of PID?
Bacterial infection most often caused by gonorrhea or chlamydia
221
What are the three layers of the uterus from superficial to deep?
1. Perimetrium
2. Myometrium
3. Endometrium
222
What are four structures of the vulva (external female genitalia)
1. Labia majora
2. Labia minora
3. Clitoris
4. Vestibule
223
Where is the vestibule located? [female anatomy]
Within the labia minora
224
What are three (3) structures of the vestibule? [female anatomy]
Contains:
1. Urethral opening
2. Vagina orifice
3. Greater vestibular glands (mucous & lubrication)
225
When does spermatogenesis begin?
Puberty
226
When does oogenesis begin?
Fetus
227
How many gametes are produced by spermatogenesis?
Millions
228
How many gametes are produced by oogenesis?
One
229
How often does spermatogenesis occur?
Always
230
How often does oogenesis occur?
Once a month
231
When does a male stop undergoing spermatogenesis?
Death (typically)
232
When does a female stop undergoing oogenesis?
Menopause
233
What are two cycles associated with female reproduction?
1. Ovarian cycle
| 2. Menstrual cycle
234
What is the purpose of the ovarian cycle?
Maturation of ovum
235
What are three (3) phases of the ovarian cycle?
1. Follicular phase
2. Ovulation
3. Luteal phase
236
How long is an ovarian cycle?
28 days
237
What time period does the follicular phase occur?
1st-14th day
238
What time period does the luteal phase occur?
14th-28th day
239
Which phase of the ovarian cycle has a fluctuating time period?
Follicular phase
240
What stage of oogenesis occurs in the fetus?
Oogonia are developed into primary oocytes and form primordial follicles.
241
The primary oocyte is arrested in what meiotic event?
Prophase I
242
What is the mature egg cell before fertilization called?
Secondary oocyte
243
The secondary oocyte is arrested in what meiotic event?
Metaphase II
244
When does a secondary oocyte finish meiosis II?
Following fertilization by a sperm
245
What are the products of meiosis II of an oocyte?
3 polar bodies and 1 ovum
246
How often do oocytes finish meiosis I?
One oocyte per month
247
What three (3) organs play a role in the course of the ovarian cycle?
1. Hypothalamus
2. Anterior pituitary gland
3. Ovaries
248
What does the hypothalamus produce? [ovarian cycle]
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
249
What two (2) hormones does the anterior pituitary produce? [ovarian cycle]
1. Luteinizing hormone
| 2. Follicle-stimulating hormone
250
What two (2) hormones do the ovaries produce? [ovarian cycle]
1. Estrogen
| 2. Inhibin
251
What is the effect of luteinizing hormone? [ovarian cycle]
Increase estrogen production
252
What is the effect of follicle-stimulating hormone? [ovarian cycle]
Stimulates follicle maturation
253
What is the response by the ovaries to the initial release of LH and FSH? [ovarian cycle]
Release inhibin to decrease FSH secretion.
254
What is secreted by the mature vesicular follicle? [ovarian cycle]
Large increase in estrogen output
255
What is the neural response to the large increase in estrogen output by the mature vesicular follicle? [ovarian cycle]
increases GnRH production resulting in an LH surge
256
What is the ovarian response to the LH surge in the late follicular stage? [ovarian cycle]
Follicle is ruptured and secondary oocyte is ovulated.
257
What happens to the follicle after the secondary oocyte is ovulated? [ovarian cycle]
Follicle becomes corpus luteum
258
What is menarche?
The first menstrual period
259
What is amenorrhea?
Cessation of menses
260
What is menopause?
Cessation of menstrual cycle for one year
261
What are three (3) phases of the menstrual cycle and what days do they occur?
1. Menstrual phase 1-5
2. Proliferative phase 6-14
3. Secretory phase 15-28
262
What event occurs during the menstrual phase?
Endometrium sheds excess tissue
263
Describe estrogen, progesterone and FSH during the menstrual phase
1. Low estrogen
2. Low progesterone
3. FSH rising
264
What two (2) events occur during the proliferative phase?
1. FSH stimulates follicle growth (which produces estrogen)
| 2. Estrogen grows endometrium
265
On what day does ovulation normally occur in the menstrual cycle?
Day 14 when LH peaks
266
What two (2) events occur during non-fertilized secretory phase?
1. Corpus luteum produces progesterone for 10 days
| 2. FSH slowly increases
267
What four (4) events occur during fertilized secretory phase?
1. Corpus luteum produces progesterone for 3 months
2. Endometrium is maintained
3. Cervical plug formed
4. LH secretion inhibited
268
Describe the female sexual response
(1) Parasympathetic reflex (2) increases blood flow into external genitalia, (3) resulting in clitoral erection and vestibular glands producing increased lubrication.
269
What occurs during female orgasm?
Uterine contractions
270
What are two (2) structures associated with the mammary glands?
1. Areola
| 2. Lobes
271
What division of the nervous system stimulates nipple erection?
Autonomic nervous system
272
Describe three (3) characteristics of the areola
1. Pigmented
2. Surrounds nipple
3. Contains sebaceous glands
273
What is the function of the lobes of the mammary glands?
Produce milk
274
Describe four (4) step pathway of milk
1. Lobe
2. Lactiferous ducts
3. lactiferous sinus
4. drained from nipple
275
What are five (5) risk factors of breast cancer?
1. Early menses
2. Late menopause
3. No pregnancy
4. Family history
5. No breast feeding
276
What is the function of the cervix?
Sperm is stored in reservoirs called cervical crypts.
277
What is the major cause of cervical cancer?
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
