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Anatomy and Physiology > Test 6 Hematology, Lymphatic and Immune > Flashcards

Test 6 Hematology, Lymphatic and Immune Flashcards

1
Q

What are three (3) major functions of blood?

A
  1. Transport
  2. Regulation
  3. Protection
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2
Q

Describe three (3) characteristics of blood’s function of TRANSPORT

A
  1. Delivery of necessary gases & nutrients
  2. Transport wastes to excretion sites
  3. Transport hormones to target organs
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3
Q

Describe three (3) characteristics of blood’s function of REGULATION

A
  1. Maintain body temperature
  2. Maintain normal pH (acts as buffer)
  3. Maintain adequate fluid volume (water)
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4
Q

Describe two (2) characteristics of blood’s function of PROTECTION

A
  1. Prevent blood loss – clots

2. Prevent infection – antibodies & WBC (immune)

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5
Q

What is extracellular fluid?

A

All fluid in the body found OUTSIDE of cells.

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6
Q

What is intracellular fluid?

A

All fluid in the body found INSIDE of cells.

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7
Q

What is interstitial fluid?

A

Extracellular fluid found BETWEEN cells (interstitial spaces).

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8
Q

What are seven (7) components of blood plasma?

A
  1. Water (90%)
  2. Proteins
  3. Metabolic waste products
  4. Electrolytes
  5. Nutrients
  6. Respiratory gases
  7. Drugs
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9
Q

What are four (4) main types of proteins found in blood plasma?

A
  1. Albumin (60%)
  2. Globulins
  3. Clotting proteins
  4. Enzymes/Hormones
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10
Q

Describe the shape and composition of erythrocytes

A

Biconcave disc containing no organelles or nucleus. Composed of approximately 97% hemoglobin.

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11
Q

Describe the size of erythrocytes

A

Approximately 5 million RBCs per cubic millimeter.

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12
Q

How long is the life span of an erythrocyte?

A

100-120 days.

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13
Q

What are the five (5) leukocyte classifications, in order from most abundant to least abundant?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Eosinophils
  5. Basophils
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14
Q

What are the three (3) granulocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
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15
Q

What are the two (2) agranulocytes?

A
  1. Lymphocytes

2. Monocytes

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16
Q

Describe the structure and function (3) of a neutrophil

A
  1. Multilobed nucleus
  2. cytoplasmic granules
  3. first response phagocyte
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17
Q

Describe the structure and function (3) of an eosinophil

A
  1. Bilobed nucleus
  2. red cytoplasmic granules
  3. phagocyte
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18
Q

Describe the structure and function (3) of a basophil

A
  1. Dark multilobed nucleus
  2. Dark purplish-black cytoplasmic granules
  3. Releases histamine
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19
Q

Describe the structure and function (3) of a lymphocyte

A
  1. Round nucleus
  2. No visible cytoplasmic granules
  3. T cells and B cells
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20
Q

Describe the structure and function of a monocyte

A
  1. Kidney shaped nucleus
  2. No visible cytoplasmic granules
  3. Active phagocytes
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21
Q

What is a monocyte called when it leaves the blood stream and enters tissue?

A

Macrophage

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22
Q

What phagocyte specializes in reacting to parasites and allergens?

A

Eosinophil

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23
Q

What are the two (2) functions of histomine when released by Basophils?

A
  1. Causes vasodilation/inflammation

2. Attracts leukocytes

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24
Q

What pathogens do neutrophils specialize in killing?

A

bacteria

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25
Q

What is the term used for the production of white blood cells?

A

Leukopoiesis

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26
Q

What is the name of the “uncommitted” stem cell that will eventually become a blood cell?

A

Hemocytoblast

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27
Q

What is the name of the stem cell that will eventually become a monocyte, granulocyte or erythrocyte?

A

Myeloid stem cell

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28
Q

What is the name of the committed stem cell that will eventually become a lymphocyte?

A

Lymphoid stem cell

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29
Q

Where does leukopoiesis occur?

A

Red bone marrow

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30
Q

Describe how interleukins and Colony-stimulating factors regulate leukopoiesis

A

Interleukins and Colony-stimulating factors are classes of signaling molecules that bind to a hemocytoblast membrane and signal for it to differentiate. Different molecules within these classes of proteins will cause the undifferentiated stem cell to mature into the five different types of leukocytes.

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31
Q

How are platelets (3 steps) produced?

A
  1. Thrombopoietin causes hemocytoblasts to mature into Megakaryocytes in bone marrow.
  2. These megakaryocytes then extend themselves into the blood stream and these extensions break.
  3. The fragment left in blood stream is called a thrombocyte or platelet.
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32
Q

What is the function of a thrombocyte?

A

To form a plug during the process of blood clotting.

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33
Q

What are three (3) possible causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. Dysfunctional bone marrow (aplastic anemia)
  2. Overuse of platelets (rheumatoid arthritis and lupus)
  3. Platelets trapped in enlarged spleen
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34
Q

What are three (3) symptoms of thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. Bleeding from gums or nose
  2. Pinhead sized red marks on skin called petechiae
  3. Blotches and bruises
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35
Q

What is the main function of albumin?

A

Albumin cannot cross capillary walls so it tends to pull water into capillaries. It accounts for 80% of the colloid osmotic pressure.

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36
Q

Where is albumin produced?

A

The liver

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37
Q

Are clotting proteins that are freely floating in the blood plasma in active or inactive form?

A

Inactive

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38
Q

What happens when clotting proteins in blood plasma are activated?

A

They become a part of the blood clot cascade that eventually forms fibrin.

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39
Q

What are the functions of hormones in the blood?

A

Chemical messengers between cells, tissues or organs.

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40
Q

What are three (3) metabolic waste products contained in the blood plasma?

A
  1. Urea
  2. Uric acid
  3. Creatinine
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41
Q

What are five (5) categories of nutrients contained in the blood plasma?

A
  1. Glucose
  2. Amino acids
  3. Lipids
  4. Vitamins
  5. Minerals
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42
Q

What are six (6) electrolytes contained in the blood plasma?

A
  1. Sodium
  2. Chloride
  3. Potassium
  4. Calcium
  5. Phosphates
  6. Bicarbonate
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43
Q

What are two (2) respiratory gases contained in the blood plasma?

A
  1. Oxygen

2. Carbon dioxide

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44
Q

What are two (2) functions of water in blood plasma?

A
  1. Maintain blood volume

2. Absorb and transfer heat

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45
Q

What are the three (3) layers of centrifuged blood and their typical relative concentrations?

A
  1. Plasma (~55%)
  2. Buffy coat (<1%)
  3. Hematocrit (~45%)
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46
Q

What is contained in the hematocrit?

A

Red blood cells

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47
Q

What two (2) things are contained in the buffy coat?

A
  1. Thrombocytes

2. Leukocytes

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48
Q

What color is blood plasma?

A

Straw (pale yellow)

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49
Q

What is the name of the committed stem cell that will eventually become an erythrocyte?

A

Proerythrocyte

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50
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

An immature red blood cell that circulates in blood stream for about a day before maturing into an erythrocyte.

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51
Q

Describe the process of erythropoiesis (six steps)

A
  1. Kidneys detect hypoxia (lack of oxygen in blood)
  2. Kidneys release erythropoietin (EPO)
  3. Erythropoietin is primary signal molecule that causes hemocytoblasts to enter erythroid lineage (path to become erythrocyte)
  4. Hemocytoblasts develop into proerythrocytes
  5. Proerythrocytes eject nucleus and develop into Reticulocytes
  6. Reticulocytes enter blood stream and become Erythrocytes
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52
Q

Describe the relationship between pernicious anemia, Vitamin B12 and Intrinsic Factor.

A

Intrinsic Factor is a protein released by cells in the stomach that allow your intestines to absorb Vitamin B12, which is needed to make red blood cells.

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53
Q

Describe the chemical structure of Hemoglobin

A

4 protein subunits called Globins with an iron-containing Heme group in the center of each subunit.

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54
Q

What is the function of Hemoglobin?

A

Each heme within a hemoglobin (4 total) can carry one O2 molecule.

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55
Q

What is the color of oxyhemoglobin?

A

Bright red

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56
Q

What is the color of deoxyhemoglobin?

A

Dark red

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57
Q

What are the two (2) non-toxic iron containing molecules used for storage?

A
  1. Ferritin

2. Hemosiderin

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58
Q

What is the non-toxic iron containing molecule used for transportation?

A

Transferrin

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59
Q

Where is iron found and in what quantities (4 places)?

A
  1. Blood (65%)

2. Liver/spleen/bone marrow (35%)

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60
Q

What are four (4) ways iron is removed from the body?

A
  1. Urine
  2. Feces
  3. Sweat
  4. Menstruation
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61
Q

What controls iron absorption and what does the quantity absorbed depend upon?

A

Iron absorption is controlled by intestinal cells and it depends on the amount of stored iron.

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62
Q

Describe two (2) ways old RBCs are removed from blood circulation.

A
  1. Macrophages in liver, spleen and lymph nodes remove them. (90%)
  2. old RBCs hemolyze in blood stream and the fragments are engulfed by macrophages. (10%)
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63
Q

What happens to an RBC’s hemoglobin when it is engulfed by a macrophage?

A

Hemoglobin is broken down into heme and globin.

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64
Q

What happens to the globin once hemoglobin has been broken down by a macrophage?

A

Globin is broken down into amino acids by macrophage which are used by macrophage or released into blood stream.

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65
Q

What happens to heme once hemoglobin has been broken down by a macrophage (3 steps)?

A
  1. Iron is separated from heme.
  2. Leftover heme is converted into (1) unconjugated bilirubin by macrophage, (2) bound bilirubin by albumin in blood stream (3) conjugated bilirubin by liver cells and is then secreted into small intestine along with bile.
  3. Iron is stored in macrophages or released into blood stream where it binds to transferrin and sent to storage.
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66
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin once it is secreted into small intestine (2 steps)?

A
  1. Bacteria in intestine convert conjugated bilirubin into urobilinogen which gives feces its color.
  2. Some urobilinogen reenters blood stream and is filtered by kidneys and excreted, giving urine a yellow color.
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67
Q

What is jaundice?

A

A yellowish pigmentation of skin and sclera of eyes from hyperbilirubinemia (increased levels of bilirubin in the blood).

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68
Q

What are three (3) causes of jaundice?

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Biliary obstruction
  3. Accelerated RBC destruction
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69
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Blocking the flow of blood.

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70
Q

What are three (3) mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular spasm
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Clotting of blood
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71
Q

How does vascular spasm contribute to hemostasis (3 ways)?

A
  1. Localized vasoconstriction of damaged blood vessel prevents blood loss.
  2. Epinephrine released by adrenal glands causes systemic vasoconstriction.
  3. Vasoconstriction gives time for platelet plug to form.
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72
Q

How is the platelet plug formed? (2 steps)

A
  1. Von Willebrand Factor released from damaged collagen fibers of subendothelial tissue in blood vessel activates platelet and causes them to stick together.
  2. Platelets release (1) Seretonin to increase vascular spasm and (2) ADP and (3) Thromboxane to attract more platelets.
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73
Q

What are clotting factors?

A

Proteins that exist in blood circulation that are typically inactive. Sequential activation leads to clot formation.

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74
Q

What are blood clots composed fo?

A

Polymers (end-to-end chains) of the protein Fibrin

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75
Q

What is the inactive form of fibrin?

A

fibrinogen

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76
Q

What prevents fibrinogen from forming clots in the blood stream?

A

The fibrin-to-fibrin bonding sites are “capped” making it inactive.

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77
Q

What protein is needed to convert fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Thrombin

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78
Q

What is the inactive precursor to thrombin?

A

Prothrombin

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79
Q

What ion is required for the polymerization of fibrin?

A

Calcium (Ca2+)

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80
Q

What protein is needed to convert Prothrombin to Thrombin?

A

Prothrombin activator

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81
Q

What are the two (2) pathways that lead to the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin?

A
  1. Intrinsic Pathway

2. Extrinsic Pathway

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82
Q

Describe the Intrinsic Pathway of blood clot formation (4 steps)?

A
  1. Damage to the vessel wall stimulates the activation of a cascade of clotting factors
  2. Cascade results in the activation of factor X.
  3. Factor X is an enzyme that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
  4. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin monomers, which then polymerize to form a fibrin mesh.
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83
Q

Describe the Extrinsic Pathway of blood clot formation

A
  1. Triggered by tissue damage outside of the blood vessel.
  2. Damage to tissue stimulates the activation of tissue thromboplastin, an enzyme that catalyzes the activation of factor X.
  3. Factor X is an enzyme that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
  4. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin monomers, which then polymerize to form a fibrin mesh.
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84
Q

What clotting factor is the “Prothrombin activator”?

A

Factor X

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85
Q

How does the anticoagulant Coumadin (warfarin) work?

A

It inhibits the synthesis of vitamin-K dependent clotting factors.

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86
Q

How does the anticoagulant Heparin work?

A

Inhibits thrombin which prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

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87
Q

What cell can release heparin?

A

Basophils

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88
Q

What effect gives aspirin anticoagulant properties?

A

Low-dose, long-term aspirin use irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane in platelets, producing an inhibitory effect on platelet aggregation.

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89
Q

What are the three phases of coagulation?

A
  1. Formation of Prothrombin activator.
  2. Thrombin formation.
  3. Fibrin mesh formation.
90
Q

What is diapedesis

A

The passage of blood cells (especially white blood cells) through the intact walls of the capillaries.

91
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Movement of an organism (e.g. white blood cells) in response to a chemical stimulus.

92
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The process by which a cell (e.g. macrophage) engulfs a solid particle to form an internal vesicle known as a phagosome.

93
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

A stationary blood clot.

94
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A moving blood clot.

95
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

A decreased count of all white blood cells.

96
Q

What is leukemia?

A

An overproduction of abnormal or immature white blood cells.

97
Q

What is the cause of leukemia?

A

Dysfunctional bone marrow that is unable to produce white blood cells properly.

98
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Above average count of leukocytes.

99
Q

What is polycythemia vera?

A

Overproduction of red blood cells from uncontrolled erythropoiesis caused by bone marrow cancer.

100
Q

What is secondary polycythemia?

A

Increased production of red blood cells resulting from chronic hypoxia (resulting from increased elevation, etc.)

101
Q

What is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

Low red blood cell count from massive blood loss.

102
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

Low red blood cell count due to premature destruction (caused by transfusion, autoimmune disorders, etc.)

103
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Destruction of red bone marrow

104
Q

What is iron deficiency anemia?

A

Low hemoglobin resulting from inadequate iron intake.

105
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Genetic disorder resulting in the inability to synthesize one or more clotting factors.

106
Q

How is hemophilia treated?

A

Reliance on blood/plasma transfusions to supply missing clotting factors.

107
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Deficiency of platelets.

108
Q

What are two (2) main functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. To collect and transport fluids from intercellular spaces back to the veins in the blood system
  2. Filter out microorganisms and foreign substances
109
Q

What are three (3) divisions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Lymphatic fluid (Lymph)
  2. Lymphatic vessels (Lymphatics)
  3. Lymphoid tissue
110
Q

What is the function of lymphatics?

A

Drain fluid and plasma proteins from intercellular spaces and return it to blood to maintain blood volume.

111
Q

What are the three sizes of lymphatic vessels from smallest to largest?

A
  1. Collecting vessels
  2. Trunks
  3. Ducts
112
Q

Where are lymphatic capillaries located?

A

Lymphatic capillaries are weaved through capillary bed of blood vessels

113
Q

Explain how lymphatic capillaries only allow fluid to enter in one direction (3 steps)

A
  1. Capillaries contain minivalves
  2. When interstitial (fluid outside of capillary) pressure is high, the valve opens and fluid enters capillary.
  3. When lymph fluid pressure is equal to interstitial pressure the valve closes.
114
Q

Describe the relative sodium, potassium and chloride concentrations of EXTRACELLULAR fluid

A
  1. High sodium
  2. Low potassium
  3. High chloride
115
Q

Describe the relative sodium, potassium and chloride concentrations of INTRACELLULAR fluid

A
  1. Low sodium
  2. High potassium
  3. Low chloride
116
Q

Where is most of the body’s water located?

A

Intracellular fluid (66%)

117
Q

What is a lacteal?

A

a lymphatic capillary that absorbs dietary fats in the villi of the small intestine.

118
Q

What is chyle?

A

Fatty lymph that is originally transported by lacteal and eventually merges with larger lymphatic vessels.

119
Q

What are two (2) functions of lymph nodes?

A
  1. To filter lymph through phagocytosis by macrophages

2. To house lymphocytes that monitor lymph for foreign antigens.

120
Q

Where are lymph nodes located and where are they clustered?

A

Along the lymphatic vessels. They are clustered in the inguinal, axillary and cervical regions.

121
Q

What are afferent lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymphatics that bring lymph to lymph node.

122
Q

What are four (4) lymphatic organs?

A
  1. Lymph nodes
  2. Spleen
  3. Thymus
  4. MALTs
123
Q

What blood vessels are superficial lymphatics located nearest?

A

Veins

124
Q

What blood vessels are deep lymphatics located nearest?

A

Arteries

125
Q

What side of the body is the spleen located?

A

Left

126
Q

What are three (3) functions of the spleen?

A
  1. Break down old RBCs and recycle iron
  2. Lymphocyte production
  3. Surveillance and response to pathogens
127
Q

How does the body respond when the spleen is damaged or missing?

A

Liver and bone marrow take over its functions.

128
Q

What Thymus function is associated with the lymphatic system?

A

T-cell maturation

129
Q

What happens to a person’s thymus as they age?

A

It shrinks (thymic atrophy).

130
Q

What causes lymph to move inside the lymphatic vessels (3 ways)?

A
  1. Valves prevent backflow, similar to veins.
  2. Muscle pump (as muscles contract lymph is moved)
  3. Respiratory pump (changes in pressure cause lymph to move)
131
Q

The thoracic duct empties into what vein?

A

Left subclavian vein

132
Q

The right lymphatic duct empties into what vein?

A

Right subclavian vein

133
Q

What four (4) areas of the body does the thoracic duct drain?

A
  1. Legs
  2. Left side of head
  3. Left thorax
  4. Left arm
134
Q

What three (3) areas of the body does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A
  1. Right side of head
  2. Right thorax
  3. Right arm
135
Q

Describe the anatomy of lymphatic vessels

A

Composed of the same tunics (tunica externa, tunica media, tunica interna) as veins

136
Q

Describe the composition of lymph (3 components)

A
  1. Similar to blood plasma
  2. Contains white blood cells (especially lymphocytes)
  3. Plasma proteins.
137
Q

What is lymphedema?

A

Swelling caused by localized fluid retention

138
Q

What causes lymphedema?

A

Blockage of a lymphatic vessel

139
Q

What are the five (5) main trunks of the lymphatics?

A
  1. Jugular
  2. Subclavian
  3. Bronchomediastinal
  4. Lumbar
  5. Intestinal
140
Q

What five (5) components comprise the innate immune system?

A
  1. physical epithelial barriers (e.g. skin, pH of stomach)
  2. phagocytes
  3. dendritic cells
  4. Natural Killer cells
  5. plasma proteins
141
Q

What are the two (2) components of the adaptive immune system?

A
  1. Humoral immunity

2. Cell-mediated immunity

142
Q

Describe the function of the innate immune system

A

the innate immune system consists of cells and proteins that are always present and ready to mobilize and fight microbes at the site of infection.

143
Q

Describe the function of the adaptive immune system

A

adaptive immune system “adapts” to pathogens that are able to overcome the innate immune system

144
Q

What three (3) cell types act as antigen-presenting cells

A
  1. Dendritic cells
  2. Macrophages
  3. B cells
145
Q

What type of lymphocyte mediates humoral immunity?

A

B Cell

146
Q

What type of lymphocyte mediates cell-mediated immunity?

A

T Cell

147
Q

Describe the specificity of innate immune system

A

can recognize general classes of pathogens (virus, bacteria, fungi, etc.) but cannot make fine distinctions

148
Q

Describe the specificity of adaptive immune system

A

recognizes highly specific antigens

149
Q

A lymphocyte can differentiate into what three (3) cell types and where do they mature?

A
  1. B Cell (Bone-marrow)
  2. T Cell (Thymus)
  3. Natural Killer Cell
150
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

NK cells kill infected or damaged cells and have less specific receptors than B cells and T Cells.

151
Q

How do B and T cells develop specialized receptors?

A

During maturation, random genetic mutations cause them to develop a unique receptor with very high specificity.

152
Q

What is a naive lymphocyte?

A

A lymphocyte that has not yet encountered an antigen that is specific to its receptors.

153
Q

Describe the immune system process of recirculation

A

Naive lymphocytes move between peripheral lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes and spleen) and blood stream “looking” for the antigen specific to its receptors.

154
Q

What is the main job of antigen presenting cells (APCs)?

A

To capture and display antigens to lymphocytes.

155
Q

Where are antigen presenting cells located?

A

In the periphery where they survey tissues for antigens

156
Q

What are MHCs?

A

Major Histocompatibility Proteins are glycoproteins on a cell’s surface that identity it as self.

157
Q

What is an antigen presenting cells response when it detects an antigen (2 steps)?

A
  1. Displays antigen on its surface using MHCs

2. Move to lymph node

158
Q

What is an effector cell (immune)?

A

The cells that actually eliminate the microbe.

159
Q

What are the 5 types of effector cells (immune)?

A
  1. Helper T Cells
  2. Cytotoxic T Cells
  3. Plasma cells
  4. Natural Killer cells
  5. Macrophages & Granulocytes
160
Q

The inflammatory response belongs to which division of the immune system?

A

Innate immune system

161
Q

What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Heat
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
162
Q

What are toll-like receptors?

A

Protein receptors that recognize antigens on microbes and releases cytokines.

163
Q

What causes inflammation (4 chemicals)?

A

Damaged cells release chemicals:

  1. Histamine (basophils and platelets)
  2. Cytokines (toll-like receptors)
  3. Prostaglandins
  4. Kinins
164
Q

How do response chemicals cause inflammation (2 ways)

A
  1. Increased vasodilation

2. Increased permeability of capillaries

165
Q

What are four (4) benefits of inflammation?

A
  1. Prevents spread of microbe
  2. Gets rid of debris and pathogen
  3. Increase number of leukocytes
  4. Prepares for repair
166
Q

What are four (4) effects of kinins when released?

A
  1. induce vasodilation
  2. increase vascular permeability
  3. cause smooth muscle contraction
  4. induce pain.
167
Q

What are two (2) effects of histamine when released?

A
  1. arteriole dilation

2. increased venous permeability.

168
Q

What causes fever?

A

Leukocytes and macrophages release pyrogens which act on hypothalamus and raise body temperature.

169
Q

What are two (2) the benefits of fever?

A
  1. Liver and Spleen take in Iron and Zinc which is needed by bacteria to reproduce
  2. Increase cell metabolism
170
Q

Describe the initial response of the innate immune system to a pathogen (3 steps)

A
  1. Inflammation occurs.
  2. Neutrophils arrive on scene and release Leukocytosis Inducing Factor which signals for more granuloytes and macrophages to come.
  3. Phagocytes remove pathogen or hold it at bay until adaptive immune system is active.
171
Q

Describe the adaptive immune system response to a pathogen (2 steps)

A
  1. APCs detect antigens on pathogen and bring them to lymphocytes.
  2. Activated lymphocytes divide and mature, producing effector cells that will eliminate the microbe.
172
Q

What kind of microbes does humoral immune system specialize in eliminating?

A

Extracellular microbes

173
Q

What are the effector products of humoral immunity?

A

Antibodies

174
Q

What is a key difference between the receptor activation of T cells and B cells (compare and contrast)?

A

B cells are capable of recognizing many different chemical structures with the antibodies embedded in their plasma membrane, while T cells are only able to recognize small peptides presented by APCs.

175
Q

What is clonal selection?

A

When a B cell is activated by detecting its specific antigen, only B cells containing the same exact receptor (its “clones”) are selectively activated.

176
Q

What is clonal expansion?

A

Activated B cells, including all of its clones, divide to prepare to fight off infection and to keep up with the reproduction of the microbe.

177
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Differentiated activated B cells that secrete antibodies.

178
Q

What are four (4) ways an antibody removes a microbe?

A
  1. Neutralization
  2. Opsonization (flagging) & phagocytosis
  3. Activation of complement proteins
  4. Precipitation and Agglutination
179
Q

What happens to plasma cells as humoral immunity response winds down (2 possibilities)

A
  1. Some plasma cells undergo apoptosis.

2. Others migrate to bone marrow where they will produce antibodies for years.

180
Q

What are memory cells?

A

Differentiated activated B cells that will remain for years after an infection.

181
Q

Why is the secondary response faster than the primary response to a pathogen?

A

Memory cells respond quicker and more effectively than naive lymphocytes.

182
Q

What is another name for a CD4+ T Cell?

A

Helper T Cell

183
Q

What is another name for a CD8+ T Cell?

A

Cytotoxic T Cell

184
Q

What do MHC I molecules do?

A

Display peptide antigens located in the cytoplasm of the cell they are located on.

185
Q

Where are MHC I molecules located?

A

On the membrane of all healthy, nucleated cells.

186
Q

Which T cell is better at recognizing MHC I molecules and the antigens they present?

A

CD8+ T Cell (Cytotoxic T Cell)

187
Q

Where are MHC II molecules located?

A

On the membrane of APCs.

188
Q

What do MHC II molecules do?

A

Display peptide antigens located in the vesicles of APCs.

189
Q

Which T cell is better at recognizing MHC II molecules and the antigens they present?

A

CD4+ T Cell (Helper T Cell)

190
Q

What kind of microbes does the cell-mediated immunity specialize in eliminating?

A

Microbes located within cells.

191
Q

How does a CD4+ T Cell become activated? (3 steps)

A
  1. An APC engulfs a pathogen and travels to lymph tissue.
  2. APC presents antigen via MHC II molecule.
  3. CD4+ T Cell is activated if it is specific to that antigen.
192
Q

How does a CD8+ T Cell become activated? (3 steps)

A
  1. A virus or other microbe will enter a healthy, nucleated cell.
  2. Foreign antigen is presented on MHC I molecule.
  3. CD8+ T cell is activated if it is specific to that antigen.
193
Q

What happens after a T cell becomes activated?

A

Once a clone has been selected it goes through clonal expansion (rapid division).

194
Q

What do Helper T cells do once they are activated?

A

Differentiate into different subsets of Helper T cells that release cytokines that have various effects.

195
Q

How are memory T cells formed?

A

The initial clonal expansion also stimulates production of memory T cells that will stay in the body for years.

196
Q

What are the two (2) steps to make a T lymphocyte self tolerant?

A
  1. Positive Selection (Must recognize self-MHC)
  2. Negative Selection (Must not recognize self-antigens).

Cells that fail either selection go through apoptosis.

197
Q

What is another name for antibodies?

A

Immunoglobulins

198
Q

Describe the structure of immunoglobulins (two components)

A
  1. Constant region

2. Variable region (antigen bonding site)

199
Q

How many polypeptides compose an immunoglobulin?

A

Four. 2 Light (only on variable region) and 2 Heavy

200
Q

What are the five Immunoglobulin classes?

A
  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgD
  4. IgG
  5. IgE
201
Q

What are two (2) important characteristics of IgM?

A
  1. First immunoglobulin produced

2. Activation of complement

202
Q

What is an important characteristic of IgA?

A

Located in mucous

203
Q

What is an important characteristic of IgD

A

Naive B Cell Receptor

204
Q

What are two (2) important characteristics of IgG?

A
  1. Most abundant

2. Crosses placenta (neonatal immunity)

205
Q

What is an important characteristic of IgE?

A

Receptors on mast cells bind IgE with high affinity causing hypersensitivity (allergies).

206
Q

What is pus?

A

Mixture of neutrophils, cell debris, and pathogens resulting from failure to clean up site of infection.

207
Q

What are Regulatory T Cells?

A

Component of the immune system that suppress immune responses of other cells.

208
Q

What is MHC restriction?

A

T cell will recognize a peptide antigen only when it is bound to a host body’s own MHC molecule

209
Q

What is the function of complement proteins?

A

Complement proteins are a part of the innate immune system and are normally inactive. When activated they form the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) which leads to lysis and death of foreign organism.

210
Q

What is the effect of AIDS on the body?

A

Targets CD4+ Cells and destroys helper T cells.

211
Q

What is the effect of multiple sclerosis on the body?

A

Autoimmune destruction of myelin sheath of CNS.

212
Q

What is the effect of Systemic Lupus Erythematous?

A

Anti-DNA antibodies found in kidneys, blood vessels, brain & joints

213
Q

What is the effect of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of joints

214
Q

What causes anaphylaxis?

A

Mast cells release histamine causing vasodilation and bronchial constriction.

215
Q

What is the function of interferons (IFN)?

A

When a host cell becomes infected by a pathogen it will release interferons to warn nearby cells to ramp up their anti-pathogen defenses

216
Q

What are MALT?

A

Mucosa-associated Lymphatic Tissues

217
Q

What are three (3) types of MALT?

A
  1. Tonsils
  2. Peyer’s Patches
  3. Appendix
218
Q

Where are tonsils located? (4 locations)

A
  1. Palatine tonsils (back of throat)
  2. Linguil tonsils (base of tongue)
  3. Pharyngeal tonsils (posterior nasopharynx)
  4. Tubal tonsils (surround auditory tube)
219
Q

What is the function of MALT?

A

A defense against invading organisms. Contain crypts that trap bacteria.

220
Q

What are the seven (7) steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Chemotaxis and adherence of microbe to phagocyte.
  2. Ingestion of microbe by phagocyte.
  3. Formation of phagosome.
  4. Fusion of phagosome with lysosome forming phagolysosome.
  5. Digestion of ingested microbe by enzymes.
  6. Formation of residual body containing indigestible materials.
  7. Discharge of waste materials.

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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