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Physiology > Test 4 Review > Flashcards

Test 4 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Tyrosine kinase receptors have been implicated in?

A

causing cancer

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2
Q

What are the two inactive monomers of the Tyrosine Kinase receptor?

A

outer surface of cell membrane for ligand binding

in cytoplasm for catylitic or enzymatic domain

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3
Q

What are the steps in the Tyrosine Kinase pathway?

A
  • growth factor binds to domain (2 needed)
  • monomers dimerize
  • autophoshorylation of catayltic domain on one monomer
  • Phosphorylation of tyrosine at 2nd monomer, which then phosphorylated the first
  • enzymatic activity is turned on
  • catayltic domain phosphorylated tyrodine residue of proteins
  • signal proteins will activate metabolic pathways that can activate 10+ signal proteins simultaneously
  • Protein phsphatase reverses action of kinase
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4
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

the underneath of the hypthalamus

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5
Q

The posterior pituitary directly connects to the

A

hypothalamus

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6
Q

What are the two lobes of the pituitary?

A

anterior (adenohyphysis0

posterior (neurohyphysis)

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7
Q

the notochord provides?

A

skeletal support

release of growth factors

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8
Q

The stomodeum is the?

A

mouth region of the body

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9
Q

Trophic hormones mean?

A

to feed

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10
Q

Growth hormones (Somatoptrophin) do what?

A

control tissue and organ growth

stimulates cell to take in more amino acids

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11
Q

Thyroid stimulating hormone (thyrotropin) does what?

A

goes into thyroid gland and causes secretion of glucocorticoids

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12
Q

Adrenocortiotropic hormone (corticotropin) does what?

A

goes to the adrenal cortex and secretes corticosteroids that in turn secrete glucocorticoids for metabolism of glucose

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13
Q

Follicle stimulating Hormones (FSH or folliculotropin0 does what?

A

stimulates ovary follicle developement

follicle then produces egg which produces estrogren

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14
Q

Lutenizing hormone (LH or Lutropin) does what?

A

Triggers ovulation in females
-development of corpus luteum

In males acts on specific interstial cells is testies

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15
Q

Prolactin (PRL) does what?

A

stimulated milk production after childbirth

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16
Q

PP does not produce any __________ but secretes two ___________.

A

hormones, but secretes two hormones

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17
Q

Where is PP produced?

A

in the supraoptic nucleus and the paraventricular nucleus in hypothalamus

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18
Q

What is Anti-diruetic hormone?

A

causes kindneys to retain water

increased concentrations of ADH cause higher urine concentration, small volume and bright yellow in color

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19
Q

What causes the secretion of ADH?

A
  • osmotic pressure of blood triggers ADH release
  • secretion inhibited by stretch receptors in the left atrium of heart
  • increased stretching triggers the inhibition of ADH
  • alcohol consumption causes inhbition of ADH
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20
Q

Vasopressin causes?

A

high doeses can cause vasoconstriction and an increase of BP

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21
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

in females it causes contractions of uterus during childbirth and milk ejection

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22
Q

What is the sensory input of oxytocin?

A

sucking

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23
Q

Where does oxytocin work?

A

on the smooth muscle of mammary glands, causing contractions

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24
Q

AP/AH is acted on by the?

A

hypothalamus

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25
Q

The hepatic portal vein connects?

A

blood from small intestine to liver

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26
Q

The hypothalamus uses hormones to?

A

cause release or inhibition of AH/AP

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27
Q

The median eminence is?

A

the capillary bed in hypthalamus that receives hormones from the neurons of hypothalamus

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28
Q

Thyrotropin realeasing hormone (TRH) releases?

A

TSH

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29
Q

coricotropin releasing hormones (CRH) releases

A

ACTH

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30
Q

gonadotropin releasing hormone (GNRH) releases?

A

FSH and LH

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31
Q

growth hormone releasing hormone releases?

A

GH

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32
Q

Somatostatin does what?

A

inhibits AH secretion

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33
Q

what is an example of Protein inhibiting hormone

A

dopamine

which inhibits prolactin secretion

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34
Q

Surgical removal of target glands will change what?

A

the pattern of secretion of the hypothalamus and AH/AP

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35
Q

After castration, what occurs?

A

high release of gonadotropin releasing hormone and GH

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36
Q

An example of positive feedback inhibition would be?

A

menstrual cycle

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37
Q

What are two hormones released by the medulla of adrenal glands?

A

80% epinephrine

20% norepinephrine

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38
Q

The adrenal cortex contains no?

A

innervation

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39
Q

What does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A

ACTH (corticosteroids)

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40
Q

What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fascuilata
Zona Reticularis

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41
Q

What is secreted by the Zona Glomerulosa?

A

secretes mineralcorticoids which regulate electrolytes in blood

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42
Q

What is secreted by the Zona Fasciulata?

A

Glucocorticoids that work in glucose metabolism

DO NOT REG. BLOOD GLUCOSE

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43
Q

What is secreted by the Zona Reticuularis?

A

Secretes small amount of sex steroids

-these weak androgens are pre-hormones

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44
Q

What is the primary mineralcoriticoid secreted by the Zona Glomerulosa?

A

Aldosterone

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45
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Acts on kidney to reabsorb water and salt from filtrate
raises B.V. and B.P
excretes K+

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46
Q

Over secretion of K+ can cause?

A

hyperkalemia-which is an increase of K+ in blood that can depolarize the heart cells causing death because of lack of contraction

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47
Q

The renin Angiotensin Aldosterone mechanism located in Zona Glomerulosa does what?

A
  • Under low BP/Vol. kidney produces renin which triggers angiotensin
  • increases BP
  • acts on adrenal cortex to trigger Aldosterone secretions
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48
Q

What triggers the glucocorticoids from the Zona Fasciulata?

A

ACTH

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49
Q

Cortisol (Hydrocortizone) from Zona Fasciulata does what?

A

Conserves Glucose by restricting entry into cells
stimulates lipolysis
stimulates gluconeogenisis
causes immmune suppression

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50
Q

What is Cushings disease?

A

Hyper secretion of corticosteroids

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51
Q

What is the precursor to all corticosteroids?

A

Cholesterol

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52
Q

Hyper Glycemia is?

A

increase in blood glucose

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53
Q

People with Cushing’s Disease exhibit?

A 
Hyperglycemia
Hypertension
Muscle Weakness
Puffy appearance 
Moon shaped face
Buffalo like hump in back
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54
Q

What causes the buffalo like hump in people with Cushings disease?

A

Prednisone

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55
Q

What is Addingson’s Diease?

A

Na+ and K+ imbalances which causes low aldosterone

  • rapid weight loss
  • fatal if untreated but can be treated with oral supp.
  • hypoglycemia occurs
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56
Q

The thyroid gland exhibits only what type of function?

A

endocrine

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57
Q

What is the thyroid gland made of?

A

thyroid follicles that contain a colloid suspension.

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58
Q

What type of cells line the colloid suspension and secrete colloid

A

simple cubodial epithelium

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59
Q

Parafollicular cells secrete?

A

Calcotonin

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60
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A
  • kidneys reabsorb less Ca2+ from filtrate

- inhibites osteoclasts that dissolve the bone and sacrifice your skeleton

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61
Q

Ca2+ is very important (In regards to calcitonin)?

A

Exoxytosis or NTs

Muscle contraction

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62
Q

The two thyroid hormones T3 and T4 act on?

A

Thyroid follicles

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63
Q

What do thyroid follicles do?

A

Remove Iodine from the blood and combine this iodine with Tyrosine to form Thyroglobulin

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64
Q

MIT stands for?

A

monoiodotyrosine

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65
Q

DIT stands for?

A

Diodotyrosine

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66
Q

T3 is made of?

A

MIT and DIT

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67
Q

T4 is made of?

A

DIT and DIT

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68
Q

TSH causes cells of the follicle to?

A

undergo endocytosis, taking up thyroglobulin attached to T3 and 4 and cleaving off thyroglobulin which releases T3 and T4 into blood

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69
Q

Genomic action is?

A

protein synthesis which promotes maturation of NS and Basal metabolic rate

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70
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyrodism?

A
  • Hot
  • little sleep, very active
  • increased HR and quick reflexes
  • Frequent bowel movements
  • Weight loss
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71
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyrodism?

A
  • cold
  • Tired, need alot of sleep
  • depression
  • low HR, slow reflexes
  • constipation
  • low appetite, weight gain
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72
Q

What is Goiter?

A

Enlarged thyroid gland

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73
Q

What are the two different types of Goiter?

A
  • Endemic (from iodine deficency)

- Graves disease (tyrotoxicosis)

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74
Q

What element is ness. for production of Thyroxine?

A

Iodine

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75
Q

When there is not enough idodine in the diet, what happens?

A
  • no negative feedback
  • high levels of TRH and TSH
  • Thyroid expands enormously resulting in goiter
  • hypothyroid symptoms
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76
Q

Grave’s disease is caused by?

A

autoimmune disease from and unknown pathogen

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77
Q

What happens in Grave’s disease?

A

immune system produces anti-bodies that attach to pathogen marking it for destruction, but also attach to cells of thyroid
-effects similar to TSH and hyperthyroidism

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78
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands

A

2 small yellowish masses embedded in back of thyroid gland

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79
Q

What do parathyroid glands secrete? What does it do?

A

Produces Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

  • antagonistic to calcitonin
  • increases Ca2+ in blood
  • kidneys pull Ca2+ from filtrate
  • osteoclast cells dissolve bone
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80
Q

What activates parathyroid hormone?

A

Decreasing Blood Ca2+

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81
Q

A spongy, airy organ located in the loop off the duodem that has both exocrine and endocrine fuctions is the?

A

pancreas

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82
Q

What does the pancreatic duct do?

A

releases secretions into the duodenem

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83
Q

Melatonin is made from ___________, and is similar to ________.

A

tryptophan; serotonin

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84
Q

What inhibits the secretion of serotonin?

A

light

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85
Q

What gland secretes melatonin?

A

pineal

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86
Q

What is the purpose of melatonin?

A

1) Entrains circadian rythmns

2) Entrains photoperiodism

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87
Q

What is photoperiodism?

A

A response to a change in day length

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88
Q

Antigonadotrophic means?

A

Melatonin is inhibiting gonads from producing sex hormones and gametes

This is why animals breed in the spring because less melatonin so gonads are not as inhibited

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89
Q

The placenta is responsible for ?

A

an exchange of materals between the mother and fetus

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90
Q

The testes are?

A

hollow organs lined with germinal epithelium called seminiferous tubules

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91
Q

Sperm is produced by a process called

A

Miosis

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92
Q

What are the cells located between the seminiferous tubules?

A

Cells of Leydig that produce testosterone

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93
Q

Testosterone is resonsible for?

A

Maintaining integrity of genital organs

development of 2ndary male sex characteristics such as body fat distribution, muscle size, and bone size

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94
Q

Where does FSH act on males?

A

acts on the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm

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95
Q

What are the different estrogens?

A

Estradoil 17 beta
Estriol
Estrone

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96
Q

Estradoil 17 beta is.

A

principle estrogen made by ovaries after puberty and until menopause

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97
Q

Estriol is?

A

made during pregnancy by the placenta

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98
Q

Estrone is?

A

made after menopause by fat cells

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99
Q

What influences follical to develop?

A

FSH influences follice to develop by undergoing meiosis to mature graphian follicle

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100
Q

The graphian follicle does what in regards to the egg?

A

Bursts and releases the future egg in a process called ovulation

101
Q

What is the time period between ovulation and when an egg can be fertilized?

A

72 hours

102
Q

If the egg is not fertilized within 72 hours what occurs?

A

it disintegrates

103
Q

The remains of the graphian follicle then become the?

A

corpus lutem

104
Q

Corpus Lutems produce?

A

progesterone and Estradiol 17 beta

105
Q

the surface of the uterus is called the?

A

perimetrium

106
Q

The middle of the uterus is called?

A

the myometrium

107
Q

The inner surface of the uterus is called the?

A

Endometrium

108
Q

What is the smooth muscle that contracts during childbirth?

A

the myometrium

109
Q

The single layer of cells called the Stratum Basalis undergoes mitotic division to form thicker layers of cells called?

A

Stratum Functionalis

110
Q

Where does the embryo plant when pregnant?

A

into the stratum functionalis

111
Q

If no pregnancy occurs, what layer of the uterus is shed?

A

the stratum functionalis during menstration

112
Q

Ovulation occuring on day 14 on the menstrual cycle involves the?

A

release of ovum from ovary into peritoneal cavity surrounded by a halo of follicle cells

113
Q

What structure help draw egg into the fallopian tube?

A

Fimbriae

114
Q

Etopic pregnancy involves the?

A

fertilized egg implanting in the falopian tube

115
Q

Etopic pregancies may be more common in someone who had untreated syphillis, why?

A

Because of the scarring of the fallopian tubes

Endometriosis also increases chances of etopic pregnancies

116
Q

Where is the egg fertilized?

A

in upper third of fallopian tube

117
Q

How long does it take the egg to reach the uterus after fertilization?

A

6 days

118
Q

What type of cell forms the embryo’s part of the placenta?

A

Trophoblasts

119
Q

What form’s the mother’s part of the placenta?

A

The mother’s stratum functionalis

120
Q

How long is the menstrual cycle?

A

28 days

121
Q

Menstration occurs from day?

A

1-5

122
Q

What hormones are present during the menstration stage of the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH acts on follicles causing them to develop, and these follicle cells start to secrete Estrogen

123
Q

The proliferation stage occurs in what days of the menstrual cycle?

A

Days 6 to 13

124
Q

What occurs during the proliferation stage of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicles are still growing increasing estrogen
AH/AP are putting out FSH at low levels
Stratum Basalis under estrogen influence grouws a stratum functionalis

125
Q

What day does ovulation occur?

A

Day 14

126
Q

What occurs during ovulation?

A

Grafian Follicle increases estrogen
This critical level of estrogen signals the pituitary gland
Follicle is mature
Surge of LH

127
Q

When the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occur?

A

Days 15-26

128
Q

What occurs during the secretory phase?

A

Development of corpus lutem from folliicle remains in ovary
Surge of LH triggers development
Production of Estrogen and Progesterone occur

129
Q

The production of estrogen and progesterone does what during the secretory phase?

A

1) Inhibits AH/AD from secreting any more FSH and LH (due to possible pregnancy no more follicles develop)
2) Triggers maturation of stratum functionalis

130
Q

Critical levels of estrogen cause critical levels of?

*****

A

LH

131
Q

The pre-menstrual stage of the menstrual cycle occurs?

A

from days 26-28

132
Q

What occurs in the pre-menstrual stage?

A
  • no pregnancy
  • Corpus lutem disintegrates
  • drop in Estrogen and Progesterone
  • AH/AP is no longer inhibited
  • Stratum functionalis is no longer supported and therefor disintegrates and sheds in menstration
133
Q

The placentas Human chorionic gonadotropin supports?

A

the corpus lutem

134
Q

A pro-hormone is?

A

A molecule that is synthesized into final hormone

135
Q

What are the side effects of body builder’s taking testosterone?

A

violence and erectile disfunction

136
Q

Hormones DO NOT accumulate in blood and are?

A

Rapidly removed and targeted by liver cells

137
Q

The Physiological range of concentration of hormones are?

A

normal effects of hormones

138
Q

The Pharmacologial range of concentration of hormones are?

A

Taking hormones as a drug to produce Abnormal effects

139
Q

What is an example of some hormones binding to receptors for other hormones?

A

Estrogen can bind to both estrogen and testosterone receptors due to them being similar in structure

140
Q

Estradiol 17 Beta is manufactured in ovaries from what?

A

testosterone

141
Q

In men, the enzume Aromatase converts testosterone to?

A

Estradiol 17 Beta

142
Q

What are the side effects from the converstion of testosterone to Estradiol 17 beta?

A
  • Bulk up

- Gynecomastia, Testicular Atrophy, Erectile disfunction, Acene, Male pattern baldness, agressive behavior

143
Q

What is upregulation?

A

Exposure of target cells to a hormone results in target cells making more receptors and at a later time a hormone has a larger effect

144
Q

An example of upregulation is?

A

FSH stimulates follicles to develop and upregulate so that the same amount of FSH has a bigger effect later

145
Q

What is downregulation?

A

Target cells have fewer receptors

does not occur in vivo

146
Q

Endometriosis causes?

A

Pain and sterility damage to fallopian tibes

147
Q

Benign prostatichyperhia is able to be treated by?

A

downregulation using GNRH hormone agonist

148
Q

How does treating Benign prostatichyperhia work?

A

GNRH agonists cause downregulation so AH/AP will respond less to GNRH and produce less LH and FSH which in females will relieve endometriosis.
In makes, low LH means low Testosterone and prostate will diminish in size

149
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

Paracrine factors-substances that are released by cells in an organ and act on cells in the same organ

150
Q

Where is Nitric oxide produced?

A

by cells of the endothelium of arteries and veins and acts on smooth muscle to create vasodilation

151
Q

Where are cytokines produced?

A

by the immune system

152
Q

Both nitric oxide and cytokines are examples of?

A

prostaglandins

153
Q

Ulf von Euler thought that prostaglandins were produced where?

A

in the prostate gland

154
Q

NSAIDS are?

A

nonsteroid antinflammation drugs

155
Q

NSAIDS inhibit?

A

cyclooxygenase which provides relief of Pain and fever

156
Q

Cyclooxygenase is a example of a?

A

prostoglandin

157
Q

What are the three isoenzymes of Cyclooxygenase?

A

Cox 1-produced all the time
Cox 2-Inflammation
Cox 3-Only produced in CNS and promotes pain and fever

158
Q

Both celebrex and vioxt are examples of _____ ______ __________ but where removed from the market because of the increased chance of stroke and heart attack and blood clots

A

Cox 2 cyclooxygenase

159
Q

What is an example of a Cox 3 inhibitor?

A

Acetaminophen (tylenol)

Relieves pain and fever but does nothing for inflammation

160
Q

What attaches muscle to bone?

A

Tendons

161
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue in muscles?

A

Epimysium- Muscle surface
Perimysium-Surrounds groups of muscle cells fibers
Endomysium- Delicate and wispy that surrounds individual muscle fibers

162
Q

The surface of bone is a dense connective tissue that is called?

A

the periosteum

163
Q

What connects to the periosteum?

A

the tendon

164
Q

Dark bands of muscle are referred to as?

A

A-bands

165
Q

Light bands of muscle are referred to as?

A

I-bands

166
Q

________ fuse together to make muscle cells.

A

Myoblasts

167
Q

Each individual muscle fiber (cell) has a _______ ______ on it’s surface

A

plasma membrane

168
Q

Muscle plasma membranes are referred to as?

A

sarcolemmas

169
Q

What is the cytoplasm of muscle tissue referred to?

A

Sarcoplasm

170
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells is referred to as?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

171
Q

Myofibrils are divided into repeating structures that are known as?

A

sarcomeres

172
Q

What are the smaller filaments inside sarcomeres called?

A

Myofilaments

173
Q

Thick myofilaments are made of?

A

Myosin

174
Q

Thin myofiliaments are made of?

A

Actin

175
Q

The Z band/disk/line is?

A

At the border attached to thin actin myofilaments

176
Q

A-bands are?

A

thick myosin filaments at the center that are dark in color

177
Q

I-bands are?

A

Light containing only thin actin myofilaments that are in between the Z-disk and the A-band

178
Q

M bands are?

A

at the centers of A bands and are networks of proteins that anchors the myosin in plance

179
Q

The region located in the middle of the A-band that contains only thick myofilaments are called?

A

H-bands

180
Q

What is titin?

A

protein that runs through myosin that allows muscle tissue to relax

181
Q

The elastic recoil of titin does what?

A

Elastic recoil pushes outward when contracting to return to resting length

182
Q

What is the sliding filament theory?

A

Muscle shortens because faciculi shorten because muscle fibers shorten because myofibrils shorten because sarcomeres shorten
sarcomers

183
Q

Myofilaments do NOT ___________ but instead slide past each other.

A

shorten

184
Q

Cross bridges on thick myofilaments can?

A

attach to thin myofilaments

185
Q

When a cross bridge from a thick myofilament attaches to a thin myofilament, it pulls?

A
  • thin myofilament toward M-line
  • Z-disk touch thick myofilament
  • Thin myofilaments overlap at M-line
  • I band shortens and dissapears
  • A band stays the same
  • H band shortens and dissapears
186
Q

If cross bridgges release all at one, the elastic recoil of _______ returns them to resting length.

A

Titin

187
Q

What are cross bridges made of?

A

Myosin

188
Q

What are the two different conformations of cross bridges?

A

Phosphorylated- When cross bridge is cocked

De-phosphorylated-Power stroke occurs when de-phos.

189
Q

What are the two forms of Actin:

A

G Actin=Globular and contains myosin binding site

F Actin=Filamentous and is a whole bunch of G actin bound together

190
Q

Cross bridge has what type of domain, that does what?

A

ATP domain and it hydrolyzes ATP

191
Q

When an ATP molecule binds to a cross bridge, what occurs?

A

It is hydrolyzed into A and P and is phosphorlated which causes a change in conformation, entering into cocked position

192
Q

When the cross bridge binds to Actin it triggers?

A

dephosphorylation which causes change in conformation

193
Q

What does the power stroke do?

A

Pulls actin towards M line, ejecting ADP from ATPase binding domain

194
Q

When fresh ATP binds to cross bridge is causes cross bridge to release?

A

the actin

195
Q

How much does a single cycle of all cross bridges shorten a sacromere and muscle cell?

A

1%

196
Q

To relax a muscle, what needs to be prevented?

A

cross bridge attachment

197
Q

What resembles a rope that lies between the groove between two F actins and blocks myosin binding domains of G actin?

A

Troponin/Tropomyosin

198
Q

Troponin is made of 3 proteins that are:

A 
Troponin C (TNC)
Troponin I (TNI)
Troponin T(TNT)
199
Q

Troponin C (TNC) has?

A

a Ca+ binding site

200
Q

Troponin I, the I stands for?

A

interference and triggers conformational change of troponin that has two conformations:

  • Allows for contraction
  • Prevents contrations
201
Q

Troponin T, the T stands for

A

Tropomyosin

202
Q

If no calcium is present what happens to Tropomyosin?

A

Tropomyosin blocks myosin binding domains of B actin so cross bridges cannot attach

203
Q

Where does calcium bind?

A

Binds to TNC, and causes TNI to change conformation.

When conformation change occurs it essentially pulls tropomyosin rope

204
Q

What is the trigger for muscle contraction?

A

Calcium

205
Q

What is the concentration that Ca+ must be over to allow for muscle to contract?

A

10^6 molar

206
Q

Excitation contraction coupling connects?

A

Action potientials with contraction

207
Q

_______ motor neurons innervate skeletal muscle

A

Somatic

208
Q

In target muscles, how many axons are there?

A

1 long axon

209
Q

How many muscle cells can a single neuron innervate?

A

200 muscle fibers

210
Q

What is the smallest neuron motor unit?

A

23 muscle fibers

211
Q

What is the largest neuron motor unit

A

2,000 muscle fibers

212
Q

Contraction of muscle occurs in a?

A

All of none fashion

213
Q

More forceful contractions are generated not by greater action poteintials but by?

A

More motor neurons

214
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

Where axon contacts the muscle

Sarcolemma closest to the terminal buton edges will have Na+ and K+ voltage gated channels (called Motor end plate)

215
Q

Where does the Ca+ for contraction come from?

A

Most comes from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

216
Q

What are terminal cisternae?

A

Large channels that are located next to or T tubules and are extensions of the sarcolemma that go deep into each muscle fiber

217
Q

Where is the action potential for muscle contraction generated?

A

Motor end plate

muscle cell portion of neuromuscular junction

218
Q

How is action potential generated in the motor end plate?

A

Ach binds to nicotenic receptors and generated an EPSP

it does this by depolarizing the motor end plate to threshold which generates the AP that sweeps sarcolemma

219
Q

What happens as a result of the depolarization of the motor end plate?

A

Ca+ voltage channels open

220
Q

Where does the Ca+ come from that flows into the voltage channels that are opened?

A

the extracellular fluid

221
Q

What are the two release channels that are found in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (mostly terminal cisternae)?

A

1) Mechanically coupled-electrochemical mechanisms

2) Ca+ ligand gated channels-Ca+ binds to these channels and opens them

222
Q

Mechanically coupled-electrochemical mechanisms are physically?

A

attached to Ca+ voltage gated channels

223
Q

After Ca+ enters the cell, what does it bind to?

A

Troponin C

which triggers conformational change which pulls tropomyosin out of myosin building domains of actin

224
Q

The repeated generation of Action potentials, will keep the muscle?

A

contracted

225
Q

To stop muscle contraction what must occur?

A

somatic motor neurons will need to be stopped

226
Q

ATP is needed both for muscle _________ and ______.

A

contraction and relaxation

227
Q

rigor mortis occurs how long after death?

A

3-4 hours

max stiffness ~12hr. after death

228
Q

What exactly is rigor mortis?

A

all muscles are contracted- and stay that way for a while

229
Q

What causes rigor mortis?

A

No oxygen=no ATP synthesis=no muscle relaxation

230
Q

No ATP results in rigor mortis how?

A

because the myofilaments are in locked position because corss bridges cannot de-attach
Ca+ pumps can no longer function

231
Q

When does rigor mortis dissapate?

A

36-48 hours due to bacterial decomposition

232
Q

What dermines max force/tension of a muscle?

A

The length of a muscle

-only optimum length can produce max force

233
Q

What are the innervation ratios?

A

1:23 generate little force but are super precise
Example: extrinsic ocular muscles
1:2000 generate alot of force by not very precise

234
Q

Cell bodies of somatic motor units relate in size how?

A

Small motor units=smaller cell bodies

large motor units=large cell bodies

235
Q

Large motor units are?

A

harder to activate due to their size

236
Q

What is summation?

A

multiple shocks of same amplitude

237
Q

All muscles contain a series of elastic elements called?

A

tendons

238
Q

What has to occur in a tendon before muscle contraction can occur?

A

the slack has to be pulled out of the tendon

239
Q

What is tetanus?

A

A sustained contraction

240
Q

Imcomplete tetanus is?

A

some relaxation due to individual contractions

241
Q

Complete tetanus is?

A

Sustained contraction with no relaxation

242
Q

In vivo-what sustatins a contraction?

A

the asychronous activation of motor units

243
Q

What are the types of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Type 1-slow twitch

Type 2-Fast twitch

244
Q

How quickly does a Type 1 muscle fiber generate max force?

A

in 100ms

245
Q

How quickly does a Type 2 muscle fiber generate max force?

A

in 10ms

246
Q

What is muscle fiber contraction speed?

A

How quickly to max force after stimulus

247
Q

What determines the contraction speed of muscle fibers?

A

Different ATPases

248
Q

Oxidative ATP synthesis in muscle fibers makes the muscle?

A

red, with many mitochondria and myoglobin and well vascularized

~30 ATP per glucose molecule

249
Q

Glycolytic ATP synthesis in muscle fibers makes the muscle?

A

White , few mitochondria and myoglobin, large stores of glycogen + glycolytic enzymes
~2 ATP per glucose mol.
Fibers are largers than oxidative

Physiology (7 decks)

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