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Anatomy and Physiology > Test 3 Nervous System > Flashcards

Test 3 Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the initial conditions for an action potential and who sets them up? (two conditions)

A

Na+/K+ ATPase creates two gradients

  1. chemical; Na+ on outside and K+ on inside
  2. electrical; 3 cations are pumped out and only 2 cations are pumped in, making cell negative (around -70 mV)
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2
Q

What are two ways that ions move?

A
  1. chemical gradient; Na+ wants to move in and K+ wants to move out
  2. electrical gradient; both cations want to move inside HOWEVER chemical&raquo_space;> electrical, so K+ will still move out but electrical gradient will slow rate of exit
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3
Q

What are four (4) types of ion channels?

A

voltage-gated: opens in response to the cells Vm
ligand-gated: the gate opens when a chemical binds
mechanogated: force, like a sound wave, opens gate
leak: small channels open all of the time

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4
Q

What happens to a cell when ions do move?

A

Vm of cell changes.

When Na+ enters, Vm moves positively
When K+ leaves, Vm moves negatively

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5
Q

How does fast signaling occur between cells?

A

Voltage of the membrane is changed back and forth (+ and -) rapidly by alternatingly letting Na+ enter and K+ leave. The alternating positive and negative current is called an action potential.

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6
Q

(3 factors) How do you get various strength of input?

A

to get a stronger synapse:

  1. increase proximity of synapse to axon hillock
  2. increase width of dendrite
  3. increase amount of neurotransmitter
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7
Q

How do you get “pros” and “cons”

A

Pros: make Vm positive by letting Na+ in

Cons: make Vm negative by letting K+ out or Cl- in

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8
Q

(3 ways) Reuptake of neurotransmitters

A

Enough nt is released to stimulate every receptor once and only once

  1. reuptake (SSRI)
  2. enzymatic breakdown
  3. diffusion
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9
Q

What are two types of synaptic transmission?

A
  1. inhibitory post-synaptic potential - Cl- is let in or K+ let out
  2. excitatory post-synaptic potential - Na+ is let in
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9
Q

Organization of Nervous System

A

I. Central Nervous System

a. Brain and spinal cord
b. integration and command center

II. Peripheral nervous system

a. Sensory (afferent) division
- sensory afferent fibers (skin, muscles, joints)
- visceral afferent fibers (visceral organs to brain)
b. Motor (efferent) division
i. Somatic nervous system
- conscious control of skeletal muscles
ii. Autonomic
- sympathetic (fight or flight)
- parasympathetic (rest & digest)

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10
Q

Three basic functions of brain

A
  1. sensory input
  2. integration
  3. motor output
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11
Q

Two principal cell types of nervous system

A
  1. Neurons - excitable cells that transmit electrical signals
  2. Glia - supporting cells that surround and wrap neurons
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12
Q

6 types of Glia

A

CNS

  1. astrocytes
  2. microglia
  3. ependymal cells
  4. oligodendrocytes

PNS

  1. Schwann Cells
  2. Satellite cells
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13
Q

What is most abundant glial cell?

A

Astrocytes

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14
Q

Four Astrocyte functions

A
  1. Support neurons like scaffold (they are highly branches)
  2. Control chemical environment (clean up ions and neurotransmitters)
  3. Bridge between neurons and blood vessels
  4. Guide migration of young neurons
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16
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

Brain’s immune system - small, ovoid phagocytes with spiny processes

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17
Q

What is the function of Ependymal cells?

A

Line ventricles of brain and spinal column

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18
Q

What is the function of Oligodendrocytes?

A

branched cells that wrap CNS nerve fibers

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19
Q

What is the function of Schwann cells?

A

surround fibers of PNS

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20
Q

What is the function of satellite cells?

A

surround neuron cell bodies forming ganglion, clusters of nerve cells

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21
Q

Four (4) characteristics of Neurons

A
  1. Long-lived
  2. Amitotic
  3. High metabolic rate
  4. intercellular communication
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21
Q

What makes neurons amitotic?

A

Contain no centrioles

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22
Q

Four (4) structural parts of Neuron

A
  1. Soma (axon hillock)
  2. Dendrite
  3. Axon
  4. Synapse
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23
Q

How are electrical signals conveyed in dendrites of motor neurons?

A

Graded potentials

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25
Q

What are four (4) characteristics of the structure of axons?

A
  1. slender, uniform diameter arising from hillock
  2. long axons are called nerve fibers
  3. rare branches, if present, called collaterals.
  4. branches at end called axonal terminal
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26
Q

What are three (3) functions of the myelin sheath?

A

whitish, fatty (protein-lipoid)

  1. protect axon
  2. insulate fibers from one another
  3. increase speed of transmission
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27
Q

Describe the composition of gray matter and where is it located?

A

mostly soma and unmyelinated fibers
brain- outside
spinal cord - inside

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28
Q

Describe the composition of white matter and where is it located?

A

dense collections of myelinated fibers (axons)

brain - inside
spinal cord - outside

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29
Q

What are three (3) classifications of neuron by structure?

A
  1. multipolar - three or more processes
  2. unipolar - single, short process
  3. bipolar - two processes (axon and dendrite)
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30
Q

What are three (3) classifications of neuron by function?

A
  1. motor (efferent) carry impulses away from CNS
  2. interneurons (association) shuttle signals through CNS pathways
  3. sensory (afferent) transmit impulses toward CNS. smell and sight use bipolar
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31
Q

What are four (4) chemical species that generate potential difference (voltage)?

A

Na+, K+, Cl-, protein anions

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32
Q

What are two (2) causes ionic differences in membrane?

A
  1. differential permability of the neurilemma (neuron membrane) to Na+ and K+
  2. operation of sodium-potassium pump
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33
Q

What are four (4) key membrane potentials for an action potential?

A
  1. -70 mV - resting membrane potetial
  2. -55 mV - Na+ channel open
  3. +30 mV - K+ channels open
  4. -90 mV - hyperpolarization
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33
Q

When does relative refractory period occur? (3 associated events)

A

Interval following absolute refractory period when

  1. sodium gates closed
  2. potassium gates open
  3. repolarization is occurring
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34
Q

What is the Absolute refractory period description and what are three (3) consequences?

A

Time from opening of Na+ to closing

  1. prevents neuron from generating action potential
  2. ensures that each action potential is separate
  3. enforces one-way transmission of nerve impulses
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35
Q

Why can action potential be generated during relative refractory period?

A

Even though potassium channels are open, a strong stimuli will let in enough sodium to generate action potential.

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37
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Comes from latin saltare “to hop”

Current passes through myelinated axon only at nodes of Ranvier.

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38
Q

What are three (3) characteristics of saltatory conduction

A
  1. voltage gated Na+ channels are concentrated at anodes
  2. action potentials are triggered only at nodes
  3. action potentials jump from node to node, making conduction faster
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39
Q

What are four (4) characteristics of graded potentials

A
  1. short-lived local changes jn membrane potential
  2. decrease in intensity with distance
  3. magnitude varies directly with strength of stimulus
  4. sufficiently strong graded potentials can initiate action potentialsp
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39
Q

Two characteristics of electrical synapses

A
  1. less common than chemical synapses

2. correspond to gap junctions found in other cell types

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40
Q

Two types of synaptic neurons

A
  1. Presynaptic neuron - conducts impulses toward the synapse

2. postsynaptic neuron - transmits impulses away from the synapse

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41
Q

Two components of chemical synapse

A
  1. axonal terminal of presynaptic neuron - contains synaptic vesicles
  2. receptor regions on dendrite/soma of postsynaptic neuron
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42
Q

Four areas of CNS electrical synapses are important

A

SHAME

  1. arousal from Sleep
  2. ion and water Homeostasis
  3. mental Attention
  4. Memory
  5. Emotions
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43
Q

Four steps of information transfer in synaptic cleft

A
  1. Axon terminal reaches +30 mV
  2. Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open
  3. Ca2+ enters and binds to neurotransmitter vesicles.
  4. Neurotransmitter released and interacts with postsynaptic receptors.
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44
Q

3 effects of neurotransmitter on receptor

A
  1. produces a continuous postsynaptic effect
  2. blocks reception of additional “messages”
  3. must be removed from receptor by RED (reuptake, enzyme, diffusion)
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45
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

chemicals used for neuronal communication with the body and the brain

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46
Q

how many neurotransmitters have been identified and how are they classified?

A

50 different neurotransmitters.

Classified chemically and functionally

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47
Q

5 examples of Neurotransmitters

A
  1. Acetylcholine (ACh)
  2. Biogenic amines
  3. Amino acids
  4. Peptides
  5. Novel messengers: ATP and dissolved NO and CO
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48
Q

Where is Acetylcholine found? (CNS and PNS)

A

CNS: motor cortex
PNS: neuromuscular junctions @ skeletal muscle

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49
Q

Three examples of Catecholamines

A
  1. dopamine
  2. norepinephrine (NE)
  3. epinephrine
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50
Q

Is acetylcholine excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Both

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51
Q

Two examples of Indolamines

A
  1. serotonin

2. histamine

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52
Q

Catecholamines and Indolamines belong to what chemical classification?

A

Biogenic Amines

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53
Q

temporal summation

A

presynaptic neurons transmit impulses transmit in rapidly to build EPSP up to threshold

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54
Q

spatial summation

A

postsynaptic neuron is stimulated by a large number of neurons at the same time

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55
Q

Two types of circuits in neuronal pools

A

divergent - one incoming fiber stimulates ever increasing number of fibers, amplifying circuits

convergent - many incoming fibers stimulate one fiber, resulting in strong stimulation or strong inhibition

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56
Q

Symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A

visual disturbances, weakness, loss of muscular control, urinary incontinence

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57
Q

cause of multiple sclerosis

A

autoimmune attack on myelin sheaths and nerve fibers are severed

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58
Q

Five drugs used to treat MS and three things they do

A
  1. interferon beta-1a
  2. interferon beta-1b
  3. Avonex
  4. Betaseran
  5. Copazone

Hold symptoms at bay, reduce
complications, reduce disability

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59
Q

Two structures of Forebrain

A

Cerebrum and Diencephalon

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60
Q

4 parts of Cerebrum

A
  1. Cerebral hemispheres
  2. cerebral cortex
  3. white matter
  4. basal nuclei
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61
Q

when does nervous system start developing?

A

3 weeks, finishes first stage at 5 weeks

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62
Q

Four ventricles and where they are found

A

1&2. paired C shaped lateral ventricles

  1. third ventricle in Diencephalon
  2. fourth ventricle in hind brain dorsal to pons
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63
Q

gyri

A

ridges in cerebral hemisphere

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64
Q

sulci

A

shallow grooves in cerebral hemispheres

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65
Q

fissures

A

deep grooves in cerebral hemisphere

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66
Q

separates cerebral hemispheres

A

longitudinal fissure

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67
Q

five major lobes of cerebral hemisphere

A
  1. frontal
  2. parietal
  3. temporal
  4. occipital
  5. insula (deep under temporal)
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68
Q

separates parietal and occipital lobes

A

parieto-occipital sulcus

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69
Q

separates parietal and temporal lobes

A

lateral sulcus

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70
Q

regions that border central sulcus

A

precentral gyrus and postcentral gyrus

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71
Q

three basic regions of cerebral hemispheres

A

cortex (gray matter), white matter, basal nuclei

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72
Q

Five things cerebral cortex enables you to do

A
  1. sensation
  2. communication
  3. memory
  4. understanding
  5. voluntary movements
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73
Q

contralateral (in brain)

A

left hemisphere controls right side of body

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74
Q

do any functional areas act alone?

A

no. conscious behavior involves entire cortex

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75
Q

three functional areas of cerebral cortex

A
  1. sensory - conscious awarenesss of sensation
  2. association areas - integrate diverse information
  3. motor areas - control voluntary movement
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76
Q

Four motor areas of cerebral cortex

A
  1. primary (somatic) motor cortex
  2. premotor cortex
  3. Broca’s area
  4. Frontal eye field
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77
Q

location of primary motor cortex

A

in the precentral gyrus

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78
Q

two functions of primary motor cortex

A

allows conscious control of precise, skilled, voluntary movements.

actually signals muscles

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79
Q

premotor cortex location

A

anterior to precentral gyrus

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80
Q

two functions of premotor cortex

A

controls learned, repetitious, or patterned motor skills

involved in the planning of movements

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81
Q

Broca’s area location

A

located anterior to he inferior region of premotor area

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82
Q

Two functions of Broca’s area

A

directs muscles of tongue (motor speech)

allows you to actually say words

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83
Q

Frontal Eye field location

A

anterior to premotor cortex and superior to Broca’s area

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84
Q

Frontal Eye Field function

A

controls voluntary eye movement

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85
Q

Four sensory areas of cerebral cortex

A
  1. primary somatosensory cortex
  2. somatosensory association cortex
  3. visual and auditory areas
  4. olfactory, gustatory, and vestibular cortices
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86
Q

primary somatosensory cortex location

A

located in postcentral gyrus

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87
Q

two functions of primary somatosensory cortex

A

receives information from the skin and skeletal muscles

exhibits spatial discrimination

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88
Q

somatosensory association cortex location

A

posterior to the primary somatosensory cortex

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89
Q

three functions of somatosensory association cortex

A
  1. integrates sensory information
  2. forms comprehensive understanding of the stimulus
  3. determines size, texture and relationship of parts
90
Q

primary visual cortex location

A

occipital lobe

91
Q

two functions of primary visual cortex

A
  1. receives visual information from the retinas

2. simple interpretations

92
Q

visual association area location

A

surrounds primary visual cortex

93
Q

function of visual association area

A

interprets visual stimuli (color, form, and movement)

94
Q

primary auditory cortex location

A

superior edge of temporal lobe

95
Q

function of primary auditory cortex

A

interprets pitch, rhythm and loudness

96
Q

auditory association area location

A

posterior to primary auditory cortex

97
Q

function of auditory association area

A

stores memories of sounds and permits perception of sounds

98
Q

Four association areas of cerebral cortex

A
  1. prefrontal cortex
  2. language areas
  3. general (common) interpretation area
  4. visceral association area
99
Q

prefrontal cortex location

A

anterior to premotor cortex (anteriormost portion of brain)

100
Q

9 functions of prefrontal cortex

A
  1. intellect
  2. cognition
  3. recall
  4. personality
  5. planning
  6. complex ideas
  7. behaviors
  8. concentration/focus
  9. emotions/judgment
101
Q

Two Major language areas and their function

A
  1. Wernicke’s area - involved in sounding out unfamiliar words
  2. Broca’s area - speech preparation and production
102
Q

What is General (Common) Interpretation Area?

A

ill-defined region including parts of temporal, parietal and occipital lobes. found in one hemisphere, usually left

103
Q

what does general (common) interpretation area do? (two things)

A
  1. integrates incoming signals into a single thought

2. processing spatial relationships (outside world, one’s body, sentence structure)

104
Q

location of visceral association area

A

located in the cortex of insula

105
Q

two functions of visceral association area

A
  1. involved in conscious perception of visceral sensations

2. habits

106
Q

which lobe is associated with habits?

A

insula

107
Q

what does lateralization refer to in the brain?

A

each hemisphere has abilities not shared with its partner

108
Q

three abilities of left hemisphere

A

controls language, math and logic

109
Q

three abilities of right hemisphere

A

controls visual-spacial skills, emotion and artistic skills

110
Q

what is cerebral white matter responsible for?

A

communication between cerebral cortex, the lower CNS center and areas of cerebrum

111
Q

what are basal nuclei composed of?

A

gray matter composed of several different groups of cells; substantia nigra and the amygdala.

112
Q

what is considered the master of the motor system?

A

basal ganglia (basal nuclei)

113
Q

what is the brake hypothesis

A

to sit still, the basal ganglia must put the breaks on all movements except those reflexes that maintain an upright posture

114
Q

two categories of deficits of BG

A
  1. presence of extraneous unwanted movements

2. absence or difficulty with intended movements

115
Q

Where is diencephalon located?

A

Central core of the forebrain

116
Q

3 structures of diencephalon

A

All three are paired.

  1. thalamus
  2. hypothalamus
  3. epithalamus
117
Q

Structure of thalamus

A

paired, egg-shaped masses connected at the midline by the intermediate mass

contains many nuclei

118
Q

What is considered the grand central station for sensory information?

A

Thalamus (except smell)

119
Q

Three functions of Thalamus

A
  1. afferent impulses from all senses except olfaction converge and synapse in thalamus
  2. impulses sorted out, edited and relayed as a group
  3. some motor information
120
Q

5 activities thalamus plays a key role in

A
  1. mediating sensation
  2. motor activities
  3. cortical arousal
  4. learning
  5. memory
121
Q

What structure helps you hear your name in a crowd?

A

Thalamus (picks out important sensory information)

122
Q

3 components of hypothalamus

A
  1. hypothalamic nuclei
  2. mammillary bodies
  3. infundibulum
123
Q

structure of mammillary bodies

A

small, paired nuclei bulging anteriorly from hypothalamus

124
Q

function of mammillary bodies

A

relay station for olfactory pathways

125
Q

structure of infundibulum

A

stalk of hypothalamus; connects to pituitary gland

126
Q

function of infundibulum

A

main visceral control center of the body

127
Q

8 hypothalamic functions

A
  1. regulates blood pressure
  2. rate and force of heartbeat
  3. digestive tract motility
  4. rate and depth of breathing
  5. perception of pleasure, fear and rage.
  6. controls mechanisms that maintain body temperature
  7. regulate feelings of hunger and satiety
  8. regulate sleep and sleep cycle.
128
Q

Two endocrine functions of Hypothalamus

A
  1. releases hormones that control secretion by anterior pituitary
  2. posterior pituitary releases ADH and oxytocin
129
Q

Two structures of Epithalamus

A
  1. pineal gland - secretes melatonin

2. choroid plexus - secretes cerebral spinal fluid

130
Q

three regions of brain stem

A
  1. midbrain
  2. pons
  3. medulla oblongata
131
Q

how does brain stem differ from spinal cord

A

brain stem contains embedded nuclei

132
Q

two functions of brain stem

A
  1. controls automatic behaviors necessary for survival (respiration, heart rate, etc.)
  2. provides pathway for tracts between higher and lower brain centers
133
Q

how many cranial nerves is brain stem associated with?

A

10 of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves

134
Q

Where is midbrain located?

A

Between diencephalon (thalamus) and pons.

135
Q

Two structures of midbrain

A
  1. cerebral peduncles

2. cerebral aqueduct

136
Q

function of cerebral aqueduct

A

hollow tube that connects third and fourth ventricles - circulates cerebral spinal fluid

137
Q

What is the corpora quadrigemina?

A

four dome like protrusions of dorsal midbrain (2 paired colliculi)

called midbrain nuclei

138
Q

function of superior colliculi

A

visual reflex centers

139
Q

function of inferior colliculi

A

auditory reflex centers

140
Q

location of pons

A

bulging brainstem region between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata

141
Q

Two functions of the fibers of the Pons

A
  1. connect higher brain centers and the spinal cord

2. relay impulses between the motor cortex and the cerebellum

142
Q

where is the Reticular Formation located?

A

the Pons

143
Q

Where is the Medulla Oblongata located?

A

most inferior part of the brain stem?

144
Q

What occurs at the decussation of the pyramids of medulla oblongata?

A

Contralateral crossover occurs

145
Q

Two Medulla nuclei

A
  1. cardiovascular control center - force and heart rate

2. respiratory centers - control rate and depth of breathing

146
Q

What is the most primitive part of brain (“reptiliam brain”)?

A

the brainstem

147
Q

location of cerebellum

A

located dorsal to the pons and medulla. posteriormost part of brain

148
Q

what percent of brains mass does cerebellum account for?

A

11%

149
Q

function of cerebellum

A

coordination - precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction

150
Q

Four steps of Cerebellar Processing

A
  1. Cerebellum receives impulses of intent to initiate voluntary muscle contraction
  2. proprioceptors and visual signals “inform” cerebellum of the body’s conditions
  3. cerebellar cortex calculate best way to perform a movement
  4. a “blueprint” of coordinated movement is sent to cerebral motor cortex
151
Q

What cognitive functions does cerebellum play a role in?

A

any activity that requires sequential planning:
problem solving, language, chess etc.

recognized and predicts sequences of events

152
Q

Why do you become ataxic from alcohol?

A

Cerebellum is not well protected so coordination is easily affected

153
Q

Three main parts of limbic system

A
  1. amygdala
  2. cingulate gyrus
  3. hippocampus
154
Q

function of amygdala

A

deals with anger, danger and fear responses. also plays role in memory

155
Q

In the first moments of pain or trauma, what assessments can amygdala make?

A
  1. This is real. I must take action.

2. This is a false alarm. Laughter can defuse situation.

156
Q

7 functions of cingulate gyrus

A
  1. shifting of attention
  2. cognitive flexibility
  3. adaptability
  4. helps mind move between ideas
  5. gives ability to see options
  6. helps you go with the flow
  7. cooperation
157
Q

What does Reticular Formation do?

A

controls brain arousal by sending out repeated electrical “jolts”

158
Q

Retiular Formation makes axonal connections with what 4 structures?

A
  1. hypothalamus
  2. thalamus
  3. cerebellum
  4. spinal cord
159
Q

What are brain waves?

A

Unique pattern of neuronal electrical activity recorded by Electroencephalogram (EEG)

160
Q

6 conditions an EEG can be used to diagnose

A
  1. brain lesions
  2. tumors
  3. infarcts (clot)
  4. infections
  5. abscesses
  6. epileptic lesions
161
Q

In what percentage of population does epilepsy occur?

A

1%

162
Q

Two main classifications of seizures

A
  1. partial, involved in only a part of the brain

2. generalized, where the seizure spreads to entire brain

163
Q

Three layers of protection of brain

A
  1. skull (bone)
  2. three layers of meninges
  3. cerebrospinal fluid
164
Q

what protects brain from harmful chemical substances?

A

blood-brain barrier

165
Q

3 connective tissue meninges

A
  1. dura mater
  2. arachnoid mater
  3. pia mater
166
Q

Four functions of meninges

A
  1. cover and protect CNS
  2. protect blood vessels and enclose venous sinuses
  3. contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  4. form partitions within the skull
167
Q

description of dura mater

A

leathery, strong meninx composed of two fibrous connective tissue layers

168
Q

what separates dura mater and arachnoid mater?

A

subdural space

169
Q

what lies beneath arachnoid mater?

A

subarachnoid space filled with CSF and large blood vessels

170
Q

What do arachnoid villi do?

A

Protrude superiorly and permit CSF to be absorbed into venous blood

171
Q

description of pia mater

A

deep meninx composed of delicate connective tissue that clings tightly to the brain

172
Q

4 functions of cerebrospinal fluid

A
  1. forms liquid cushion that gives buoyancy to CSF organs
  2. prevents brain from crushing under its own weight
  3. protects the CNS from blows and other trauma
  4. nourishes brain and carries chemical signals throughout it
173
Q

cerebrospinal fluid composition

A

watery solution similar to plasma but contains less protein and different ion concentrations

174
Q

structure of choroid plexus

A

clusters of capillaries that form tissue fluid filters and hang from roof of each ventricle

175
Q

Two functions of choroid plexuses

A
  1. ion pumps allow them to alter ion concentrations of CSF

2. remove waste from CSF

176
Q

Three components of blood brain barrier

A
  1. continuous endothelium of capillary walls
  2. relatively thick basal lamina
  3. bulbous feet of astrocytes
177
Q

Where is blood brain barrier absent?

A

vomiting center and hypothalamus. so they can monitor chemical composition of blood

178
Q

what is stress’s affect in blood-brain barrier?

A

stress increases ability of chemical to permeate

179
Q

what causes a stroke?

A

blood circulation to brain is blocked and brain tissue dies

180
Q

three common causes of stroke

A
  1. blockage of cerebral artery
  2. compression of the brain by hemorrhage of edema
  3. atherosclerosis
181
Q

what is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

temporary episode of reversible cerebral ischemia

182
Q

what is the only approved treatment for stroke?

A

tissue plasminogen activator

183
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

a progressive degenerative disease that results in dementia

184
Q

what is Parkinson’s disease?

A

degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons of substantia nigra

185
Q

what is Huntington’s disease?

A

a fatal hereditary disorder caused by accumulation of the protein huntingtin that leads to degeneration of basal nuclei

186
Q

CNS tissue of spinal cord spans what vertabrae?

A

foramen magnum to L1

187
Q

what protects spinal cord?

A

vertebral column (bone), meninges and CSF

188
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

189
Q

What are cervical and lumbar enlargements?

A

sites of spinal cord where nerves serving upper and lower limbs emerge

190
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal

191
Q

What 3 things does the gray matter of spinal cord consist of?

A
  1. soma
  2. unmyelinated processes
  3. neuroglia
192
Q

what is contained in posterior (dorsal) horns of spinal cord?

A

interneurons

193
Q

what is contained in anterior (ventral) horns of spinal cord?

A

interneurons and somatic motor neurons

194
Q

what is contained in lateral horns of spinal cord?

A

sympathetic nerve fibers

195
Q

What part of PNS is located in dorsal half of spinal cord?

A

sensory roots and ganglia

196
Q

what part of PNS is contained in ventral half of spinal cord?

A

motor roots

197
Q

What four zones are evident within the gray matter of spinal cord?

A
  1. somatic sensory (SS)
  2. visceral sensory (VS)
  3. visceral motor (VM)
  4. somatic motor (SM)
198
Q

Where do dorsal and ventral roots of spinal cord fuse?

A

Laterally to form spinal nerves

199
Q

Three ascending pathways of spinal cord

A
  1. non-specific
  2. specific
  3. spinocerebellar
200
Q

function of non-specific ascending pathway

A

pain, temperature and crude touch

201
Q

function of specific ascending pathway

A

normal touch

202
Q

function of spinocerebellar tracts (ascending pathway)

A

send impulses to cerebellum, do not contribute to sensory perception

203
Q

Four steps of Direct (Pyramidal) System

A
  1. originate with pyramidal neurons of precentral gyrus
  2. impulses sent through corticospinal tracts to anterior horns
  3. stimulation of anterior horn neurons activates skeletal muscles
  4. regulates fast and fine (skilled) movements
204
Q

Extrapyramidal system (descending pathway) controls what movements?

A
  1. axial muscles that maintain balance and posture
  2. coarse movements of proximal portions of limbs
  3. head, neck and eye movement
205
Q

What is paralysis?

A

loss of motor function

206
Q

what is flaccid paralysis?

A

severe damage to ventral root or anterior horn cells. results in muscle atrophy

207
Q

what is spastic paralysis?

A

only upper motor neurons of primary motor cortex are damaged. intact spinal neurons stimulated irregularly. no voluntary movement

208
Q

paraplegia

A

transection between T1 and L1

209
Q

quadriplegia

A

transection in cervical region

210
Q

what is poliomyelitis (polio)?

A

destruction of the anterior horn motor neurons by poliovirus

211
Q

early symptoms of poliomyelitis

A

fever, headache, muscle pain and weakness, loss of somatic reflexes

212
Q

Whats the scientific name of Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

213
Q

What is ALS?

A

neuromuscular condition involving destruction of anterior horn motor neurons and fibers of the pyramidal tract

214
Q

Symptoms of Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

loss of the ability to speak, swallow and breathe

215
Q

Define sensory input

A

monitoring stimuli inside and outside body

216
Q

Define integration [neurology]

A

interpretation of sensory input

217
Q

Define motor output [neurology]

A

response to stimuli by activating effector organs

218
Q

How is acetylcholine removed?

A

degraded by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

219
Q

How is nerve gas related to neurotransmitters?

A

prolonged ACh effects

220
Q

How is Alzheimer’s related to neurotransmitters?

A

low levels of Ach

221
Q

How are Botulinum toxins related to neurotransmitters?

A

prevent Ach release from presynaptic neuron

222
Q

How is snake venom related to neurotransmitters?

A

blocks Ach receptors

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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