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Anatomy and Physiology > Test 7 Respiratory and Digestive Systems > Flashcards

Test 7 Respiratory and Digestive Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are four (4) functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Gas exchange
  2. Regulating blood pH
  3. Filters and conditions inspired air
  4. Produces sounds
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2
Q

What are the three (3) phases of respiration?

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation
  2. External (pulmonary) respiration
  3. Internal (tissue) respiration
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3
Q

What is pulmonary ventilation? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Inhalation and exhalation of air and (2) the exchange of air between atmosphere and the alveoli of lungs

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4
Q

What is external (pulmonary) respiration?

A

exchange of gases between alveoli of the lungs and the blood in pulmonary capillaries across the respiratory membrane

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5
Q

What is internal (tissue) respiration?

A

exchange of gases between blood in systemic capillaries and tissue cells

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6
Q

What is the direction of gas movement in external (pulmonary) respiration? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) pulmonary capillary blood gains O2 and (2) loses CO2

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7
Q

What is the direction of gas movement in internal (tissue) respiration? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) blood loses O2 and (2) gains CO2

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8
Q

Trace the path of an air molecule to the alveoli (9 steps)

A
  1. Mouth or Nostril
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea
  5. Bronchi
  6. Bronchial Tubes
  7. Bronchioles
  8. Alveoli
  9. Pulmonary Capillaries
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9
Q

Where is the pharynx located? (3 components to answer)

A

(1) posterior to the nasal and oral cavities, (2) superior to the larynx and (3) anterior to the cervical vertebrae

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10
Q

Describe the lining of the pharynx (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Its wall is composed of skeletal muscles and (2) is lined with a mucous membrane

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11
Q

What are the three (3) regions of the pharynx?

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
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12
Q

Where is the nasopharynx located? (3 components to answer)

A

Posterior to nasal cavity, inferior to sphenoid, superior to palate

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the uvula?

A

To close nasopharynx when swallowing

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14
Q

What is the only opening into the oropharynx?

A

Fauces; the opening from the mouth

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15
Q

Where is oropharynx located?

A

Extends from soft palate to hyoid bone

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16
Q

Where is laryngopharynx located?

A

Extends from level of hyoid bone and opens to esophagus/larynx.

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17
Q

What are three (3) functions of the larynx?

A
  1. Keep airway open
  2. Separate air route from food
  3. Speech
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18
Q

Describe the location of the larynx

A

(1) anterior to esophagus, (2) inferior to hyoid bone and (3) superior to trachea

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19
Q

What is the largest cartilage of the larynx?

A

Thryoid cartilage

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20
Q

What is the technical name for the Adam’s apple?

A

Laryngeal prominence

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21
Q

What is the smaller cartilage located below the thyroid cartilage?

A

Cricoid cartilage

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22
Q

Where is the cricoid cartilage located?

A

Between trachea and thyroid cartilage

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23
Q

What structure of the larynx is protected by thyroid cartilage?

A

Vocal cords

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24
Q

What are three smaller cartilages located on the posterior larynx?

A
  1. Arytenoid cartilage
  2. Cunneiform cartilage
  3. Corniculate cartilage
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25
Q

Where is the epiglottis located?

A

(1) Posterior to tongue and (2) superior to thyroid cartilage

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26
Q

What’s the function of the epiglottis

A

To keep food from entering larynx

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27
Q

What tissue is the epiglottis made of?

A

Elastic tissue

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28
Q

What are the two types of vocal cords?

A
  1. Vocal folds (true vocal cords)

2. Vestibular folds (false vocal cords)

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29
Q

What is the glottis?

A

Region of vocal folds and space between them

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30
Q

What is inflammation of the vocal cords called?

A

Laryngitis

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31
Q

Where is trachea located? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Inferior to larynx and (2) posterior to heart

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32
Q

What tissue type lines the trachea?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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33
Q

What is purpose of goblet cells in the trachea? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) To make mucous to moisten air and (2) trap microbes

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34
Q

What is characteristic of the cartilage in the trachea

A

C-shaped hyaline cartilage that surround trachea anteriorly

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35
Q

What are two (2) benefits of the cartilage in the trachea

A
  1. Keep trachea open

2. Allow esophagus to expand into trachea if needed

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36
Q

What is the y-shaped junction of the trachea called?

A

Carina

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37
Q

What are the four (4) layers of the trachea lining from deep to superficial?

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Submucosa
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Adventitia (areolar connective tissue)
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38
Q

What is the trachealis muscle? (3 components to answer)

A

(1) Transverse smooth muscle fibers (2) that run along posterior trachea (3) to allow diameter of trachea to change during inhalation and exhalation

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39
Q

How is the bronchial tree organized? (4 components to answer)

A

(1) Trachea splits into primary bronchi (Left and Right); (2) primary bronchi split into secondary bronchi; (3) secondary (lobar) bronchi split into tertiary (segmental) bronchi; (4) terminal ends are called bronchioles

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40
Q

What are the size of bronchioles?

A

< 1 mm

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41
Q

How does cartilage change as you move down the bronchial tree?

A

(1) C-shaped cartilage of trachea is replaced by cartilage plates; (2) Cartilage plates are replaced by elastic fibers in bronchioles

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42
Q

How does tissue change as you move down the bronchial tree?

A

(1) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar is replaced by simple cuboidal tissue

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43
Q

How does cilia change as you move down the bronchial tree?

A

There is not much cilia in bronchioles

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44
Q

How does mucous production change as you move down the bronchial tree?

A

No mucous cells in the bronchioles

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45
Q

How does muscle change as you move down the bronchial tree?

A

More smooth muscle as diameter decreases because there is more air resistance.

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46
Q

What are three types of cells found in alveoli (3 components)

A
  1. Type I cells
  2. Type II cells
  3. Macrophages
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47
Q

What is the purpose of Type I cells in alveoli? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) They are simple squamous and (2) are involved in gas exchange

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48
Q

What is the purpose of Type II cells in alveoli?

A

Secrete surfactant

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49
Q

What is the purpose of pulmonary surfactant? (3 components to answer)

A

(1) Reduce surface tension to (2) keep it from collapsing alveoli and (3) also increase pulmonary compliance

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50
Q

What is the respiratory membrane?

A

Junction between alveolar epithelium and pulmonary capillary epithelium

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51
Q

What is the olfactory mucosa? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Epithelium lining superior aspect of nasal cavity that (2) contain chemoreceptors for sense of smell

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the nasal conchae? (3 components to answer)

A

(1) Swirl air to (2) trap particles in mucous as well as to (3) warm and moisten (condition) air

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53
Q

What are three (3) regions of left lung?

A
  1. Superior Lobe
  2. Inferior Lobe
  3. Cardiac notch
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54
Q

What are three (3) regions of right lung?

A
  1. Superior Lobe
  2. Middle Lobe
  3. Inferior Lobe
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55
Q

What is the lung root? (6 components to answer)

A

(1) The root of the lung formed by the (2) bronchus, (3) pulmonary artery, (4) pulmonary veins, (5) bronchial arteries and veins and (6) other vessels.

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56
Q

What is the apex of the lung? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) The rounded superior portion of superior lobe of lung (2) that extends near clavicle.

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57
Q

What is the base of the lung? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Broad, inferior portion of lung (2) that rests near diaphragm

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58
Q

What is the costal surface of the lung? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) lateral, posterior and anterior surface of the lung (2) that lies adjacent to the ribs

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59
Q

What is the area between the lungs called?

A

Mediastinum

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60
Q

What is the hilum?

A

An indentation on mediastinal surface of lung housing lung root

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61
Q

What is the pleura?

A

A double walled fluid filled sack

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62
Q

What is the distinction between parietal and visceral pleural?

A
  1. Visceral pleura lines the lung

2. Parietal pleura lines the thoracic cavity

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63
Q

What is contained within the pleura?

A

Pleural fluid

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64
Q

What is an excess of pleural fluid called?

A

Pleurisy

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65
Q

How many bronchopulmonary segments are in each lung?

A

Right: 10 segments
Left: 9 segments

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66
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

Volume is inversely proportional to pressure

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67
Q

What muscles are used in inhalation? (3 components to answer)

A
  1. Diaphragm
  2. External intercostal muscles
  3. Pectoralis minor, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes [accessory muscles]
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68
Q

How does inhalation occur? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Muscles contract to increase volume and (2) create a vacuum which causes air to flow into lungs

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69
Q

What muscles are used in normal exhalation?

A

None; passive process because of elasticity.

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70
Q

What two (2) muscles are used in forced exhalation?

A
  1. Abdominals

2. Internal intercostals

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71
Q

When does air stop flowing into lungs during inhalation?

A

When intrapulmonary pressure equals atmospheric pressure

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72
Q

How does asthma make breathing more difficult?

A

Causes constriction of bronchioles which increases resistance.

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73
Q

What is lung compliance?

A

Stretchiness of lungs

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74
Q

What are four (4) factors that can reduce lung compliance

A
  1. Scarring or disease
  2. Reduced surfactant production
  3. Decreased flexibility of thoracic cartilage
  4. Blockage of respiratory passages
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75
Q

What is tidal volume (TV)?

A

Peak-to-peak of normal volume of inhalation and exhalation

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76
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

A

Max volume during forced inhalation

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77
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

A

Min volume during forced exhalation

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78
Q

What is residual volume (RV)?

A

Volume that cannot be expired

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79
Q

What is “dead space” in pulmonary ventilation?

A

Air that does not contribute to gas exchange.

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80
Q

Name the two (2) types of dead space in pulmonary ventilation and describe them

A
  1. Anatomical dead space (air that fills passageways)

2. Physiological dead space (Alveoli fail to exchange gases

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81
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

Total amount of gas that flows in or out of the respiratory tract in one minute

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82
Q

What is a spirometer?

A

Instrument used to measure lung volumes

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83
Q

How does exhalation occur? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) Muscles relax and lungs recoil, decreasing volume and increasing pressure; (2) air flows out of lungs until intrapulmonary pressure equals atmospheric pressure.

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84
Q

What is the function of intrapleural pressure? (2 components to answer)

A

(1) The negative pressure (about 4 mmHg less than alveolar pressure) of intrapleural space prevents complete collapse of the lungs and (2) adheres it to thoracic cavity

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85
Q

What is the ventral respiratory group (VRG)?

A

Respiratory center in Medulla Oblongata that is the pace setter for normal respiration rate.

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86
Q

What are the two respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata?

A
  1. Ventral Respiratory group

2. Dorsal Respiratory group

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87
Q

What two (2) nerves are stimulated by the VRG and what muscles are innvervated by these nerves?

A
  1. Phrenic nerve - Diaphragm

2. External Intercostal Muscles - Intercostal nerves

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88
Q

What is the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)?

A

Respiratory center in Medulla Oblongata for forced or strenuous breathing

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89
Q

What two (2) muscles are stimulated by the DRG for forced inspiration?

A
  1. Sternocleidomastoid

2. Scalenes

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90
Q

What two (2) muscles are stimulated by the DRG for forced exhalation?

A
  1. Internal intercostal muscles

2. Abdominals

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91
Q

What respiratory center is located in the pons?

A

Pontine respiratory group (PRG)

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92
Q

What are two functions of the Pontine Respiratory Group?

A
  1. Fine-tines breathing rate and depth

2. Prevents over-inflation of the lungs

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93
Q

What is the hering-breuer reflex?

A

A reflex triggered to prevent over-inflation of the lungs during large inspriations

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94
Q

What is Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures?

A

Total pressure is the sum of all partial pressures

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95
Q

What three (3) factors affect diffusion in external respiration?

A
  1. Partial pressure gradients and gas solubilities
  2. Ventilation-Perfusion Coupling
  3. Structure of respiratory membrane
96
Q

What two (2) forces try to collapse the lung?

A
  1. Lung elasticity

2. Alveolar surface tension

97
Q

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling? (2 components)

A

If there is low oxygen in alveoli, capillaries constrict; if there is high oxygen in alveoli, capillaries dilate.

98
Q

How does the structure of the respiratory membrane affect diffusion?

A

More surface area facilitates more diffusion.

99
Q

Describe the composition of alveolar air relative to atmospheric air (3 components)

A
  1. More H20
  2. More Co2
  3. Less O2
100
Q

What is oxyhemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin carrying oxygen molecules

101
Q

How is oxygen transported and in what relative amounts? (2 ways)

A
  1. Hemoglobin (98.5%)

2. Dissolved in plasma (1.5%)

102
Q

What is hemoglobin saturation?

A

Percent of hemoglobin that are oxyhemoglobin.

103
Q

What is the relationship between hemoglobin saturation and partial pressure of oxygen?

A

Increased partial pressure of oxygen increases hemoglobin saturation

104
Q

What is the relationship between partial pressure of oxygen in a region and the hemoglobin saturation of blood coming from that region?

A

Decreased partial pressure results in decrease hemoglobin saturation because oxygen is unloaded to the oxygen-poor region.

105
Q

What four (4) factors decrease hemoglobin saturation?

A
  1. Increased temperature
  2. Increase partial pressure of Carbon Dioxide
  3. Increased H+
  4. Increased BPG (product of glycolysis)
106
Q

What is a technical definition of Hypoxia?

A

Hemoglobin saturation is below a certain level.

107
Q

What are four (4) causes of hypoxia?

A
  1. Anemic hypoxia (poor oxygen delivery)
  2. Ischemic hypoxia (impaired blood circulation)
  3. Histotoxic hypoxia (cells unable to use oxygen)
  4. CO poisoning
108
Q

Why is more oxygen unloaded from hemoglobin during exercise?

A

partial pressure of oxygen in cells decreases because they are using it

109
Q

How is carbon dioxide transported and in what relative amounts? (3 ways)

A
  1. Dissolved in plasma (7%)
  2. Bound to hemoglobin (20%
  3. Bicarbonate ions (73%)
110
Q

What is carbaminohemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin with oxygen attached to globin.

111
Q

What is significant about the way oxygen attaches to hemoglobin?

A

It does not attach quickly at first but once the first oxygen attaches the the other three oxygen attach quickly.

112
Q

What is carbonic anhydrase?

A

An enzyme that catalyses the reaction between water and carbon dioxide to form carbonic acid

113
Q

What is meant by chloride shift in respiration?

A

When carbonate ion (HCO3-) leaves hemoglobin it is replaced by Cl-.

114
Q

What happens to carbonic acid at the lungs?

A

It leaves hemoglobin and is broken down into water and carbon dioxide.

115
Q

What is COPD and what are two diseases that are categorized under this?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

  1. Chronic Bronchitis
  2. Emphysema
116
Q

Describe the harm of chronic bronchitis

A

Overproduction of mucous and inflammation blocks airways

117
Q

Describe the harm of emphysema (2 components)

A

(1) Loss of alveolar walls decreases surface area and decreases gas exchange; (2) Loss of lung elasticity makes it harder to exhale.

118
Q

What is asthma and how is it treated?

A

(1) inflammation of air ways and (2) it is treated by corticosteroids

119
Q

What causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

120
Q

What is the leading cause of lung cancer?

A

About 90% is caused from smoking

121
Q

What makes lung cancer especially deadly?

A

It is aggressive – fast and wide metastasis.

122
Q

What are the five (5) functions of the digestive system?

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Propulsion
  3. Digestion
  4. Absorption
  5. Defecation
123
Q

What product is produced by chemical breakdown of carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccharides

124
Q

What two (2) products are produced by chemical breakdown of lipids?

A
  1. monoglycerol

2. fatty acids

125
Q

What product is produced by breakdown of proteins?

A

amino acids

126
Q

What product is produced by breakdown of nucleic acids?

A

Nucleotides

127
Q

What is the function of amylase?

A

Breakdown carbohydrates into disaccharides

128
Q

What is the function of chymotrypsin?

A

Finish breakdown of proteins

129
Q

What is the function of trypsin?

A

Finish breakdown of proteins

130
Q

What is the function of lactase?

A

Breakdown the disaccharide lactose

131
Q

What is the function of maltase?

A

Breakdown the disaccharide maltose

132
Q

What is the function of nuclease?

A

Breakdown nucleic acids

133
Q

What is the function of pepsin?

A

Breakdown proteins in stomach

134
Q

What is the function of peptidase

A

Breakdown of proteins

135
Q

What is the function of sucrase?

A

Breakdown of disaccharide sucrose

136
Q

What is the function of trypsin?

A

Finish breakdown of proteins

137
Q

Describe the five (5) boundaries of the oral cavity

A
  1. Anterior: Oral orifice; Lips
  2. Posterior: oropharynx
  3. Inferior: tongue
  4. Superior: palates
  5. Lateral: cheeks
138
Q

What are two (2) digestive functions of the tongue?

A
  1. Food manipulation for chewing

2. Swallowing

139
Q

What is the six (6) part pathway of the digestive system?

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Pharynx
  3. Esophagus
  4. Stomach
  5. Small intestines
  6. Large intestines
140
Q

What is dentition?

A

arrangement, kind and number of teeth at a given age

141
Q

What is the dentition of the deciduous teeth?

A

20 nonpermanent teeth

142
Q

What is the dentition of permanent teeth?

A

32 permanent teeth

143
Q

What are four (4) kinds of teeth?

A
  1. Incisors
  2. Cuspids
  3. Bicuspids
  4. Molars
144
Q

What is the function of incisors

A

Cutting

145
Q

What is the function of cuspids

A

Canines: tear and pierce

146
Q

What is the function of bicuspids

A

premolar: grind and crush

147
Q

What is the function of molars

A

grind and crush

148
Q

How is a bolus prepared? (2 components)

A

Teeth masticate food into small pieces and tongue mixes it with saliva

149
Q

What are three (3) major salivary glands

A
  1. Parotid
  2. Submandibular
  3. Sublingual
150
Q

Where is the parotid salivary gland located?

A

Anterior to the ear

151
Q

Where is the submandibular salivary gland located?

A

Medial to mandible

152
Q

Where is the sublingual salivary gland located?

A

Inferior to the tongue

153
Q

What nerves innervate the major salivary glands?

A

Facial (VII) and Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerves

154
Q

What is produced by parotid salivary glands?

A

Watery-saliva filled with enzymes

155
Q

What is produced by submandibular salivary gland?

A

Viscous saliva filled with enzymes

156
Q

What is produced by sublingual salivary gland?

A

Mucous

157
Q

How is parotid salivary gland drained?

A

Ducts deliver saliva to region of the molars

158
Q

How is submandibular salivary gland drained?

A

Ducts deliver saliva to sublingual region

159
Q

How is sublingual salivary gland drained?

A

Ducts deliver saliva to floor of the mouth

160
Q

Where does digestion start and with what enzyme?

A

In the mouth with amylase

161
Q

What is the optimal pH of amylase?

A

6.7-7.0

162
Q

What are five muscles of mastication?

A

(MMBLT)

  1. Masseter
  2. Medial Pterygoid
  3. Buccinator
  4. Lateral Pterygoid
  5. Temporalis
163
Q

What nerve innervates Masseter?

A

Trigeminal (V)

164
Q

What nerve innervates Medial pterygoid?

A

Trigeminal (V)

165
Q

What nerve innervates Buccinator?

A

Facial (VII)

166
Q

What nerve innervates Lateral pterygoid?

A

Trigeminal (V)

167
Q

What nerve innervates Temporalis?

A

Trigeminal (V)

168
Q

List the four (4) layers of the GI tract wall (deep to superficial)

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Submucosa
  3. Muscularis
  4. Serosa
169
Q

Describe the GI mucosa (3 components)

A

(1) Simple columnar epithelium that (2) secretes mucous, hormones, enzymes and (3) absorbs nutrients

170
Q

Describe the GI submucosa (5 components)

A

(1) Dense connective tissue that (2) contains glands, (3) lymphatics, (4) blood vessels and (5) nerves

171
Q

Describe the GI muscularis

A

Two or three layers containing circular and longitudinal muscles; stomach contains the third oblique layer.

172
Q

What is a sphincter?

A

A thickened portion of the muscularis that closes separate areas

173
Q

Describe the GI serosa of the abdominopelvic region (2 components)

A

(1) Visceral peritoneum (2) made of loose connective tissue

174
Q

Describe the GI serosa of the thoracic region (3 components)

A

(1) Adventitia made of (2) fibrious connective tissue to (3) hold esophagus

175
Q

Where is the esophagus located?

A

Posterior to trachea in mediastinum.

176
Q

What is the esophageal hiatus?

A

Opening in diaphragm that esophagus passes through

177
Q

Describe the muscularis of the esophagus (three regions)

A
  1. Beginning: Skeletal muscle
  2. Middle: Mixed skeletal and smooth muscle
  3. End: Smooth Muscle
178
Q

What is the gastroesophageal sphincter?

A

Sphincter at junction between esophagus and stomach

179
Q

What are two other names for gastroesophageal sphincter?

A
  1. Lower esophageal sphincter

2. Cardiac sphincter

180
Q

What is the first part of the stomach called?

A

Cardia

181
Q

What is the apex of the stomach called?

A

Fundus

182
Q

What is the large middle portion of the stomach called?

A

Body

183
Q

What is the end of the stomach called?

A

Pylorus

184
Q

What is the “external” curve of the stomach called?

A

Greater curvature

185
Q

What is the “internal” curve of the stomach called?

A

Lesser curvature

186
Q

What are gastric rugae?

A

Folds in the stomach that allow it to expand when needed

187
Q

What are gastric pits?

A

Indentation in stomach which are entrances into tubular shaped gastric glands

188
Q

What are four (4) types of gastric glands?

A
  1. Mucous neck cells
  2. Parietal cells
  3. Chief cells
  4. Enteroendocrine cells
189
Q

What do mucous neck cells produce?

A

thin mucous containing bicarbonate

190
Q

What two (2) things do parietal cells produce?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

191
Q

What two (2) things do gastric chief cells produce?

A
  1. Pepsinogen

2. Lipase

192
Q

What does enteroendocrine cells produce?

A

Gastrin

193
Q

what does gastrin do?

A

control secretion of gastric acid (HCl)

194
Q

What are three (3) ways the stomach prevents self-digestion?

A
  1. Mucosal barrier containing bicarbonate
  2. Tight junctions between cells
  3. Quickly replacing dead cells
195
Q

Describe enzymatic digestion of protein in the stomach (3 steps)

A

(1) HCl partially activates pepsinogen; (2) partially activated pepsinogen activates another partially activated pepsinogen forming pepsin; (3) pepsin catalyzes protein digestion.

196
Q

What nerve innervates the stomach?

A

Vagus (X)

197
Q

What are the three regions of the small intestine in order?

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
198
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

movement of food by smooth muscle contraction

199
Q

What are villi in the small intestine?

A

Finger like protrusions to increase surface area

200
Q

What are central lacteals?

A

A lymphatic capillary that absorbs dietary fats in villi of small intestine

201
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Finger like protrusions on villi to increase surface area

202
Q

What are plicae circularis?

A

Corkscrew circular folds on small intestine to help chyme move

203
Q

What is chyme?

A

What the bolus becomes once the stomach has mechanically digested it

204
Q

What is chyle?

A

Lymph containing fats

205
Q

What four (4) small intestine enzymes are involved with carbohydrate digestion?

A
  1. Pancreatic amylase
  2. Sucrase
  3. Lactase
  4. Maltase
206
Q

What three (3) small intestine enzymes are involved with protein digestion?

A
  1. Peptidase
  2. Trypsin
  3. Chymotrypsin
207
Q

What are brush border enzymes?

A

Enzymes on the brush border (microvilli) that break disaccharides into monosaccharides.

208
Q

What are the four (4) lobes of the liver

A
  1. Left
  2. Right
  3. Caudate
  4. Quadrate
209
Q

What connects left and right lobes of liver?

A

Falciform ligament

210
Q

What is the major digestive function of the liver?

A

Produce bile

211
Q

What is the major digestive function of the gallbladder?

A

Store and release bile

212
Q

Describe the flow of bile in a healthy person (4 regions)

A
  1. Bile flows from Left and Right Hepatic Duct into Common Hepatic Duct
  2. Bile flows from gallbladder through cystic duct
  3. Gallbladder and liver ducts merge to form common bile duct
  4. Bile enters small intestine through sphincter
213
Q

What is the optimum pH for pancreatic enzymes

A

7.0-8.0

214
Q

What are three (3) structures of the pancreas?

A
  1. Head
  2. Tail
  3. Pancreatic Duct
215
Q

Where is the pancreas located

A

Retroperitoneal inferior to the stomach (located in the loop of the duodenum)

216
Q

What are two types of cells in the pancreas

A
  1. Acinar Cells

2. Epithelial Cells

217
Q

What do acinar cells produce?

A

Enzymes

218
Q

what do pancreatic epithelial cells produce?

A

bicarbonate

219
Q

What six (6) enzymes are in the pancreatic juice?

A
  1. Amylase
  2. Chymotrypsin
  3. Carboxypeptidase
  4. Lipase
  5. Nuclease
  6. Trypsin
220
Q

Describe the structures large intestine in order

A
  1. Ileocecal valve
  2. Cecum
  3. Ascending Colon
  4. Transverse Colon
  5. Descending Colon
  6. Sigmoid Colon
  7. Rectum
221
Q

What are two differences between small and large intestine mucosae?

A
  1. Large intestine does not have circular folds

2. Large intestine does not have villi beyond ileocecal valce

222
Q

What is deglutition

A

swallowing

223
Q

What is mastication?

A

chewing

224
Q

What is the greatest omentum?

A

Double layer of peritoneum extending over greater curvature

225
Q

What is the lesser omentum?

A

Double layer of peritoneum extending from liver to lesser curvature

226
Q

What is the mesentery?

A

A fold of membranous tissues that attaches to intestinal tract and contains blood vessels.

227
Q

What is the mesocolon?

A

The fold of peritoneum (or mesentery) attached to colon.

228
Q

Where is the appendix located?

A

Attached to cecum

229
Q

What are haustra?

A

Small pouches in colon

230
Q

What are teniae coli?

A

Longitudinal ribbons of smooth muscles running along colon

231
Q

What is segmentation in the small intestine?

A

Short segments of intestine contract which increase contact with the food, increasing absorption, as well as moving it along.

232
Q

How does the Sympathetic nervous system effect the digestive system?

A

Decrease activity

233
Q

How does the parasympathetic nervous system effect the digestive system?

A

Increase activity

234
Q

What causes the release of bile?

A

Duodenum releases Cholecystokinin (CCK) which causes gall bladder contractions

235
Q

What is the role of secretin in digestion? (3 components)

A

(1) Produced in duodenum and (2) regulates secretions by stomach and pancreas, (3) as well as water homeostasis.

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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