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Physiology > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of an exocrine gland?
a.ovary cells that secrete estrogen into the blood

b. sweat gland that secretes onto the skin
c. ovaries secreting an egg into the fallopian tube
d. salivary gland that secretes into the mouth

A

a.ovary cells that secrete estrogen into the blood

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2
Q

The Na+/K+ pump transports _____ the cell and _____ the cell per cycle.

A

2 K+ into; 3 Na+ out

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3
Q

How much of the total body water content is in the intracellular compartment?

A

67%

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4
Q

The entire epidermis is replaced every

A

2 weeks.

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5
Q

T/F
An integrating center of a negative feedback loop has the function of analyzing information from sensors about deviations from a set point and then altering the activity of particular effectors to compensate for the deviation.

A

true

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6
Q

_____ is the transport of digestion products across epithelium into blood.

A

absorption

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7
Q

_____ trials involve testing the drug on healthy humans.

A

Phase I clinical

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8
Q

T/F

Facilitated diffusion is unable to transport molecules against a concentration gradient.

A

true

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9
Q

t/f

Active transport proteins are often regulated by phosphorylation.

A

true

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10
Q

The zygote (fertilized egg) before implantation has the ability to produce all the various types of cells found in the body. This ability is known as being _____.

A

totipotent

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11
Q

Contraction of _____ muscle can be consciously controlled.

A

skeletal

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary tissue of the body?
a.adipose

b. nervous
c. epithelial
d. connective

A

adipose

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13
Q

The rate of diffusion is influenced by
a.the concentration gradient.

b. membrane permeability.
c. membrane surface area.
d. membrane thickness.
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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14
Q

Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called _____.

A

aquaporins

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15
Q

Thermoregulation directly involves:
a.eccrine sweat glands.

b. sebaceous glands.
c. apocrine sweat glands.
d. lacrimal glands.

A

eccrine sweat glands.

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16
Q

t/f

Bacteria are responsible for the characteristic body odor of apocrine sweat.

A

true

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17
Q

Which of the following organ’s cells do NOT have many aquaporins in their plasma membranes?
a.brain

b. salivary glands
c. skin
d. eyes
e. lungs
f. kidneys

A

skin

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18
Q

What type of muscle tissue would you expect to find associated with blood vessels?

A

smooth

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19
Q

The part of a neuron that is typically lined with myelin sheath and transmits electrical impulses toward the synapse is called the _____.

A

axon

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20
Q

Which physiologist is known for showing that the heart pumps blood through a closed system?
a.Claude Bernard

b. Walter Cannon
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. William Harvey

A

William Harvey

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21
Q

_____ transport directly requires ATP.

A

Active

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22
Q

Why are cells in body organs generally within 100μm if a blood capillary?
a.to decrease mean diffusion time

b. so that larger particles can diffuse more easily
c. to increase mean diffusion time
d. a larger distance maximizes entropy

A

to decrease mean diffusion time

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23
Q

What physiologist is known for coining the term homeostasis to describe the dynamic constancy of the body’s internal environment?
a.Claude Bernard

b. Walter Cannon
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. William Harvey

A

Walter Cannon

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24
Q

Proteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within the cell, through the plasma membrane, and into the extracellular matrix are _____. These structures affect cell motility, adhesion, and proliferation.

A

integrins

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25
Q

Which glucose carrier is found in skeletal muscle and activated by either insulin or exercise?
a.GLUT1

b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4

A

d.GLUT4

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26
Q

T/F

Most organs are comprised of groupings of the four primary tissues into structural and functional units.

A

true

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27
Q

The cell membrane is typically most permeable to _____ ions.

A

potassium

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28
Q

Cerebral edema (swelling of the brain caused by excess fluid) would be treated with a(n) _____ intravenous solution of mannitol.

A

hypertonic

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of a person who is dehydrated?

a. increased osmolality causes thirst
b. hypothalamus stimulates release of ADH from the pituitary gland
c. plasma osmolality increases
d. ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water

A

d.ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water

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30
Q

T/F
Phase IV clinical drug trials involve testing a drug only on the specific human population who have the condition that the drug is intended to treat.

A

true

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31
Q

I give a patient an IV drip of a 0.8 Osm solution. How would you expect the patients red blood cells to react once this solution enters their veins?

a. The cells will not change.
b. The cells will swell.
c. The cells will crenate.
d. The cells will lyse.

A

c.The cells will crenate.

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of junctional complex?
a.Macula occludens

b. Zonula adherens
c. Zonula occludens
d. Macula adherens

A

a.Macula occludens

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33
Q

The last name of the physiologist who performed work on the physiology of digestion is _____.

A

Pavlov

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34
Q

The study of how disease or injury alters physiological processes is termed

A

pathophysiology

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35
Q

Which type of connective tissue is characterized by a liquid extracellular matrix?

A

blood

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36
Q

Botulism ends up resulting in death because it alters _____, the protein complex responsible for docking synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane of the terminal bouton.

A

SNARE

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37
Q

The functional connection between a neuron and a second cell is called the _____.

A

synapse

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38
Q

During the _____ refractory period, a supramaximal stimulus can bring the cell to threshold.

A

relative

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39
Q

Electrical synapses occur via _____ _____ and are found in both smooth and cardiac muscle as well as between some neurons of the brain and between neuroglial cells.

A

gap junctions

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40
Q

T/F

An axon will depolarize only if the membrane potential reaches the threshold value.

A

true

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41
Q

Parkinson’s disease is difficult to treat because it results from a deficiency of dopamine in the brain and giving an individual dopamine, unfortunately, has no impact on the disorder. This is because dopamine cannot cross the _____ _____ _____.

A

blood brain barrier

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42
Q

Using a stronger stimulus to activate more neurons in a nerve is called _____.

A

recruitment

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43
Q

What happens to prevent a new action potential from starting during the absolute refractory period?

a. A polypeptide blocks the potassium voltage-gated channels.
b. Depolarization opens the calcium voltage-gated channels.
c. A polypeptide blocks the calcium voltage-gated channels.
d. Depolarization opens the potassium voltage-gated channels.
e. Depolarization opens the sodium voltage-gated channels.
f. A polypeptide blocks the sodium voltage-gated channels.

A

f.A polypeptide blocks the sodium voltage-gated channels.

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44
Q

The pineal gland releasing melatonin into your bloodstream is an example of _____ signaling.

A

endocrine

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45
Q

Why is the plasma membrane more permeable to potassium than any other ion?

a. There are leaky potassium channels that are not-gated and allow potassium through the membrane all the time.
b. There are voltage-gated channels for potassium that open in response to stimuli.
c. There are ligand-gated channels for potassium that open during depolarization.
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c

A

d.a and b

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46
Q

Action potential transmission in the PNS is decreased if _____ cells are damaged.

A

Schwann

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47
Q

Which G-protein subunit binds GDP?

A

alpha

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48
Q

If axons are myelinated they appear to be _____ in color.

A

white

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49
Q

Using a stronger stimulus will cause which of the following to increase?

A

action potiental frequency

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50
Q

What is the term for a bundle of axons located outside the central nervous system?

A

nerve

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51
Q

What voltage-gated channels are present in the axonal membrane at the terminal bouton?

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c

A

g.a, b, and c

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52
Q

Which neuroglial cell of the CNS lines the brain ventricles and spinal cord and is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid?

A

ependymal cells

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53
Q

Which neuroglial cell of the CNS phagocytizes foreign and degenerated material when active?

A

microglia

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54
Q

Which is NOT a function of astrocytes?

  • phagocytize foreign material
  • formation of the blood-brain barrier
  • take up excess neurotransmitters
  • take up extracellular K+
  • release gliotransmitters
  • takes up glucose to produce lactic acid or lactate
  • synapse formation, maturation, and maintenance
  • release prostaglandin E2 on blood capillaries to cause vasodilation and an increase in blood flow
A

-phagocytize foreign material

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55
Q

T/F

Most brain tumors in adults are found within neurons.

A

false

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56
Q

T/F

All PNS axons are covered in both neurilemma and myelin sheath.

A

false

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57
Q

T/F

The peripheral nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord.

A

false

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58
Q

During action poteintal, it never goes more than?

A

30mv

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59
Q

What are clusters of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system called?

A

ganglia

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60
Q

T/F

Regeneration of a cut axon is impossible in the PNS.

A

false

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61
Q

T/F

Each action potential is an all-or-none event.

A

true

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62
Q

_____ neurons are pseudounipolar and carry impulses toward the CNS.

A

sensory

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63
Q

_____ are released via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.

A

neurotransmitter

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64
Q

G-proteins and _____ are the two main second-messenger molecules utilized in the body.

A

cAMP

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65
Q

Action potentials would be conducted most rapidly by

a. a 20mm diameter unmyelinated axon.
b. a 60mm diameter myelinated axon.
c. a 20mm diameter myelinated axon.
d. a 60mm diameter unmyelinated axon.

A

b.a 60mm diameter myelinated axon.

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66
Q

The neurotrophin that promotes the survival and growth of both sympathetic and sensory neurons in the developing fetal brain is

a. nerve growth factor.
b. brain-derived neurotrophic factor
c. neurotrphin-3
d. neurotrophin-4
e. glial-derived neurotrophic factor

A

a.nerve growth factor.

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67
Q

Retrograde transport:

a. moves toward the cell body from the axon.
b. uses dynein molecular motor proteins.
c. moves viruses and toxins.
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c

A

a, b, and c

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68
Q

Regeneration of CNS axons may be prevented by all of the following EXCEPT

a. glial scars.
b. death receptors.
c. neurotrophins.
d. NoGo proteins.

A

c.neurotrophins.

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69
Q

Which of the following is not a function of a neuron?

a. Releasing chemical regulators
b. Producing and conducting electrochemical impulses
c. Enabling perception of sensory stimuli, learning, memory, and control of muscles and glands
d. Responding to physical and chemical stimuli
e. Preventing axonal regeneration in the central nervous system

A

e.Preventing axonal regeneration in the central nervous system

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70
Q

The resting membrane potential of a neuron is _____mV.

A

-70

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71
Q

Blocking _____ channels (name the ion) would prevent neuron repolarization.

A

potassium

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72
Q

What is threshold in action potiental?

A

-55

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73
Q

Which neurons are responsible for stimulating or inhibiting contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle?

A

autonomic motor neurons

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74
Q

Blocking _____ channels (name the ion) would prevent neuron depolarization.

A

sodium

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75
Q

The gap of exposed axon in the myelin sheath is the

A

node of Ranvier.

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76
Q

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

a. utilizes acetylcholine as a preganglionic neurotransmitter.
b. utilizes norepiniephrine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter.
c. includes the adrenal medulla.
d. has a relatively short preganglionic neuron.

A

a. utilizes acetylcholine as a preganglionic neurotransmitter.

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77
Q

T/F

Many autonomic visceral effector organs can function without nervous innervation.

A

true

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78
Q

Which of the following directly initiates the release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum in the phospholipase C mechanism?
a.diacylglycerol

b. cAMP
c. inositol triphosphate (IP3)
d. calmodulin
e. phospholipase C
f. G-proteins

A

inositol triphosphate (IP3)

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT a collateral ganglion?

a. inferior mesenteric
b. celiac
c. hepatic
d. superior mesenteric

A

c.hepatic

80
Q

T/F

Glycine and GABA stimulate opening of Cl- channels.

A

true

81
Q

Which of the following would NOT be broken down by COMT in the postsynaptic cell?

a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. epinephrine
d. serotonin

A

d.serotonin

82
Q

The vagus nerve would innervate all of the following except

a. the lungs.
b. the small intestine.
c. the liver.
d. the kidneys.
e. the urinary bladder.
f. the heart.
g. the spleen.
h. the stomach.

A

e.the urinary bladder.

83
Q

Molecules secreted by endocrine glands that are inactive until changed by their target cells are _____.

A

prehormones

84
Q

Phenylephrine and Pseudoephedrine function as _____ because they promote vasoconstriction in nasal mucosa.

A

ɑ1 agonists

85
Q

True/False

Damage to an autonomic nerve makes the effector less sensitive to stimulation.

A

false

86
Q

When one sympathetic preganglionic neuron synapses on several postganglionic neurons, this is called _____.

A

divergence

87
Q

Atenolol and metoprolol are drugs that are commonly called _____ _____. These drugs are used to decrease cardiac output in order to control high blood pressure.

A

beta blockers

88
Q

Thyroid hormone receptors may be found

a. both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus.
b. in the cytoplasm.
c. in the nucleus.
d. embedded in the cell membrane

A

c.in the nucleus.

89
Q

Which region of the brain contains the majority of the limbic system?

A

Telencephalon

90
Q

T/F

Studies have indicated that aging is associated with increased levels of sympathetic activity and tone.

A

true

91
Q

_____ is the main neurotransmitter released by most postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

A

NE

92
Q

The swellings in postganglionic axons that contain neurotransmitter are called _____.

A

varicosities

93
Q

The two types of acetylcholine receptors are _____ and muscarinic

A

nicotinic

94
Q

Which drug is utilized for ADD/ADHD and is NOT typically an issue when it comes to substance abuse as it deals SOLELY with the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?

A

Straterra

95
Q

In the mechanism of action for the monoamine neurotransmitters, the regulatory subunit prefers to bond to _____ when present.

A

cAMP

96
Q

Doctors have slowed prescribing drugs that block the _____ adrenergic receptors as these drugs are known to exacerbate asthma in many patients.

A

β2

97
Q

_____ _____ adrenergic receptors are responsible for you losing color, feeling sick to your stomach, and getting dry mouth when you are in a fight or flight emergency.

A

alpha one

98
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in what two regions of the spinal cord?

A

thoracic and lumbar

99
Q

Which of the following will typically NOT lead to the release of endogenous opioids?

A

taking a physiology exam

100
Q

The _____ dopamine system may be involved in emotional reward and drug addiction.

A

mesolimbic

101
Q

T/F

Sympathetic stimulation of an organ ALWAYS opposes the effects of parasympathetic stimulation.

A

false

102
Q

_____ hormones, thyroid hormones, and melatonin can be taken orally._____ hormones, thyroid hormones, and melatonin can be taken orally.

A

steroid

103
Q

Endogenous cannabinoids have effects similar to the active ingredient in

A

marijuana.

104
Q

Birds and fish have comparatively larger _____ to account for the complex movements they utilize daily.

A

cerebellum

105
Q

When thyroid hormones bind to their nuclear receptors at two half-sites on the DNA’s hormone response element to initiate transcription, they first must join together forming a _____.

A

heterodimer

106
Q

Most of the lipophilic hormones bind to receptors which

A

regulate gene transcription.

107
Q

The action of _____ _____ phosphorylates various enzymes which will turn them on or off. It can also open or close ion channels.

A

protein kinase

108
Q

Receptors that utilize a secondary messenger system or signal transduction pathway are known as _____ receptors.

A

metabotropic

109
Q

From where do parasympathetic preganglionic nerves originate?

A

brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

110
Q

The _____ _____ signal transduction pathway is a common pathway for amine, polypeptide, and glycoprotein hormones. This pathway results in the phosphorylation of many other proteins.

A

adenylate cyclase

111
Q

Autonomic motor nerves do NOT innervate

A

skeletal muscle.

112
Q

Which of the following would produce an EPSP? *There may be more than one correct response.

a. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- entering the cell
b. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ entering the cell
c. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ exiting the cell
d. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ entering the cell
e. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ exiting the cell
f. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ entering the cell
g. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- exiting the cell
h. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ exiting the cell

A

b. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ entering the cell
d. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ entering the cell
f. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ entering the cell
g. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- exiting the cell

113
Q

Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are found in all of the following EXCEPT

a. smooth muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c. glands.
d. cardiac muscle.

A

b.skeletal muscle.

114
Q

Which region of the brain contains the hypothalamus?

A

diencephalon

115
Q

Nerve gas and cockroach poison are similar in that they cause the generation of uncontrolled action potentials which leads to uncontrolled muscle contraction and eventually death. These two poisons work by

A

blocking acetylcholinesterase.

116
Q

What structures carry the action potentials into the interior of the muscle to cause muscle contraction?

A

T tubules

117
Q

South Carolina is known to have high levels of _____ in the soil which helps prevent thyroid issues.

A

iodine

118
Q

A child with _____ would be lethargic, shorter than average, have mental retardation, and a low body temperature.

A

cretinism

119
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, adjacent _____ are pulled closer together as the _____ between them shorten.

A

Z discs; H zones

120
Q

_____ typically occurs around day 14 of the menstrual cycle and is marked by the eruption of the egg from the follicle.

A

ovulation

121
Q

Melatonin is anti-gonadotropic. Knowing this fact, you would expect animals in South Carolina to breed more during which seasons?

A

spring and summer

122
Q

In order for skeletal muscles to contract, Ca2+ must bind to _____ in order to move the _____ out of the myosin binding domain of the G actin molecules.

A

troponin; tropomyosin

123
Q

Which hormone is produced by the placenta to indicate that an embryo has been implanted in the uterus?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

124
Q

You take a biopsy of a skeletal muscle to determine what type of fibers make up this particular motor unit. The fibers in your sample are red in color, they have many mitochondria, and a good bit of myoglobin, yet the diameter of the fibers appears to be quite small. Of the two fiber types, you have just identified _____ fibers.

A

oxidative

125
Q

Drugs that are useful for treating asthma are

A

anti-leukotrienes.

126
Q

Regulation of mineral homeostasis would be inhibited by decreased secretion of

A

corticotropin-releasing hormone.

127
Q

Which of the following explains the decreased fertility in males with anabolic steroid abuse?

A

Exogenous testosterone will trigger a decrease in GnRH.

128
Q

What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation?

a. It powers the Ca2+ pumps to return Ca2+ to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b. It is hydrolyzed by the myosin cross bridge head prior to cross bridge attachment.
c. It causes the myosin cross bridge head to detach from actin after the power stroke.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

A

d.All of the above.

129
Q

_____ primarily makes up the thin filament while _____ primarily makes up the thick filament.

A

Actin; myosin

130
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of glucagon in blood glucose homeostasis?

a. stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
b. promotes the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells
c. raises blood glucose levels
d. promotes lipolysis
e. stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver

A

b.promotes the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells

131
Q

Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter _____ at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Ach

132
Q

Elevated _____ in the blood is a trigger for aldosterone secretion from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. These levels must be kept in check or they can be fatal.

A

K+

133
Q

Tyrosine kinase receptors have been implicated as a potential cause of _____. The ligands for these receptors are typically growth factors.

A

cancer

134
Q

A 28-year-old male patient presents with an obvious swelling in his neck. He also complains of being incredibly tired and depressed while experiencing unexplainable weight gain. You decide to measure his TSH levels. What would you expect to see and what diagnosis would you give this patient?

A

High TSH levels; Endemic goiter

135
Q

_____ inhibits only COX3 in the brain which results in pain and fever reduction yet has no effect on inflammation.

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

136
Q

T/F

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone synthesis occurs in the neurohypophysis.

A

false

137
Q

Both portions of the pituitary gland develop due to growth induced by the notochord. The anterior pituitary develops as an evagination of the _____ while the posterior pituitary develops as an evagination of the _____.

A

stomodeum; diencephalon

138
Q

T/F
Transverse tubules contain voltage-gated calcium channels that respond to membrane depolarization and are directly coupled to the calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

true

139
Q

A 40-year-old female patient presents with generalized weakness and rapid weight loss. After completing an initial blood panel, you notice that her blood glucose level is quite low however her insulin and glucagon levels seem to be in normal ranges. You order additional blood work and notice that her T3, T4, and TSH levels appear to be normal, but her ACTH levels are very low. What diagnosis would you give this patient?

A

Addison’s Disease

140
Q

T/F

Pituitary dwarfism is caused by growth years’ hyposecretion of growth hormone.

A

true

141
Q

Which of the following is needed for the myosin cross bridge head to undergo a power stroke?

a. binding of ATP to the cross bridge head
b. splitting ATP into ADP and a phosphate
c. binding of Calcium to the cross bridge head
d. release of phosphate

A

d.release of phosphate

142
Q

After menopause, the principal estrogen in the body is estrone which is produced by _____ _____.

A

adipose cells

143
Q

Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone function?

a. PTH increases blood calcium levels.
b. PTH causes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium.
c. PTH increases the activity of osteoclasts.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

A

d.All of the above.

144
Q

The inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is called _____. This may occur with or without some relaxation depending on the frequency of the stimulation.

A

tetanus

145
Q

The pineal gland produces the hormone _____ that is used in entraining circadian rhythms.

A

melatonin

146
Q

Within the seminiferous tubules of the testes is a layer of germinal epithelial cells. These germinal epithelial cells produce _____.

A

sperm

147
Q

Prednisone is a _____ which can assist with any inflammatory issues as it suppresses the immune system.

A

glucocorticoid

148
Q

_____ is characterized by continued attachment of myosin cross bridge heads to actin filaments due to a lack of ATP.

A

Rigor mortis

149
Q

In regards to the relationship between resting muscle fiber length and tension generated,

A

maximal tension can be generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap.

150
Q

What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

stimulates retention of water by the kidneys

151
Q

What structure runs the length of the sarcomere and contributes to the elastic recoil in muscle?

A

titin

152
Q

Skeletal muscles with a low innervation ratio have a low degree of neural control, i.e. they are not very precise.

A

False

153
Q

The majority of the Ca2+ required for skeletal muscle contraction comes from the _____ _____.

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

154
Q

Which of the following is an effect of hyperthyroidism?

A

Decreased sleep

155
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers are ______ than oxidative

A

larger

156
Q

What are type 1 muscle fibers?

A

Slow oxidative muscle fibers

157
Q

What do type 1 muscle fibers do?

A

they are found in postural muscle that do routine activities or movement, and can sustain contraction for long periods

158
Q

How does type 1 muscle fiber sustain contractions for long periods?

A

By using ATP slowly
Having good vascularization
have lots of mitochondria and myoglobin

159
Q

What are type 2 muscle fibers?

A

Fast glycolytic

160
Q

What do type 2 muscle fibers do?

A

Very large fibers can generate alot of force such as producing sudden bursts of speed but cannot be used for long periods of time

161
Q

Fibers of a given motor unit are?

A

all the same kind

162
Q

What is the ratio for a fast glycolytic?

slow oxidative?

A

Fast glycolytic-large motor unit-1:2000

Slow oxidative-small motor unit-1:23

163
Q

Muscle fibers can be?

A

influenced. Exersize can effect glycolytic and oxidative

164
Q

Cardio influences muscle fibers?

A

Fast glycolytic to become more oxidative and vascularized=more mitochondria

165
Q

Weight training can influence muscle fibers by?

A

oxidative fibers because longer in diameter and have more glycolytic characteristics

166
Q

Cardiac muscle is under innervation by the?

A

Autonomic nervous system

167
Q

T/F
Cardiac muscle cells are shorter than skeletal, have branches and are attached via intercalated disks and have one nucleus

A

True

168
Q

The intercalated disks are?

A

many gap junctions

169
Q

What are intercalated disks?

A

gap junctions

170
Q

T/F

Myocardia cannot generate graded poteintals most of the time

A

True

171
Q

Cardiac muscle can contract more forcefully when?

A

the heart is stretched, like when extreme running

172
Q

If cardiac muscle is deinnervated, what occurs?

A

CMC automatically generate their own action poteintials

173
Q

What is determined by cardiac muscle cells?

A

Heart rate

174
Q

What are the two cateogories of smooth muscle and which is more common?

A 
Multi-unit 
single unit (more common)
175
Q

where is single unit smooth muscle found?

A 
lining walls of hollow organs of body such as
small intestines
Esophagus
Bronchiole
Tubes of lungs
Walls of arteries and veins
176
Q

Smooth muscle is connected by?

A

gap junctions

177
Q

Peristalsis is?

A

Wavelike contractions that move food through the GI tract

178
Q

Segmentation is?

A

the small intstine that mixes food with enzymes

179
Q

What is an example of a multiunit smooth muscle?

A

Ciliary muscle of the eye

180
Q 
What type of muscle does this describe?
spindle shape 
No striations 
No Z disks
Works via sliding filament theory
No troponin/tropomyosin
A

smooth muscle

181
Q

What is the ratio of actin to myosin in smooth muscle?

A

More actin than myosin 16:1

182
Q

Since smooth muscle has no z disks, how does actin attach to the cell?

A

Actin attaches directly to sarcolemma (cell membrane) or dense bodies

183
Q

Due to lack of troponin/tropomysoin, what happens when Ca2+ binds to cell

A

Calmodulin binds to Ca2+

184
Q

A sub-threshhold contraction provides a weak reaction because?

A

It only opens a couple voltage gated channels

185
Q

A threshold contraction opens?

A

Alot of voltage gated channels

186
Q

After binding to Ca+, calmodulin forms a complex which turns on?

A

Myosin light chain kinase

187
Q

What does Myosin light chain kinase do?

A

Acts as the cross bridge of smooth muscle

188
Q

What closes the ‘cross bridge’ of smooth muscle?

A

MLCK

it phosh. myosin light chain kinase

189
Q

How does smooth muscle relax?

A

Ca2+ pumps into sarcolemma and pumps CA2+ out of cell

Myosin light chain phosphotase phosph. Cross bridge by removing phos. from moysin

190
Q

What are the two valves of the heart?

A

Tricuspid (right side)

Bicuspid/mitrial valve (left side)

191
Q

Which side of the heart is the pulmonary circut pumped from?

A

The right side of the heart, pumped to lungs

192
Q

Systemic blood flow pumps where? what side of the heart is it pumped by?

A

Pumps to the body and pumped by left side of heart

193
Q

Valves in veins keep blood from?

A

flowing backwards

194
Q

What is a heart murmer?

A

A sound caused by the sound of blood hitting a valve

Physiology (7 decks)

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