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Anatomy and Physiology > Test 8 Urinary, Fluid Balance, Reproductive Systems > Flashcards

Test 8 Urinary, Fluid Balance, Reproductive Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are four (4) functions of the urinary system?

A
  1. Regulate blood volume
  2. Regulate blood pressure
  3. Filter blood
  4. Maintain fluid balance
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2
Q

What chemical do the kidneys produce to regulate blood pressure?

A

Renin

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3
Q

Describe the location of the kidneys (2 components)

A

(1) retroperitoneal and (2) superior lumbar region

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4
Q

What are four (4) components of the kidney external anatomy?

A
  1. Renal fascia
  2. Renal fat pad
  3. Renal capsule
  4. Renal hilum
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5
Q

What is the function of the renal fascia?

A

Anchor kidneys

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6
Q

What is the function of the renal fat pad?

A

Cushions kidneys from trauma

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7
Q

Describe the renal capsule

A

Thin outer membrane of kidney

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8
Q

Describe the renal hilus (2 components)

A

(1) concave surface where (2) renal arteries, lymphatics, veins and ureters join kidney

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9
Q

What are the three (3) layers of the kidney from superficial to deep?

A
  1. Renal capsule
  2. Renal cortex
  3. Renal medulla
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10
Q

Describe the renal cortex (2 components)

A

(1) The layer between the renal capsule and the renal medulla (2) that contains the renal corpuscles, proximal convoluted tubules and the beginning of cortical collecting ducts.

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11
Q

Describe the renal medulla (2 components)

A

(1) The deepest layer of the kidney (2) that contains renal pyramids and renal columns.

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12
Q

Describe the renal pyramids (2 components)

A

(1) Located within the renal medulla and (2) are composed of straight parallel segments of nephrons.

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13
Q

Describe the renal columns (2 components)

A

(1) An extension of the renal capsule into the renal medulla (2) that allows the cortex to be better anchored.

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14
Q

Describe the minor calyx of the kidney (2 components)

A

(1) Chambers (2) that surround the apex of each renal pyramid.

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15
Q

Describe the major calyx of the kidney

A

Chambers that are formed by the convergence of 2-3 minor calyces.

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16
Q

Describe the renal pelvis

A

Large chamber formed by the convergence of all major calyces.

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17
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Nephron

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18
Q

What is the function of the nephron and what are three (3) components of this function?

A

To produce urine:

  1. Filter blood
  2. Reabsorption
  3. Secretion
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19
Q

How many nephrons are in each kidney?

A

About one million.

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20
Q

What are the two classes of nephrons?

A
  1. Cortical nephrons

2. Juxtamedullary nephrons

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21
Q

Where are the renal corpuscles for cortical nephrons located?

A

Renal cortex

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22
Q

Where are the renal corpuscles for juxtamedullary nephrons located?

A

Renal cortex

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23
Q

Where is the Loop of Henle located for cortical nephrons?

A

In the renal medulla near its junction with the renal cortex.

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24
Q

Where is the Loop of Henle located for juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

Deep within the renal medulla

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25
Q

Describe the origin of the name juxtamedullary nephrons

A

The Loop of Henle is located deep within the renal medulla, so although the renal corpuscle is located in the renal cortex, it is closer to the medulla than cortical nephrons.

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26
Q

What are the three (3) components of the nephron?

A
  1. Renal corpuscle
  2. Renal tubule
  3. Collecting ducts
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27
Q

What are two (2) components of the renal corpuscle?

A
  1. Glomerulus

2. Bowman’s capsule

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28
Q

Describe the structure of the glomerulus

A

Composed of a bed of fenestrated capillaries

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29
Q

List two (2) function of the glomerulus

A
  1. Filters blood

2. Forms filtrate

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30
Q

Describe the anatomy of Bowman’s capsule (3 components)

A

(1) A cup-like sac that (2) surrounds glomerulus (3) at the beginning of the nephron.

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31
Q

What is the function of Bowman’s capsule? (2 components)

A

(1) Glomerular filtrate is collected in the Bowman’s capsule and (2) passed along to rest of nephron.

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32
Q

What are three (3) regions of the renal tubule?

A
  1. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
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33
Q

What are three (3) functions of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A
  1. Reabsorb solutes
  2. Reabsorb water
  3. Secretion
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34
Q

What are two (2) regions of the Loop of Henle?

A
  1. Ascending limb

2. Descending limb

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35
Q

Which percent of all nephrons do cortical nephrons constitute?

A

85%

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36
Q

What is the function of the Loop of Henle?

A

Process filtrate

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37
Q

What are renal arteries?

A

Arteries from descending aorta

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38
Q

What are interlobar arteries?

A

Arteries between renal pyramids

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39
Q

What are arcuate arteries?

A

Arteries that arch between medulla and cortex

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40
Q

What are cortical radiate arteries?

A

Arteries that branch off arcuate arteries

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41
Q

What are afferent arterioles of kidney?

A

Arteries that carry blood into each nephron

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42
Q

What are efferent arterioles of kidney?

A

Arteries that carry blood out of glomerular capillaries

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43
Q

Compare the diameters of afferent arterioles and efferent arterioles of kidney

A

Efferent arterioles have much smaller diameter than arteriole which increases pressure

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44
Q

Where are peritubular capillaries and vasa recta located?

A

Surround renal tubule

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45
Q

Describe the twelve (12) step flow of blood to the kidneys

A
  1. Renal arteries
  2. Interlobar arteries
  3. Arcuate arteries
  4. Cortical radiate arteries
  5. Afferent arterioles
  6. Glomerular capillaries
  7. Efferent arterioles
  8. Peritubular capillaries/Vasa rectar
  9. Cortical radiate veins
  10. Arcuate veins
  11. Interlobar veins
  12. Renal veins
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46
Q

Describe the three (3) step course of the ureters

A
  1. Ureters (from Renal hilus)
  2. Urinary bladder
  3. Urethra
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47
Q

How much filtrate is produced each day?

A

180 L fluid

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48
Q

How much urine is produced each day?

A

1.5 L urine

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49
Q

When does filtrate become urine?

A

After processing in the Loop of Henle

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50
Q

Where is the urinary bladder located?

A

Sitting on the pelvic floor posterior to the pubic symphasis.

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51
Q

Describe three (3) structures of the urinary bladder

A
  1. Wall composed of collapsible detrusor smooth muscle
  2. Rugae
  3. Trigone
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52
Q

Describe the anatomy of the trigone

A

(1) a smooth triangular region of the internal urinary bladder (2) formed by the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice

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53
Q

What role does the trigone play in urination?

A

(1) The area is very sensitive to expansion and once stretched to a certain degree, the urinary bladder signals the brain of its need to empty. (2) The signals become stronger as the bladder continues to fill.

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54
Q

What is the urethra?

A

A hollow tube from urinary bladder to the external of body to allow removal of urine

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55
Q

What is the internal urethral sphincter?

A

An involuntary smooth muscle that prevents leakage

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56
Q

What is the external urethral sphincter?

A

A voluntary skeletal muscle that allows voiding

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57
Q

What is the external urethral orifice?

A

Region of urethra that is outside the body

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58
Q

What are three (3) components of the male urethra?

A
  1. Prostatic urethra
  2. Membranous urethra
  3. Spongy (Penile) urethra
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59
Q

What is micturition?

A

The release of urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body.

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60
Q

What is the holding reflex of micturition? (3 components)

A

(1) Stretching of bladder results in urge to pee; (2) inhibits peristalsis of detrusor muscle in bladder and (3) increases contraction of external urethral sphincter.

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61
Q

What is the voiding reflex of micturition? (3 components)

A

(1) Visceral sensory signals are sent to micturition center in the pons which results in stimulation of parasympathetic fibers; (2) results in increased peristalsis of detrusor muscle and (3) relaxation of internal and external sphincters.

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62
Q

At what volume does holding reflex occur?

A

About 200 mL

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63
Q

At what volume does the voiding reflex occur spontaneously (i.e. urinate involuntarily)?

A

500-600 mL

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64
Q

What is the purpose of afferent arteriole resistance?

A

Protects thin glomerulus from high systemic pressure

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65
Q

What are two (2) purposes of efferent arteriole resistance?

A
  1. Maintains glomerular pressure

2. Reduces hydrostatic pressure in peritubular capillaries

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66
Q

What are two (2) components of the juxtaglomerular complex?

A
  1. Macula densa

2. Juxtaglomerular (granular) cells

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67
Q

Where is the macula densa located?

A

In the distal convoluted tubule

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68
Q

What are two (2) functions of the macula densa?

A

Respond to a decrease in NaCl:

  1. Vasodilation decreases afferent resistance to return glomerulus filtration rate to normal
  2. Signals granular cells to release renin
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69
Q

Where are juxtaglomerular (granular) cells located?

A

Mostly in walls of afferent arterioles and some in efferent arterioles

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70
Q

What is the function of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells?

A

Synthesize, store and secrete renin

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71
Q

What two (2) instances do juxtaglomerular (granular) cells secrete renin?

A
  1. Drop in pressure detected by mechanoreceptors

2. Stimulation by macula densa

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72
Q

What are three nephron functions that sum to renal excretion (urine formation)?

A
  1. Filtration
  2. Reabsorption
  3. Secretion
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73
Q

What is the driving force of glomerular filtration?

A

Hydrostatic pressure gradient (passive process)

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74
Q

What is the filtering mechanism for glomerular filtration?

A

Mechanical filter created by fenestrated capillaries

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75
Q

What four (4) substances can pass through the filtration membrane easily?

A
  1. Water
  2. Glucose
  3. Amino acids
  4. Nitrogenous waste
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76
Q

What two (2) substances cannot pass through the filtration membrane easily?

A
  1. Plasma proteins

2. Blood cells

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77
Q

What is net filtration pressure? (3 components)

A

(1) The effective pressure (2) determined by glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the opposing forces, (3) glomerular osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.

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78
Q

Define glomerular osmotic pressure? (2 components)

A

(1) Pressure caused by solute gradient (e.g. plasma proteins) (2) pulling water back into glomerulus

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79
Q

Define capsular hydrostatic pressure? (2 components)

A

(1) Mechanical pressure that pushes water back into glomerulus; (2) caused by elastic recoil of Bowman’s capsule as it stretches

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80
Q

Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

A

Volume of filtrate formed by all glomeruli in one minute (ml/min)

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81
Q

What three factors affect Glomerular Filtration Rate?

A
  1. Permeability of filtration membrane
  2. Available surface area
  3. Net Filtration Pressure
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82
Q

What is the normal range for GFR?

A

120-125 mL/min

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83
Q

What are two (2) consequences of above normal GFR? (Too much filtrate)

A
  1. More water and solutes lost in urine

2. Decrease in blood pressure

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84
Q

What are two (2) consequences of below normal GFR?(Too little filtrate)

A
  1. Too much water and solutes reabsorbed

2. Increase in blood pressure

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85
Q

What two classes of control mechanisms regulate GFR?

A
  1. Intrinsic controls

2. Extrinsic controls

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86
Q

Describe intrinsic controls of GFR (2 components)

A

(1) Renal autoregulation (2) maintains GFR

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87
Q

Describe extrinsic controls of GFR (2 components)

A

(1) Neural and hormonal mechanisms (2) control blood pressure

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88
Q

What are two (2) mechanisms of renal autoregulation?

A
  1. Myogenic mechanism

2. Tubuloglomerular Feedback mechanism

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89
Q

Describe the myogenic mechanism for GFR regulation (2 components)

A

Vascular smooth muscles respond to stretching:

  1. High BP -> afferent arteriole dilation, decreasing GFR.
  2. Low BP -> afferent arteriole constriction, increasing GFR.
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90
Q

Describe the relationship between GFR and BP

A

GFR is directly proportional to NFP, of which blood pressure is a major factor.

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91
Q

Describe the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism

A

Macula densa monitors NaCl concentration in distal convoluted tubule:

  1. Low flow/NaCl -> Afferent arteriole dilation, increasing GFR.
  2. High flow/NaCl -> Afferent arteriole constriction, decreasing GFR.
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92
Q

Describe the neural mechanism of extrinsic control of GFR (3 components)

A

(1) Low blood pressure (2) results in sympathetic release of norepinephrine (3) resulting in vasoconstriction

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93
Q

Describe the hormonal mechanism of extrinsic control of GFR (3 components)

A

(1) Low blood pressure (2) results in a release of renin by juxtaglomerular cells, (3) increasing water reabsorption and thus blood pressure.

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94
Q

Tubular reabsorption involves what two types of extraction of substances from the tubular fluid?

A
  1. Passive transport

2. Active transport

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95
Q

What five (5) substances are reabsorbed through passive transport?

A
  1. Water
  2. Sodium
  3. Other ions
  4. Lipid-soluble substances
  5. Urea
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96
Q

What is primary active transport?

A

Active transport involving chemical energy, such as ATP.

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97
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Active transport involving an electrochemical gradient.

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98
Q

What substance is reabsorbed through primary active transport?

A

Sodium

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99
Q

What four (4) substances are reabsorbed through secondary active transport?

A
  1. Other ions
  2. Glucose
  3. Amino acids
  4. Non lipid-soluble vitamins
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100
Q

What is tubular secretion?

A

transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to renal tubulules, usually through active transport.

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101
Q

What is the purpose of tubular secretion? (4 examples)

A

To remove certain substances:

  1. Drugs that were not filtered by glomerulus
  2. Urea reabsorbed through passive transport
  3. Remove excess K+
  4. Control blood pH
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102
Q

How does tubular secretion regulate pH?

A
  1. pH becomes too acidic -> secrete H+

2. pH becomes too basic -> secrete bicarbonate

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103
Q

Describe the permeability of the descending limb and the molality of the filtrate (3 components)

A

(1) Impermeability to solutes and (2) permeability to water (3) results in filtrate becoming more concentrated

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104
Q

Describe the permeability of the ascending limb and the molality of the filtrate (3 components)

A

(1) Permeability to solutes and (2) impermeability to water (3) results in filtrate becoming more concentrated.

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105
Q

What is osmolality?

A

A measure of the amount of solute in a solution

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106
Q

When is dilute urine produced? (2 components)

A

(1) A large volume of dilute urine is produced (2) during overhydration.

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107
Q

When is concentrated urine produced? (2 components)

A

(1) A small volume of concentrated urine is produced (2) during dehydration.

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108
Q

What are two (2) purposes of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism of the kidneys?

A
  1. Allow kidneys to vary urine concentration

2. Maintain solute concentrations in the body

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109
Q

What are the two (2) structures that flow counter to each other in the countercurrent multiplier mechanism?

A
  1. Vasa recta (blood vessel continuing from glomerulus)

2. Loop of Henle

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110
Q

Describe the countercurrent multiplier mechanism

A
  1. Hyperosmotic region in medulla is created

2. Water permeates descending limb and enters the hyperosmotic vasa recta.

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111
Q

What two factors contribute to the formation of the hyperosmotic region in the medulla?

A
  1. Ascending limb pumps sodium out of filtrate

2. Vasopressin (ADH) increases collecting duct water permeability

112
Q

What is urea recycling? (2 components)

A

(1) When ADH is present, collecting ducts also become permeable to urea which increase osmotic potential of medulla. (2) Urea can re-enter the nephron and be recycled once more or be excreted.

113
Q

What structures does ADH act on?

A

Distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts.

114
Q

Compare the composition of glomerular filtrate to plasma

A

Similar except glomerular filtrate has much less protein

115
Q

Define plasma clearance

A

the volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed by the kidney in a given amount of time.

116
Q

Define transport maximum

A

the point at which increases in concentration do not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a membrane.

117
Q

Define renal threshold

A

the concentration of a substance dissolved in the blood above which the kidneys begin to remove it into the urine.

118
Q

What is the medical term for kidney stones

A

Renal calculi

119
Q

What is the medical term for a bladder infection

A

Cystitis

120
Q

What is the medical term for the inability to hold urine

A

urinary incontinence

121
Q

What is the term for a chemical that is harmful to nephrons

A

Nephrotoxin

122
Q

What is renal failure (2 components)

A

Failure of a kidney (1) to remove wastes and (2) to concentrate urine

123
Q

Describe the function of aldosterone

A

(1) acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts, (2) increasing reabsorption of ions and water (3) to conserve sodium, secrete potassium, increase water retention, and increase BP and BV.

124
Q

Describe the effect of angiotensin II on electrolyte balance

A

Angiotensin II has a direct effect on the proximal tubules to increase Na+ reabsorption.

125
Q

Describe the effect of parathyroid hormone (parathormone) on electrolyte balance

A

Increases calcium concentration in the blood

126
Q

What is normal pH range of blood

A

7.35-7.45

127
Q

What blood pH is considered acidosis?

A

< 7.35

128
Q

What blood pH is considered alkalosis?

A

> 7.45

129
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Acidosis caused by increasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide

130
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

Alkalosis caused by decreasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide

131
Q

What type of breathing causes acidosis?

A

Shallow breathing with inefficient gas exchange

132
Q

What type of breathing causes alkalosis?

A

Hyperventilation

133
Q

What is metabolic acidosis/alkalosis?

A

Any acid-base imbalance not caused by partial pressure of carbon dioxide.

134
Q

How is metabolic acid-base imbalance identified?

A

Concentration of blood bicarbonate

135
Q

What are two (2) causes of metabolic acidosis?

A
  1. Drinking alcohol (converts to acetic acid)

2. Excessive loss of bicarbonate ion (diarrhea)

136
Q

What are three (3) causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A
  1. Vomiting of HCl from stomach
  2. Too much antacid ingestion
  3. Constipation (HCO3- reabsorbed in colon)
137
Q

Where does water intake come from?

A

Ingested liquids and food

138
Q

List four (4) routes of water output

A
  1. Urine
  2. Vaporize into air
  3. Perspiration
  4. Feces
139
Q

What are three (3) common buffer systems in the body?

A
  1. Bicarbonate buffer system
  2. Phosphate buffer system
  3. Protein buffer system
140
Q

What are the components of the bicarbonate buffer system?

A
  1. carbonic acid (H2CO3)

2. sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)

141
Q

What are the components of the phosphate buffer system?

A
  1. sodium dihydrogen phosphate (NaH2PO4)

2. sodium monohydrogen phosphate (Na2HPO4)

142
Q

What are the components of the protein buffer system?

A
  1. Acidic carboxylic acid group (R-COOH)

2. Basic amino group (R-NH2)

143
Q

How does the respiratory system respond if there is too much CO2 in the blood?

A

Respiratory center in medulla oblongata is activated, increasing respiratory rate and depth.

144
Q

What are two (2) ways the kidneys contribute to pH balance?

A
  1. removes metabolic acids

2. replace used chemical buffers

145
Q

What are four (4) metabolic acids excreted by kidneys?

A
  1. Phosphoric acid
  2. Uric acid
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Ketone bodies
146
Q

What are two (2) functions common to both male and female reproductive systems?

A
  1. Produce gametes

2. Produce sex hormones

147
Q

What are gonads?

A

Organs that produce gametes

148
Q

Contrast primary and accessory sex organs

A

Primary: produce gametes (testes, ovaries)
Secondary: produce secretions

149
Q

What is the function of the scrotum?

A

Regulate temperature of testes which are optimized 3 degrees Celsius below body temp.

150
Q

What muscle does the cremaster muscle originate from?

A

Internal oblique (skeletal)

151
Q

What is the function of the cremaster muscle?

A

Elevate testes to manage temperature

152
Q

What is the function of the dartos muscle?

A

Smooth muscle that wrinkles skin of scrotum

153
Q

What are three (3) components of the scrotum?

A
  1. Skin
  2. Superficial fasia [contains dartos muscle]
  3. Septum
154
Q

What are two types of cells in the testes?

A
  1. Seminiferous tubules

2. Interstitial cells

155
Q

What is produced in the seminiferous tubules?

A

Sperm

156
Q

What is produced in the interstitial cells of the testes?

A

Testosterone

157
Q

What are two tunics that cover the testis from superficial to deep?

A
  1. Tunica vaginalis (from peritoneum)

2. Tunica albuginea (fibrous capsule)

158
Q

Where are interstitial cells located?

A

Between seminiferous tubules

159
Q

What is the rete testes?

A

The junction of seminiferous tubules before entering the epididymis

160
Q

What is the epididymis? (2 components)

A

(1) Coiled tubes surrounding testes (2) that is the site of sperm maturation.

161
Q

What three (3) things comprise the spermatic cord?

A
  1. Vas deferens
  2. Blood vessels
  3. Nerves
162
Q

What is the vas deferens? (2 components)

A

(1) Thicker and uncoiled tube (2) that is continuous with the tail of the epididymis

163
Q

What structure does the spermatic cord pass through?

A

The inguinal canal

164
Q

What division of the nervous system innervates the testes?

A

Autonomic nervous system:

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Parasympathetic
165
Q

What is the term for the bundle of veins located in the spermatic cord?

A

Pampiniform plexus

166
Q

Describe the eight (8) step pathway of sperm from the testes to the outside of body

A
  1. Seminiferous tubules
  2. Rete testes
  3. Epididymis
  4. Vas deferens
  5. Ejaculatory duct
  6. Prostatic urethra
  7. Membranous urethra
  8. Penile urethra
167
Q

What are the three male accessory glands?

A
  1. Seminal vesicles
  2. Prostate gland
  3. Bulbourethral glands
168
Q

What happens to sperm that are stored in the epididymis for too long?

A

They are phagocytized.

169
Q

What is the ejaculatory duct?

A

Junction of vas deferens and seminal vesicles

170
Q

What two secretions do seminal vesicles add to semen?

A
  1. Fructose

2. Prostaglandins

171
Q

What two secretions do prostate gland add to semen?

A
  1. Citrate (nutrient)

2. Enzymes, including sperm activators.

172
Q

What secretion does bulbourethral gland add to semen? (2 components)

A

(1) Thick, clear mucous (2) to neutralize acidic urethra.

173
Q

Describe the composition of semen by percent

A
  1. 60% from seminal vesicles
  2. 33% from prostate
  3. 50-130 million sperm/mL
174
Q

What are two (2) functions of prostaglandins in semen?

A
  1. start backward uterine contractions

2. decrease mucous covering cervix

175
Q

Describe how erection occurs (2 components)

A

(1) Parasympathetic reflex causes dilation of arterioles supplying penis with blood and (2) muscles contract to close drainage veins

176
Q

Describe the process of ejaculation (3 components)

A

Sympathetic stimulation causes (1) ducts and glands to contract into urethra, (2) bladder sphincter muscle to contract, (3) muscles at base of penis contract to propel semen.

177
Q

What is resolution? [male physiology] (2 components)

A
  1. Reduced blood flow into penis

2. Penile muscle contraction empties erectile tissue

178
Q

What is latent period? [male physiology]

A

Period following orgasm where a second erection is unable to be generated.

179
Q

What type of cell division is needed for gamete production?

A

Meiosis

180
Q

What stage of cell division does genetic recombination (crossover) occur?

A

Prophase I

181
Q

What are pre-sperm that undergo mitosis called?

A

Spermatogonia

182
Q

What are two types of spermatogonia

A

Type A and Type B

183
Q

What is the fate of Type A spermatogonia? (2 components)

A

(1) Remain as spermatogonia (2) to undergo mitosis and form one Type A and one Type B.

184
Q

What is the fate of a Type B spermatogonia?

A

(1) Primary spermatocytes (2) that will undergo meiosis

185
Q

______ undergo meiosis to form _____ [spermatogenesis]

A
  1. Spermatocytes

2. Spermatids

186
Q

______ undergo spermiogenesis to form _____

A
  1. Spermatids

2. Sperm

187
Q

Where are Sertoli cells (sustentocytes) located?

A

In the walls of the seminiferous tubules

188
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells?

A

Supplies nutrients to spermatids

189
Q

What are three (3) regions of the sperm?

A
  1. Head
  2. Midpiece
  3. Tail
190
Q

What are two (2) functions of the sperm head?

A
  1. contain DNA

2. contain acrosome

191
Q

What is the function of the sperm midpiece?

A

Contain many mitochondria for energy

192
Q

What is the function of the sperm tail?

A

Flagella provides motility

193
Q

What is the acrosome?

A

Tip of cell containing enzymes to penetrate ova.

194
Q

What is the term describing the relationship between the male gonads and the nervous system?

A

Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis

195
Q

What does the hypothalamus produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

196
Q

What two (2) hormones does the pituitary gland produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]

A

Anterior pituitary releases:

  1. FSH
  2. LH
197
Q

What two (2) hormones does the testes produce? [Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonad axis]

A
  1. Testosterone

2. Inhibin

198
Q

What is the function of FSH in male reproductive system?

A

Promote spermatogenesis

199
Q

What is the function of LH in male reproductive system?

A

Promote Testosterone secretion

200
Q

What are two (2) functions of testosterone in male reproductive system?

A
  1. induce male secondary sex characteristics

2. inhibits GnRH release

201
Q

What is the function of inhibin in male reproductive system?

A

inhibits FSH

202
Q

What are the four (4) types of follicles in order from least to most developed?

A
  1. Primordial follicle
  2. Primary follicle
  3. Secondary follicle
  4. Vesicular follicle
203
Q

What two (3) hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and their relative abundance?

A
  1. Mostly progesterone
  2. Some estrogen
  3. Inhibin
204
Q

What are three ligaments associated with female reproductive system?

A
  1. Ovarian ligament
  2. Broad ligament
  3. Suspensory ligament
205
Q

What is the function of the ovarian ligament?

A

Attach ovary to uterus

206
Q

What is the function of the broad ligament? (3 components)

A

(1) Support uterus, (2) uterine tubes and (3) vagina.

207
Q

What is the function of the suspensory ligament?

A

Attach ovaries to pelvic wall

208
Q

What are uterine tubes? (2 components)

A

(1) Tubes flanking the uterus (2) that receive oocyte from ovary.

209
Q

What are three regions of the uterine tubes?

A
  1. Infundibulum
  2. Ampulla
  3. Isthmus
210
Q

Describe the infundibulum of a uterine tube (3 characteristics)

A
  1. Contains finger-like fimbraie
  2. Contains cilia
  3. Cone-shaped
211
Q

Describe the ampulla of a uterine tube (2 characteristics)

A
  1. Expanded distal end

2. Typical site of fertilization

212
Q

Describe the isthmus of a uterine tube

A

Constricted region

213
Q

Where is the uterus located anatomically?

A

Between the rectum and the bladder

214
Q

What does anteverted mean?

A

Lean forward

215
Q

What does retroverted mean?

A

Lean backward

216
Q

When is the uterus anteverted?

A

Before pregnancy

217
Q

When is the uterus retroverted?

A

Following pregnancy

218
Q

What are the three regions of the uterus from inferior to superior?

A
  1. Cervix
  2. Body
  3. Fundus
219
Q

What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

inflammation of the female genital tract

220
Q

What are causes of PID?

A

Bacterial infection most often caused by gonorrhea or chlamydia

221
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus from superficial to deep?

A
  1. Perimetrium
  2. Myometrium
  3. Endometrium
222
Q

What are four structures of the vulva (external female genitalia)

A
  1. Labia majora
  2. Labia minora
  3. Clitoris
  4. Vestibule
223
Q

Where is the vestibule located? [female anatomy]

A

Within the labia minora

224
Q

What are three (3) structures of the vestibule? [female anatomy]

A

Contains:

  1. Urethral opening
  2. Vagina orifice
  3. Greater vestibular glands (mucous & lubrication)
225
Q

When does spermatogenesis begin?

A

Puberty

226
Q

When does oogenesis begin?

A

Fetus

227
Q

How many gametes are produced by spermatogenesis?

A

Millions

228
Q

How many gametes are produced by oogenesis?

A

One

229
Q

How often does spermatogenesis occur?

A

Always

230
Q

How often does oogenesis occur?

A

Once a month

231
Q

When does a male stop undergoing spermatogenesis?

A

Death (typically)

232
Q

When does a female stop undergoing oogenesis?

A

Menopause

233
Q

What are two cycles associated with female reproduction?

A
  1. Ovarian cycle

2. Menstrual cycle

234
Q

What is the purpose of the ovarian cycle?

A

Maturation of ovum

235
Q

What are three (3) phases of the ovarian cycle?

A
  1. Follicular phase
  2. Ovulation
  3. Luteal phase
236
Q

How long is an ovarian cycle?

A

28 days

237
Q

What time period does the follicular phase occur?

A

1st-14th day

238
Q

What time period does the luteal phase occur?

A

14th-28th day

239
Q

Which phase of the ovarian cycle has a fluctuating time period?

A

Follicular phase

240
Q

What stage of oogenesis occurs in the fetus?

A

Oogonia are developed into primary oocytes and form primordial follicles.

241
Q

The primary oocyte is arrested in what meiotic event?

A

Prophase I

242
Q

What is the mature egg cell before fertilization called?

A

Secondary oocyte

243
Q

The secondary oocyte is arrested in what meiotic event?

A

Metaphase II

244
Q

When does a secondary oocyte finish meiosis II?

A

Following fertilization by a sperm

245
Q

What are the products of meiosis II of an oocyte?

A

3 polar bodies and 1 ovum

246
Q

How often do oocytes finish meiosis I?

A

One oocyte per month

247
Q

What three (3) organs play a role in the course of the ovarian cycle?

A
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Anterior pituitary gland
  3. Ovaries
248
Q

What does the hypothalamus produce? [ovarian cycle]

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

249
Q

What two (2) hormones does the anterior pituitary produce? [ovarian cycle]

A
  1. Luteinizing hormone

2. Follicle-stimulating hormone

250
Q

What two (2) hormones do the ovaries produce? [ovarian cycle]

A
  1. Estrogen

2. Inhibin

251
Q

What is the effect of luteinizing hormone? [ovarian cycle]

A

Increase estrogen production

252
Q

What is the effect of follicle-stimulating hormone? [ovarian cycle]

A

Stimulates follicle maturation

253
Q

What is the response by the ovaries to the initial release of LH and FSH? [ovarian cycle]

A

Release inhibin to decrease FSH secretion.

254
Q

What is secreted by the mature vesicular follicle? [ovarian cycle]

A

Large increase in estrogen output

255
Q

What is the neural response to the large increase in estrogen output by the mature vesicular follicle? [ovarian cycle]

A

increases GnRH production resulting in an LH surge

256
Q

What is the ovarian response to the LH surge in the late follicular stage? [ovarian cycle]

A

Follicle is ruptured and secondary oocyte is ovulated.

257
Q

What happens to the follicle after the secondary oocyte is ovulated? [ovarian cycle]

A

Follicle becomes corpus luteum

258
Q

What is menarche?

A

The first menstrual period

259
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Cessation of menses

260
Q

What is menopause?

A

Cessation of menstrual cycle for one year

261
Q

What are three (3) phases of the menstrual cycle and what days do they occur?

A
  1. Menstrual phase 1-5
  2. Proliferative phase 6-14
  3. Secretory phase 15-28
262
Q

What event occurs during the menstrual phase?

A

Endometrium sheds excess tissue

263
Q

Describe estrogen, progesterone and FSH during the menstrual phase

A
  1. Low estrogen
  2. Low progesterone
  3. FSH rising
264
Q

What two (2) events occur during the proliferative phase?

A
  1. FSH stimulates follicle growth (which produces estrogen)

2. Estrogen grows endometrium

265
Q

On what day does ovulation normally occur in the menstrual cycle?

A

Day 14 when LH peaks

266
Q

What two (2) events occur during non-fertilized secretory phase?

A
  1. Corpus luteum produces progesterone for 10 days

2. FSH slowly increases

267
Q

What four (4) events occur during fertilized secretory phase?

A
  1. Corpus luteum produces progesterone for 3 months
  2. Endometrium is maintained
  3. Cervical plug formed
  4. LH secretion inhibited
268
Q

Describe the female sexual response

A

(1) Parasympathetic reflex (2) increases blood flow into external genitalia, (3) resulting in clitoral erection and vestibular glands producing increased lubrication.

269
Q

What occurs during female orgasm?

A

Uterine contractions

270
Q

What are two (2) structures associated with the mammary glands?

A
  1. Areola

2. Lobes

271
Q

What division of the nervous system stimulates nipple erection?

A

Autonomic nervous system

272
Q

Describe three (3) characteristics of the areola

A
  1. Pigmented
  2. Surrounds nipple
  3. Contains sebaceous glands
273
Q

What is the function of the lobes of the mammary glands?

A

Produce milk

274
Q

Describe four (4) step pathway of milk

A
  1. Lobe
  2. Lactiferous ducts
  3. lactiferous sinus
  4. drained from nipple
275
Q

What are five (5) risk factors of breast cancer?

A
  1. Early menses
  2. Late menopause
  3. No pregnancy
  4. Family history
  5. No breast feeding
276
Q

What is the function of the cervix?

A

Sperm is stored in reservoirs called cervical crypts.

277
Q

What is the major cause of cervical cancer?

A

Human papilloma virus (HPV)

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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