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Anatomy and Physiology > Test 4 PNS, ANS, Special Senses & Endocrine > Flashcards

Test 4 PNS, ANS, Special Senses & Endocrine Flashcards

0
Q

5 sensory receptor classification by stimulus

A
  1. mechanoreceptor
  2. chemoreceptor
  3. photoreceptor
  4. thermoreceptor
  5. nociceptor
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1
Q

what is sensation?

A

awareness of changes in the internal and external environments

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2
Q

3 sensory receptors classifications by location

A
  1. exteroceptor
  2. interoceptor
  3. proprioceptor
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3
Q

2 sensory receptor classifications and their functions by complexity

A
  1. simple - tactile sensation

2. complex - sense organs

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4
Q

two types of simple sensory receptors

A
  1. free (naked) nerve endings - peripheral end of sensory axon, usually respond to pain and thermal stimuli
  2. encapsulated - enclosed by connective tissue
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5
Q

What are Merckle’s cells (discs)?

A

specialized skin cells that release transmitter onto peripheral sensory nerve terminals

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6
Q

what are Meissner’s corpuscles?

A

encapsulated receptors found in superficial dermis that respond to light touch

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7
Q

what are Pacinian corpuscles?

A

specialized encapsulated receptors in deep dermis that respond to (1) deep pressure when first applied and (2) vibration

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8
Q

what are Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

encapsulated receptors located in (1) dermis (2) subcutaneous and (3) joint capsules that respond to (1) deep continuous pressure and (2) stretching

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9
Q

what are muscle spindles?

A

modified muscle fibers that detect muscle stretch and contract preventing over stretching (damage to muscle)

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10
Q

what are golgi tendon organs?

A

proprioceptors in tendons that cause muscle (muscle spindles) to relax after 30 seconds

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11
Q

what two encapsulated cell types are responsible for proprioception?

A
  1. muscle spindles

2. golgi tendon organs

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12
Q

what is a modality?

A

one feature of a complex stimulus; for example, temperature, pressure, sound or taste.

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13
Q

what is adaption?

A

a reduction in sensitivity to constant stimulus

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14
Q

what receives input from many classifications of receptors?

A

primary somatosensory cortex

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15
Q

what is the three layer structure of nerves?

A
  1. Epineurium surrounds fascicles and forms nerve
  2. Perineurium surrounds endoneuroum forming fascicles
  3. Endoneurium surrounds neurons
  4. Schwann cells surround axon
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16
Q

what happens to axon when an axon is crushed or cut?

A

axon distal to injury dies and healing may begin

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17
Q

how is a nerve fiber regenerated?

A

surviving schwann cells release growth factor and form a regeneration tube that the axon regrows through

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18
Q

where do the first 2 pairs of cranial nerves originate from?

A

forebrain

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19
Q

where do 10 of the 12 cranial nerves originate from?

A

brain stem

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20
Q

what cranial nerve is the exception of serving only head and neck structures

A

vagus nerve

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21
Q

CN I name and function

A

Olfactory, sensory (smell)

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22
Q

CN II name and function

A

Optic, sensory (vision)

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23
Q

CN III Name and Function

A

Oculomotor, Somatic (Eye movement) and autonomic (pupil constriction) motor

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24
Q

CN IV Name and Function

A

Trochlear, Motor (down and out eye movement)

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25
Q

CN V name and function

A

Trigeminal, motor and sensory of face, 3 divisions

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26
Q

CN VI name and function

A

abducens, motor (eye movement)

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27
Q

CN VII name and function

A

Facial, motor and sensory, 5 divisions

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28
Q

5 divisions of facial nerve (superior to inferior)

A
  1. temporal
  2. zygomatic
  3. buccal
  4. mandibular
  5. cervical
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29
Q

CN VIII name and function

A

vestibulocochlear, sensory (equilibrium and hearing)

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30
Q

CN IX name and function

A

glossopharyngeal, motor and sensory. innervates tongue and pharynx for swallowing, salivary gland and taste

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31
Q

CN X name and function

A

vagus, sensory and motor (heart, lungs, abdominal viscera)

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32
Q

(6) what activities does vagus nerve control

A
  1. taste
  2. swallowing
  3. voice
  4. heart rate
  5. breathing
  6. digestive activity
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33
Q

CN XI name and function

A

accessory, motor (larynx and pharynx and head movement)

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34
Q

CN XII name and function

A

hypoglossal, motor (food mixing and manipulation while chewing, tongue contributions to swallowing and speech)

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35
Q

Mnemonic for cranial nerve names

A 
On
Old
Olympus'
Towering
Top
A
Finn
Viewed
Germans
Viewing
A
Hopp
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36
Q

Mnemonic for cranial nerve types

A 
Some
Say
Marry
Money
But
My
Brother
Says
Big
Butts
Matter
Most
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37
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there and what do they innervate?

A

31, all areas except head and some neck regions

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38
Q

Five main segments of spinal nerves and the nerves they contain

A
  1. Cervical C1-C8 (one more than # of vertebrae)
  2. Thoracic T1-T12
  3. Lumbar L1-L5
  4. Sacral S1-S5
  5. Coccygeal C0 (very small)
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39
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

an area of skin innervated by nerves from a single spinal nerve

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40
Q

5 Steps of Reflex Arc

A
  1. receptor
  2. sensory neuron
  3. integration center in spinal cord
  4. motor neuron
  5. effector
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41
Q

2 Things ANS does

A
  1. controls slow routine body functions without conscious control
  2. Shift resources in situations requiring instantaneous diversion of energy
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42
Q

3 characteristics of ANS motor neurons

A
  1. innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
  2. operate via subconscious control
  3. have viscera as most of their effectors
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43
Q

which is faster, Autonomic or Somatic and why?

A

Somatic, axons are heavily myelinated

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44
Q

Comparison of sympathetic pre and post ganglionic neurons

A

sympathetic has short pre ganglionic neuron and long post ganglionic neuron

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45
Q

Comparison of parasympathetic pre and post ganglionic neurons

A

parasympathetic has long pre ganglionic neuron and short post ganglionic neuron

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46
Q

effectors for ANS

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands

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47
Q

What is the difference between ANS and SNS target organ response?

A

SNS only releases excitatory ACh where ANS releases ACh or norepinephrine and the effect is inhibitory or excitatory

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48
Q

What does “two neuron chain” refer to in ANS?

A

Two neurons to get from CNS to effectors because there is a ganglion in the middle and one synapse.

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49
Q

5 main ways ANS and SNS differ

A
  1. myelination
  2. one vs 2 neuron chain
  3. length of pre and poat ganglionic neurons (ANS only)
  4. effector organs
  5. neurotransmitters
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50
Q

Three activities of parasympathetic division

A
  1. digestion
  2. defecation
  3. diuresis
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51
Q

When the parasympathetic system dominates what are 6 body characteristics

A
  1. blood pressure low
  2. heart rate low
  3. respiratory rates low
  4. gastrointestinal tract activity is high
  5. skin is warm because blood is in skin
  6. pupils are constricted
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52
Q

What are the two main differences between the anatomy of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions?

A
  1. where the ganglia are

2. where they exit the spinal cord (sym. T1 -L2 para. S2-S4)

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53
Q

where are parasympathetic ganglia located?

A

on the target organ (long preganglionic, short postganglionic)

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54
Q

where are sympathetic ganglia located?

A

near the spinal cord

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55
Q

where do parasympathetic nerve fibers exit?

A
  1. cranial nerves

2. sacrally

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56
Q

where do sympathetic nerve fibers exit?

A

T1-L2

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57
Q

Why is autonomic nervous system considered sensory as well as a motor system?

A

There are sensory receptorslocated on viscera

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58
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Visceral pain is perceived as somatic in origin

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59
Q

Why does referred pain occur?

A

Visceral pain afferents piggy back (they are carried) by somatic nerve fibers

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60
Q

If sympathetic system dominates what are 4 characteristics of the body

A
  1. Increased heart rate and force
  2. Dilated air passages
  3. Decreased digestive activity
  4. inhibited urinary system
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61
Q

What is ANS tone?

A

The magnitude of a division (sympathetic or parasympathetic) considered to be acting independently and the effects it brings.

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62
Q

What are cholinergic fibers?

A

ANS fibers that release acetylcholine.

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63
Q

What are adrenergic fibers?

A

ANS fibers that release norepinephrine

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64
Q

Which ANS fibers are cholinergic fibers?

A

All preganglionic axons and all parasympathetic postganglionic axons

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65
Q

Which ANS fibers are adrenergic?

A

some sympathetic postganglionic axons

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66
Q

What two types of receptors will cholinergic fibers release onto?

A
  1. nicotinic

2. muscarinic

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67
Q

What four types of receptors will adrenergic fibers release onto?

A
  1. alpha 1
  2. alpha 2
  3. beta 1
  4. beta 2
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68
Q

Effect of an alpha 1 stimulant?

A

excitatory, constrict blood vessels and dilate eyes

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69
Q

effect of alpha 2 stimulant?

A

inhibitory, promote blood clotting

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70
Q

effect of beta 1 stimulant?

A

excitatory, increase HR and beat strength

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71
Q

effect of beta 2 stimulant

A

inhibitory and excitatory, dilate bronchials and coronary vessels. more air, more blood

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72
Q

where are 3 places nicotinic receptors found?

A
  1. all motor end plates (somatic targets)
  2. all ganglionic neurons
  3. hormone producing cells of adrenal medulla
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73
Q

What is the effect of ACh binding to nicotinic receptors?

A

Always stimulatory

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74
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors found?

A

All effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers

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75
Q

Five effects of ACh binding to muscarinic receptors

A
  1. Inhibitory or excitatory
  2. Depends on receptor type of target organ
  3. slows heart rate and strength of muscle contractions
  4. Increases digestive activity
  5. Constriction of the iris
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76
Q

Effect of Atropine?

A

Blocks parasympathetic effects (Bella donna and an antidote to nerve gas)

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77
Q

Effect of neostigmine

A

inhibits acetylcholinesterase and is used to treat myasthenia gravis

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78
Q

effect of tricyclic antidepressants

A

prolong the activity of NE on postsynaptic membranes

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79
Q

effect of OTC cold, allergy and nasal congestion relief

A

stimulate alpha adrenergic receptor

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80
Q

effect of beta blockers

A

attach mainly to beta 1 adrenergic receptors and reduce heart rate and prevent arrhyhmias

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81
Q

What is the difference between the areas sympathetic and parasympathetic effect body?

A

Parasympathetic exerts short-lived highly localized control

Sympathetic exerts long-lasting diffuse effects

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82
Q

3 reasons sympathetic activation is long-lasting

A
  1. NE is inactivated more slowly than ACh
  2. NE is an indirectly acting neurotransmitter, using a second-messenger system
  3. Epinephrine is released into the blood and remains there until destroyed by the liver
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83
Q

What is the main integration center of ANS activity?

A

hypothalamus

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84
Q

What system exhibits subconscious influence on hypothalamus?

A

Limbic system via limbic lobe connections

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85
Q

Five levels of ANS control

A
  1. cerebral cortex (frontal lobe)
  2. limbic lobe
    1&2 are subconscious
  3. hypothalamus
  4. reticular formation
  5. spinal cord
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86
Q

Four centers of Hypothalamus

A
  1. heart activity and blood pressure
  2. body temperature, water balance and endocrine activity
  3. emotional stages (rage, pleasure) and biological drives (hunger, thirst, sex)
  4. reactions to fear and the “fight-or-flight” system
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87
Q

where are taste buds found?

A

inside papillae on tongue, cheeks and soft palate

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88
Q

what is the function of taste buds?

A

gustatory receptors

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89
Q

where are olfactory receptor cells?

A

olfactory bulb of olfactory (CN I) nerve in olfactory epithelium (roof of nasal cavity)

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90
Q

function of eyebrows

A

protect eye from sun

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91
Q

function of eyelids

A

protect and moisturize eye

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92
Q

function of eyelashes

A

protect and remove dirt and debris

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93
Q

function of conjunctiva

A

moisturize eye, membrane covering

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94
Q

function of lacrimal structures

A

tears

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95
Q

function of sclera

A

protects and shapes eye; provides anchor for eye muscles

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96
Q

function of cornea

A

lets light in and bends light as it enters eye

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97
Q

function of retina

A

contains photoreceptors (rods and cones)

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98
Q

function of rods

A

dim light & peripheral vision; black and white, fuzzy images

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99
Q

function of cones

A

bright light and high acuity; color, sharp images

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100
Q

what is the central fovea

A

light hits most directly; greatest cone concentration

101
Q

what is the optic disc

A

blind spot where optic nerve exits eye

102
Q

what are cataracts?

A

clouding of lens usually from age-related hardening and thickening

103
Q

where is anterior chamber of eye located?

A

behind cornea and in front of lens

104
Q

where is posterior chamber of eye located

A

behind lens

105
Q

what fills is the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

aqueous humor

106
Q

what fills the posterior chamber of eye?

A

vitreous humor

107
Q

which humor of the eye regenerates?

A

aqueous humor

108
Q

which humor of the eye is formed in embryo and lasts a lifetime?

A

vitreous humor

109
Q

what causes Glaucoma?

A

drainage of aqueous humor is blocked

110
Q

how does glaucoma cause damage to eye?

A

compression of retina and optic nerve can cause blindness

111
Q

where in the eye is light focused on to?

A

retina (central fovea)

112
Q

what is a normal shaped eye called?

A

emmetropic

113
Q

what is an elongated eye that focuses light in front of retina called?

A

myopic (nearsighted)

114
Q

what is a shortened eye that focuses light behind retina called?

A

hyperopic (farsighted)

115
Q

what kind of lens corrects myopia?

A

concave lens

116
Q

what kind of lens corrects hyperopia?

A

convex lens

117
Q

what characterizes astigmatism?

A

unequal curves on lens or cornea

118
Q

when happens when the light hits the retina to cause vision?

A

photoreceptors generate graded potentials that cause ganglion cells to generate action potentials that send a signal through optic nerve to occipital lobe of brain

119
Q

what is the pinna?

A

also called auricle. outer ear made from elastic cartilage

120
Q

what is the function of the auricle?

A

direct sound waves into external auditory canal

121
Q

where is outer ear located?

A

extends from auricle to ear drum, runs through temporal bone of skull

122
Q

what glands secrete ear wax?

A

ceruminous glands create cerumen

123
Q

what is the tympanic membrane?

A

eardrum. made from connective tissue and separates outer and middle ear

124
Q

what is the function of the ear drum?

A

vibrates when sound waves hit which causes ossicles to vibrate

125
Q

order of three ossicles in ear

A
  1. hammer
  2. anvil
  3. stirrup
126
Q

proper name for hammer?

A

malleus

127
Q

proper name for anvil?

A

incus

128
Q

proper name for stirrup?

A

stapes

129
Q

three non-bony structures of middle ear

A
  1. oval window
  2. round window
  3. eustachian tube
130
Q

what is the organ of corti?

A

hearing receptor organ

131
Q

(7 steps) how does hearing occur?

A
  1. sound waves directed by auricle
  2. tympanic membrane vibrates
  3. ossicles move
  4. stapes moves against oval window causing perilymph to move
  5. perilymph in scala tympani (cochlea) moves basilar membrane
  6. hair cells in organ of corti move against tectorial membrane
  7. signal sent down nerve
132
Q

what is conduction deafness?

A

blocking of sound to inner ear

133
Q

3 causes of conduction deafness

A

ear wax, middle ear inflammation, otosclerosis (fused ossicles)

134
Q

what is sensoneural deafness

A

damage to neural structures of the ear

135
Q

2 causes of sensoneural deafness

A

loss of hearing receptor cells by aging or loud noise

136
Q

what two structures of inner ear create sense of equilibrium (balance)?

A
  1. semicircular canals

2. vestibule

137
Q

10 major endocrine organs from superior to inferior

A
  1. pineal gland
  2. hypothalamus
  3. pituitary gland
  4. thyroid gland
  5. parathyroid glands
  6. thymus gland
  7. adrenal glands
  8. pancreas
  9. ovary (female)
  10. testis (male)
138
Q

5 non-major hormone producing tissues and organs

A
  1. adipose cells
  2. pockets of cells in walls of small intestines
  3. stomach
  4. kidneys
  5. heart
139
Q

what are autocrines

A

chemicals that exert their effects on the same cells that secrete them

140
Q

what are paracrines

A

locally acting chemicals that affect cells other than those that secrete them (act on neighboring cells)

141
Q

why are paracrines and autocrines not considered hormones

A

hormones are long-distance chemical signals

142
Q

where are hormones secreted into?

A

extracellular fluid (usually blood)

143
Q

three types of hormones

A
  1. amino acid based
  2. steroids
  3. eicosanoids
144
Q

hormones mostly belong to which class of hormones?

A

amino acid based

145
Q

what are the two Amino acid based hormones mechanism of action called?

A
  1. cAMP second messenger

2. PIP-Calcium second messenger

146
Q

5 steps of cAMP second messenger action

A
  1. hormone (first messenger) binds to receptor and G protein
  2. G protein generates GDP from GTP
  3. Activated G protein activates adenylate cyclase
  4. adenylate cyclase generates cAMP (second messenger) from ATP
  5. cAMP activates protein kinases which cause cellular effects
147
Q

5 steps of PIP-Calcium action

A
  1. hormone binds to receptor and activates G protein
  2. G protein activates phospholipase enzyme
  3. Phospholipase splits phospholipid PIP2 into two different second messengers, DAG and IP3
  4. DAG activates protein kinases; IP3 triggers release of Ca2+ stores
  5. Ca2+ (third messenger) alters cellular response
148
Q

4 steps of steroid action

A
  1. steroid diffuses easily into cell
  2. steroid binds to receptor making a complex
  3. complex travels into nucleus
  4. complex binds to a DNA-associated receptor initiating transcription and protein production
149
Q

how does target cell specificity work?

A

target cells must have specific receptors to which the hormone binds

150
Q

3 factors of target cell activation

A
  1. how much hormone is in blood
  2. affinity of receptors to hormone
  3. how hormone interacts with other hormones in binding to a receptor
151
Q

3 factors affecting how much hormone is in the blood

A
  1. rate of release of hormone
  2. rate of removal of hormone
  3. is the hormone attached to other things?
152
Q

3 ways hormones are deactivated or removed from blood

A
  1. degrading enzymes
  2. the kidneys
  3. liver enzyme systems
153
Q

which hormones are attached to plasma proteins?

A

steroid and thyroid hormones. all other hormones are unencumbered

154
Q

3 types of hormone interaction with the receptor

A
  1. permissiveness
  2. synergism
  3. antagonism
155
Q

what is permissiveness interaction?

A

one hormone cannot exert its effects without another hormone present

156
Q

what is synergism interaction

A

more than one hormone produces the same effects on a target cell

157
Q

what is antagonism interaction?

A

one or more hormones opposes the action of the other hormone

158
Q

three types of stimuli that cause hormones to be synthesized and released

A
  1. humoral (body fluids)
  2. neural
  3. hormonal stimuli
159
Q

how does humoral stimuli cause hormone release?

A

hormones are secreted in direct response to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients

160
Q

how are hormones released by neural stimuli in Sympathetic ANS?

A

preganglionic sympathetic nervous system fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete catecholamines

161
Q

what is nervous system modulation?

A

nervous system can override normal endocrine function

ex. during stress hypothalamus and SNS take control of blood glucose levels

162
Q

how are hormones released by hormonal stimuli?

A

hormones are released in response to hormones produced by other endocrine organs

163
Q

what is the hypophysis?

A

pituitary gland. two-lobed organ that secretes several major hormones

164
Q

what is the neurohypophysis and two hormones secreted by it?

A

posterior pituitary gland

  1. ADH
  2. Oxytocin
165
Q

What is the adenohypophysis and what 5 hormones does it secrete?

A

anterior pituitary lobe and infundibulum

  1. TSH
  2. FSH/LH
  3. ACTH
  4. GH
  5. PRL
166
Q

what is the relationship between neurohypophysis and hypothalamus?

A

(1) Neurohypophysis is an extension of neurons of hypothalamus and it (1) receives stores and releases hormones from the hypothalamus

167
Q

where are oxytocin and ADH synthesized?

A

hypothalamus, then transported to posterior pituitary

168
Q

what does oxytocin do?

A

strong stimulant of uterine contraction

169
Q

how is oxytocin regulated?

A

a positive feedback of oxytocin in the blood

170
Q

what hormone triggers milk ejection (“letdown” reflex)

A

oxytocin

171
Q

what does ADH stand for and do?

A

(1) antidiuretic hormone (2) prevents urine formation

172
Q

when is ADH synthesized and released?

A

when osmoreceptors detect high solute concentration in blood

173
Q

when is ADH not released?

A

when osmoreceptors detect low solute concentration in blood

174
Q

why do you pee a lot when you drink alcohol?

A

alcohol inhibits ADH release and causes copious urine output

175
Q

what do the six hormones of the adenohypophysis typicallydo?

A

regulate activity of other endocrine glands

176
Q

What does GH stand for and what does it do?

A

Growth hormone, promotes protein synthesis and encourages the use of fats for fuel to promote cellular growth.

177
Q

what cell types does GH target the most?

A

bone and skeletal muscle

178
Q

what does TSH stand for and what does it do

A
  1. thyroid-stimulating hormone that (2) stimulates the normal development and secretory activity of the thyroid gland [tropic hormone]
179
Q

what is another name for TSH

A

thyrotropin

180
Q

what causes Pituitary and Hypothalamus to stop releasing TSH?

A

rising thyroid hormone levels in blood

181
Q

what does ACTH stand for and what does it do?

A
  1. adrenocorticotropin hormone

2. stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroids

182
Q

what is another name for ACTH

A

corticotropin

183
Q

what hormone causes the release of ACTH

A

hypothalamic corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

184
Q

what three factors can trigger release of CRH

A
  1. fever
  2. hypoglycemia
  3. other stressors
185
Q

what are two gonadotropins and what do they stand for

A
  1. FSH - follicle-stimulating hormone

2. LH - luteinizing hormone

186
Q

what triggers gonadotropin production?

A

hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) during and after puberty

187
Q

what are two things LH does in females?

A
  1. trigger ovulation (expulsion of the egg from follicle)

2. promote synthesis and release of estrogens and progesterone

188
Q

what hormones cause maturation of the ovarian follicle?

A

LH and FSH

189
Q

what is another name for LH in males and what does it do?

A

(1) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and (2) stimulates interstitial cells of testes to produce testosterone

190
Q

what does PRL stand for and what does it do?

A

(1) prolactin (2) stimulates milk production by the breasts

191
Q

what hormone triggers PRL?

A

hypothalamic prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH)

192
Q

what hormone inhibits prolactin?

A

PIH (prolactin-inhibiting hormone)

193
Q

when are two times blood levels of PRH are raised?

A
  1. towards the end of pregnancy

2. suckling by a baby

194
Q

what is the largest endocrine gland?

A

thyroid gland

195
Q

what cells in thyroid gland produce thyroid hormone?

A

Follicle cells

196
Q

what cells in thyroid gland produce calcitonin?

A

parafollicular cells

197
Q

what is the body’s major metabolic hormone?

A

thyroid hormone

198
Q

thyroid hormone is composed of what two closely-related iodine-containing compounds?

A
  1. T3 - triiodothyronine

2. T4 - thyroxine

199
Q

what does calcitonin do?

A

inhibit osteoclast activity and inhibit release of calcium from bony matrix

stimulate calcium uptake and incorporation into bony matrix

200
Q

what regulates calcitonin level?

A

humoral (calcium ion concentration in the blood) negative feedback mechanism

201
Q

where are parathyroid glands located?

A

posterior aspect of thyroid gland

202
Q

what are 3 things PTH does?

A
  1. stimulates osteoclast activity
  2. enhance reabsorption of Ca2+ and the secretion of phosphate by the kidneys
  3. increase absorption of Ca2+ by intestinal mucosal cells
203
Q

what inhibits PTH release?

A

Rising Ca2+ levels

204
Q

what are 3 symptoms of hyperparathyroidism

A

soft bones, tumor, kidney stones

205
Q

what are 2 symptoms of hypoparathyroidism

A

improper nerve impulse and respiratory paralysis

206
Q

which part of adrenal glands acts as part of SNS?

A

adrenal medulla

207
Q

what part of adrenal glands is made of glandular tissue?

A

adrenal cortex

208
Q

what are three steroid hormones synthesized and released by adrenal cortex (corticosteroids)

A
  1. mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
  2. glucocorticoids (cortisol)
  3. gonadocorticoids (androgens)
209
Q

what do mineralcorticoids do?

A

regulate the electrolyte concentrations of extracellular fluids

210
Q

what are 2 things aldosterone does?

A
  1. maintains Na+ balance by reducing excretion of sodium from the body
  2. stimulates reabsorption of Na+ by the kidneys
211
Q

what 3 things stimulates aldosterone secretion?

A
  1. rising blood levels of K+
  2. low blood Na+
  3. decreasing blood volume and pressure
212
Q

What are the four mechanisms of Aldosterone secretion?

A
  1. Renin-angiotensin mechanism
  2. Plasma concentration of sodium and potassium
  3. ACTH causes small increases during stress
  4. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) inhibits activity of zona glomerulosa
213
Q

What are the four steps of Renin-Angiotensin mechanism?

A
  1. angiotensinogen (liver) + renin (kidney) –> Angiotensin I
  2. Angiotensin I + ACE (Angiotensin converting enzyme from lung) –> Angiotensin II
  3. Angiotensin II –> aldosterone
  4. Aldosterone affects nephron of kidney, retain H20
214
Q

What are two things glucocorticoids do?

A

Help resist stress by:

  1. keeping blood sugar levels relatively constant
  2. maintaining blood volume and preventing water shift into tissue
215
Q

What are two things cortisol provokes?

A
  1. gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates)
  2. rises in blood glucose, fatty acids and amino acids
216
Q

4 symptoms of excessive glucocorticoids

A
  1. depress cartilage and bone formation
  2. inhibit inflammation
  3. depress the immune system
  4. promote changes in cardiovascular, neural and gastrointestinal function
217
Q

what is the main androgen?

A

testosterone

218
Q

what 3 things do androgens contribute to?

A
  1. onset of puberty
  2. appearance of secondary sex characteristics
  3. sex drive in females
219
Q

when can androgens be converted into estrogens?

A

after menopause

220
Q

what cells compose the adrenal medulla and what do they do?

A

chromaffin cells that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine

221
Q

4 effects of adrenal medulla hormones

A

“fight or flight”

  1. blood glucose levels rise
  2. blood vessels constrict
  3. heart beats faster
  4. blood diverted to brain, heart and skeletal muscle
222
Q

which catecholamine is the more potent stimulator of the heart and metabolic activities

A

epinephrine

223
Q

which catecholamine is more influential on peripheral vasoconstriction and blood pressure

A

norepinephrine

224
Q

what part of adrenal gland causes long-term stress response?

A

adrenal cortex

225
Q

what part of adrenal gland causes short-term stress response

A

adrenal medulla

226
Q

where is pancreas located?

A

behind stomach

227
Q

what are acinar cells?

A

cells of pancreas that produce an enzyme-rich juice used for digestion

228
Q

where are hormones produced in the pancreas?

A

islets of Langerhans

229
Q

what cells of islets of pancreas produce glucagon

A

Alpha cells

230
Q

what cells of islets of pancreas produce insulin

A

Beta (diaBetaic)

231
Q

what is the major target of glucagon?

A

liver

232
Q

what are three things Glucagon promotes?

A
  1. glycogenolysis - breakdown of glycogen to glucose
  2. gluconeogenesis - synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and noncarbohydrates
  3. Release of glucose from liver cells into blood
233
Q

what are three effects of insulin

A
  1. lowers blood glucose levels
  2. enhances transport of glucose into body cells
  3. counters metabolic activity that would enhance blood glucose levels
234
Q

What are the target receptors for insulin called?

A

GLUT4 - muscles have more/higher affinity

235
Q

what are three cardinal signs of DM?

A
  1. polyuria - excessive urine output
  2. polydipsia - excessive thirst
  3. polyphagia - excessive hunger and food consumption
236
Q

what is hyperinsulinism

A

excessive insulin secretion, resulting in hypoglycemia

237
Q

what are three things ovaries are responsible for

A
  1. maturation of the reproductive organs
  2. appearance of secondary sexual characteristics
  3. breast development and cyclic changes in the uterine mucosa
238
Q

what do the testes do?

A

produce testosterone

239
Q

what are 4 functions of testosterone

A
  1. initiates maturation of male reproductice organs
  2. causes appearance of secondary sexual characteristics and sex drive
  3. necessary for sperm production
  4. maintains sex organs in their functional state
240
Q

where is pineal gland located?

A

hanging from the roof of the third ventricle

241
Q

what does pineal gland secrete?

A

melatonin

242
Q

what are two things melatonin is involved with?

A
  1. day/night cycles

2. processes with rhythmic variations (body temperature, sleep, appetite)

243
Q

where is thymus located

A

in thorax deep to sternum and above heart

244
Q

what are the two major hormonal products of the thymus

A

thymopoietins and thymosins

245
Q

what are thymopoitins and thymosins used for

A

development of T lymphocytes of immune system

246
Q

What hormone does heart produce and what does it do

A

(1) atrial natriuretic peptide which (2) reduces blood pressure, blood volume and blood sodium concentration

247
Q

what hormones are produced in gastrointestinal tract

A

enteroendocrine cells release local-acting digestive hormones

248
Q

what do hormones from placenta do?

A

influence the course of pregnancy

249
Q

what hormone do kidneys produce and what does it do

A

erythropoeitin which signals production of red blood cells

250
Q

what is released by skin that is a precursor to vitamin D?

A

cholecalciferol

251
Q

what hormone is released by adipose tissue and what does it do

A

(1) leptin (2) which is involved in the sensation of satiety and stimulates increased energy expenditure

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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