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Physiology > Test 3 Review > Flashcards

Test 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the parts of the vertebral brain from anterior to posterior?

A 
Telencephon
Diencephalon 
Mesencephanlon 
cerebellum 
ponds
myelencephanlon
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2
Q

The telencephalon contains the ______________ __________.

A

cerebral hemispheres

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3
Q

The cerebrum located in the ____________ contains What?

A

the telencephalon
contains the limbic system
regions that control all muscles
regions that disseminate sensory information

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4
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

a complex network of nerves that controls basic emotions and drives ‘self’ and greater concious

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5
Q

What are the parts of the diencephalon and what do they contain?

A

center-fluid filled ventricle
root-epithalamus which contains pineal gland
side walls-contain thalamus which is a relay station
floor-hypothalamus and dangling from floor is the pituitary gland

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6
Q

The mesencephalon is also called the?

A

mid-brain

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7
Q

What are the parts of the mesencephalon ?

A

tectum (roof)

tegmentum (floor):

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8
Q

What does the tegmentum (floor) part of the mesencephalon do?

A

Contains neuron cell bodies that produce dopamine and relays vision and hearing

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9
Q

If you are a fish what part of the brain is important?

A

mesencephalon

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10
Q

The cerebellum is also referred to as the?

A

little cerebrum

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11
Q

The cerebellum controlls?

A

unconcious control of skeleton, however the cerebrum initially controls this BUT the cerebellum refines it

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12
Q

If damage occurs to your cerebellum what happens?

A

You would walk with a shuffling gate

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13
Q

Examples of activites that your cerebellum refines would be?

A

biking, skating, dancing

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14
Q

The example of the part of the brain that birds and fish have increased but frogs have decreased would be the?

A

cerebellum

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15
Q

The ponds contains a ________ ______. that?

A

fiber tract that relays info between cerebellum and cerebrum

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16
Q

What is the ralphe nucleus?

A

produces serotonin

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17
Q

The myelencephalon is also called?

A

brain stem or medulla oblongata

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18
Q

What is the function of the myelencephalon?

A

control of autonomic nervous system such as heart or respiratory rate

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19
Q

Serotonin controls?

A

mood and emotion

it is involved in depression, bipolar and migranes

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20
Q

The serotonin receptor determines?

A

action of serotonin

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21
Q

a SSRIS is?

A

a serotonin specific re-uptake inhibitor

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22
Q

What is the action of the brain that SSRIS work against?

A

Monoamine oxidase breaks down serotonin in pre-synaptic terminal and the SSRIS inhibit this, keeping the serotonin withthin the synaptic cleft

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23
Q

Where is monoamine oxidase located?

A

in the terminal bouton

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24
Q

What are some examples of SSRIS?

A

zoloft, paxil, prozac, and luvox

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25
Q

When a neuron is referred to as serotonergic it?

A

is a neuron that makes serotonin

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26
Q

Where are serotonergic neurons located?

A

cell bodies in the ralphe nucleus of the ponds within the metencephalon
axons project into cerebral hemispheres of telencephalon

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27
Q

Where is the limbic system found?

A

the telencephalon

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28
Q

Where is dopamine produced?

A

mesencephalon

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29
Q

Dopamine is produced from?

A

AA tyrosine

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30
Q

Nigrostriatal cells are?

A

cell bodies in mesencephalon

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31
Q

Substantia nigra are?

A

Black or dark substrates that are black because biproduct of dopamine formation is melanin

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32
Q

The symptoms of parkinson’s are?

A

shuffling gate, difficulty swallowing at later stages

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33
Q

How do people normally die of parkinson’s?

A

they die of pnemonia because materal enters the windpipe and eventually gets into the lungs

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34
Q

The term ‘treatment delays onset’ in parkinsons means?

A

giving pre-cursor to dopamine works for a time but eventually the cells that make dopamine break down

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35
Q

The Mesolimbic system is?

A

Neurons in the tegmentum of mesencephalon close to substantia nigra

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36
Q

What is the limbic system composed of?

***

A

masses of grey matter that are deep in forebrain (tel & diencephalon)

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37
Q

Which system offers a reward system for increasing fitness?

A

the limbic system

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38
Q

Two examples of dopamine transport blockers are?

A

cocaine and ritalin

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39
Q

What effect do amphetamines have on neurotransmitters?

A

It forces NT to exit the synaptic vessicles via high concentration gradient and forces all monoamines into synaptic cleft

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40
Q

What is norepinephrine?

A

A neurotransmitter of sympathetic NS

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41
Q

Where does norepinephrine innervate?

A

glands, cardiac and smooth muscle

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42
Q

What are the effects of norepinephrine?

A

makes heart beat faster, inhibiting smooth muscle causing vasodialation, stimulates general behavioral arousal

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43
Q

What is PTSD?

A

reliving the hyperawareness caused via norepinephrine

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44
Q

Treatment for ADD/ADHD-

Ritalin uses what to treat this?

A

dopamine

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45
Q

Why does ritalin have the potential for abuse?

A

Because it uses dopamine to treat ADD/ADHD

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46
Q

Treatment for ADD/ADHD-

Stratera uses what to treat this?

A

norepinphrine re-uptake

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47
Q

Why does stratera use norepinephrine re-uptake inhibitors to treat ADD?

A

because it aids in focus and is less likely for abuse

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48
Q

Treatment for ADD/ADHD-

What does adderal use to treat this?

A

mixture of amphetamines. serotonin, dopmaine, and norepinephrine

it increases ALL monoamines in cleft

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49
Q

Excitory AA neurotransmitters?

A

generate a EPSP

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50
Q

What are two excitatory AA NTs?

What do they do?

A

Aspartic Acid-Possible ressitance to fatigue

Glutamic Acid: Proton donor to Glutamate (actual Neurotransmitter) which aids in learning and memory

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51
Q

What is retrograde transmission?

A

post-synaptic cells produces NT that acts on presynaptic cell

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52
Q

What is long-term potientiation?

A

the longer you use it the better it works

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53
Q

Ionotropic means?

A

opens an ion channel

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54
Q

Glycine is __________ and is found?

A

ihibitory and is found in spinal chord

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55
Q

The receptor for glycine is?

A

ionotropic

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56
Q

The ionotropic glycine receptor does what?

A

contains Cl- channel which sends Cl- into cell forming IPSP

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57
Q

Where does glycine work?

A

on somatic motor neurons for muscle contraction

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58
Q

When flexing your biceps, what molecule is responsible and how does it do it?

A

acetylcholine and it sends an EPSP

-the inhibition of tricepts is from IPSP

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59
Q

When muscles are like jelly and can’t contract it is called?

A

flaccid paralysis

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60
Q

Cucare paralysis is from ________ _______ and inhibits the _______ receptors.

A

plant toxin

nictotinic receptors

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61
Q

Spastic paralysis is?

A

all muscles contract at the same time

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62
Q

Contracation of muscles with no movement results in?

A

quivering

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63
Q

A bacterial toxin that disrupts snare proteins (fusion complex) of inhibitory neurotransmitters is?

A

Tetanus

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64
Q

Strychnine does what?

A

deadly protein that blocks glysine receptors on diaphram which results in the diaphram staying contracted and you die

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65
Q

What does GABA stand for>

A

Gamma Aminobutyric Acid

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66
Q

GABA is ______ and opens a Chloride channel.

A

ionotropic

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67
Q

Where does GABA work?

A

In the brain on the purkinje cells in cerebellum

-functions similar to glycine

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68
Q

Substance P?

A

sensation of pain, causes mood disorders, anxiety, stress, nausea and respiratory rythms

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69
Q

In 1973 it was discovered that?

A

Receptors in CNS respond to opium

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70
Q

Endorphins, Enkephalins and Dynorphins are all examples of?

A

endogenous opiods

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71
Q

Angelesia is?

A

relief of pain and euphoria

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72
Q

How do endogenous opioids work?

A

Axodxonix synapes with a neuron releasing substance P releasing a IPSP shutting down release of substance P by blocking Ca2+ voltage gated channels in terminal buttons which ceases exocytosis of substance P

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73
Q

Running 6 miles can result in a?

A

Joggers high

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74
Q

Capsasin high is from?

A

hot peppers which bind to receptors stimulated by heat or friction

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75
Q

What is neuropeptide y?

A

Most abundant neuropeptide in brain

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76
Q

Neuropeptide y is responsible for?

A

stress response, circadian rythm, cardiovascular system control and is a appetite stimulant

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77
Q

Lepin is?

A

an appetite suppressent

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78
Q

Tetrahydrocanabinol is?

A

marijuana and gives analgesia and relief of nausea

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79
Q

Endocanabinoids are?

What are they responsible for?

A

amandamide and z-urachdonyl glycerol

responsible for retrograde neurotransmission

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80
Q

Nitric oxide is made from?

A

AA L-arginine by nitric oxide substance

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81
Q

What is viagra “turned off by”

A

phosphodiesterase that breaks down Cyclic GMP

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82
Q

Viagra inhibits?

A

inhibits PDE

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83
Q

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for?

A

fight or flight reactions

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84
Q

the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for?

A

rest and digest

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85
Q

Neurons associated with PNS are?

A

motor/efferent neurons

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86
Q

The somatic portion of the PNS controls?

A

voluntary skeletal muscle

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87
Q

The autonomic portion of the PNS controls?

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

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88
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system controlled by?

A

Sensory neurons from viscera

two neuron multipolar system

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89
Q

Pre-ganglionic neurons are from the?

A

cell body in CNS that send out axon that synpases with postganglionic neuron in PNS

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90
Q

The post ganglionic neurons go from?

A

axon to effector organ or gland

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91
Q

Where are pre-ganglionic neurons found?

A

in midbrain and hindbrain->mes, met and myelencephalon or in thoracic lumbar or sacral regions of spinal chord

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92
Q

Where are autonomic ganglion found?

A

head, neck and abdomen and chains parallel to spinal chord

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93
Q

Disrupting Innervation-

To skeletal muscle results in?

A

flaccid paralysis and muscles will wither away and eventually are replaced by connective tissue

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94
Q

Disrupting Innervation-

to a viseral effector results in?

A

no change because they are independent of innervation, contracting on there own without innervation but cutting the innervation may result in denervation hypersensitivity

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95
Q

denervation hypersensitivity means?

A

more sensitive than normal

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96
Q

Autonomic motor neurons can _____ or _______.

A

stimulate or inhibit

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97
Q

Somatic motor neurons use ______ and are always ________.

A

ACH and excitatory

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98
Q

Autonomic effectors are?

A

cardiac, smooth and glands

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99
Q

Somatic effectors are?

A

skeletal muscle

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100
Q

Do somatic neurons have ganglia?

A

no

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101
Q

Do autonomic neurons have ganglia?

A

yes

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102
Q

How many neurons are in somatic nerves?e?

A

1

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103
Q

How many neurons are in autonomic nerves?

A

2

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104
Q

Denervation of somatic nerves results in?

A

flaccid paralysis

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105
Q

Denervation of autonomic nerves results in?

A

denervation hypersensitivity

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106
Q

The sympathetic division of the nervouse system orginates?

A

in spinal chord from 1st thorasic to 2nd lumbar

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107
Q

Where does the thoracolumbar division of the sympathetic nervous system synpase?

A

in the symp ganglia found in chains running parallel to spinal chord that diverge onto white rami

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108
Q

What does divergence mean?

A

one preganglionic neuron synapses on multiple postganglionic neurons

109
Q

What does convergence mean?

A

Multiple preganglionic neurons synapse on 1 post ganglionic neuron

110
Q

When the sympathetic division can act as a single unit it is called?

A

mass activation

111
Q

The heart and kidneys are maintained by?

A

the CNS

112
Q

Sympathetic neurons that are exiting the spinal chord below the diaphram and synapse on the collateral ganglia are?

A

sympathetic neurons such as celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric

113
Q

What type of neurons innervate organs of digestive system, urinary and reproductive systems?

A

post ganglionic neurons

114
Q

The outer layer of the cortex of adrenal glands secretes what?

A

steroid hormones

115
Q

the inner layer (the medulla) of the kidneys secretes?

A

adrenaline and norepinephrine

116
Q

The adrenal glands can be stimulates as part of?

A

mass action

117
Q

What type of innervation do cutaneous effectors such as the blood vessels of skin, sweat glands and arrector pili muscles receive?

A

NO parasympathetic stimulation

118
Q

What are the 4 cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers?

A

oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus

119
Q

Where do the preganglionic fibers exit on the occulomotor nerve?

A

pre-gan. exit mesenteric and synapse on ciliary ganglion

120
Q

What do post ganglionic nerves innervate on the occulomotor nerve?

A

the ciliary muscle of the eye changing the lens shape

121
Q

Preganglionic fibers in the Facial nerve exit from where?

A

the pons and synapse on the pterygo palatine ganglion

122
Q

Where do preganglionic fibers from the vagus exit from?

A

the medulla oblongata and branch like crazy within the following effector organs-
heart, liver, lings, esophagus, stomach and intestines

-also largest in sixe and most of the parasypathetic innervation in body

123
Q

Preganglionic nerves from te saccral region ({division) innervate?

A

the lowers part of intestine, rectum, urinary and reproductive organs

124
Q

In fight or flight the where is norepinphrine secreted from?

A

the postganglionic neuronsalong with epinephrine from adrenal medulla

125
Q

In fight or flight what occurs to the body?

A

increased heart rate, blood glucose a blood is diverted to skeletal muscles

126
Q

Unlike the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system is not?

A

activated all at once but instead by seperate nerves

127
Q

General symptoms of parasympathetic nervous system are?

A

increased digestive activity and decreased heart rate

128
Q

The viseral organs respond differently to the parasympathetic nervous system because?

A

Postganglionic neurons release different neurotransmitters

129
Q

Actetylcholine is used why which divison of the nervous system, para or sympa?

A

BOTH! it is used by all preganglionic neurons

130
Q

What sympathetic postganglionic neurons realease ACH?

A

sweat glands and skeletal muscle

131
Q

Neurons that secrete things like norepinephrine are referred to as?

A

adrenegeric

132
Q

Adrenergic stimulation can be caused by epinephrine or norepeinephrine and are from?

A

sympathetic neurons or adrenal medulla

133
Q

Adrenergic stimulation can stimulate or inhibit based on?

A

receptors

134
Q

What does adrenergic stimulation stimulate?

A

heart, dilatory muscles of the iris, smooth muscle of many blood vessels, inhibits contraction of bronchioles and some other blood vessels

135
Q

What are variscosities?

A

axons of post ganglionic neurons that have a part in sweeling, release NTs and mostly controlled by parasympathetic ns

136
Q

Norepinephrine receptters that are adrenergic cause what?

A

heart beating fast due to EPSP

inhibits activity of smooth mucle in the lungs via IPSPS

137
Q

ALL of your adrenergic receptors are ________________ and use what type of proteins?

A

Metabotropic and use G proteins

138
Q

Beta adrenergic receptors what type of secondary messenger system?

A

cAMP

139
Q

Alpha adrenergic receptors use what type of secondary messenger system?

A

Ca2+

140
Q

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors do what?

A

Use an EPSP to contract vascular smooth muscle of skin and viscera which causes vasocontriction and is responsible for pale. quesy, and dry mouth

141
Q

Where are Alpha 2 adreneric receptors located?

A

on terminal boutons of sympathetic post ganglionic neurons

142
Q

What kind of mechanism do the Alpha 2 receptors use?

A

Negative feedback mechanism that decreases the release of NTs over time and keeps sympathetic division in check

143
Q

The Beta 1 Adrenergic receptors affect the heart by?

A

Releasing an EPSP that increases heart rate and contractility

144
Q

The Beta 2 Adrenergic receptors affect non-vascular smooth mucle of the bronchioles and visera how?

A

by releasing an IPSP that causes bronchiodialation and inhibits stomach and small intestine

145
Q

Agonist means?

A

causes the same effect as NT

146
Q

Antagonist means?

A

causes opposite effect as NT

147
Q

An example of Alpha 1 agonists are phenylephrine and pseudoephridine causing?

A

contraction of blood vessels and nasal congestion

148
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists phentolamine causes?

A

vasodilation and can be used for short term hyper tension control

149
Q

Parathyroid hormones function does what?

A

increases blood Ca2+
Causes kidneys to reabsorb calcium
causes dissolution of calcium phosphate from bones increasing activity of osteoclasts

150
Q

Thyroid hormones bind to receptors which?

A

regulate gene transcription

151
Q

What is produced when two diodotyrosine molecules couple together?

A

Tetraiodothyronine and thyroxine

152
Q

Melatonin is anti-gonadotropic, knowing this when would you expect animals in SC to breed in which season

A

spring and summer

153
Q

South Carolina used to be known for having alot of what particular element that is necessary for production of thyroxine in soil contents?

A

iodine

154
Q

A 40 year old female patient present with generalized weakness and rapid weight lodd. After completeing an intital blood panel, you notice blood glucose level is low however insulin and glucagon levels are normal. You order additional blood work and notice that ACTH levels are very low. What diagnosis would you give this patient?

A

Addison’s disease

155
Q

What are the three functional categories of corticosteroids?

A

gluccocorticoid
sex steroids
mineralocorticoids

156
Q

High TSH levels with enemic goiter would show symptoms of?

A

obvious sweeling, fatigue, depression and unexplainable weight gain

157
Q

Which autonomic division is dominant in an emergency situation

A

sympathetic

158
Q

Post-ganglionic axons which do not secrete either catecholamines or acetylcholine may secrete?

A

nitric oxide
vasoactive intestinal peptide
ATP

159
Q

What hormone stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk-ejecting during lacatation?

A

oxytocin

160
Q

Circles of physiological activity that follow a 24-hour pattern are called

A

circadian rythms

161
Q

Molecules secreted by endocrine glands that are inactive until changed by their target cells are?

A

prehormones

162
Q

Regulation of mineral homeostasis would be inhibited due to decreased secretion of?

A

corticotropin releasing hormone

163
Q

Steroid hormone receptors may be found?

A

in both the cytoplasm and the nucleus

164
Q

Doctors have slowed prescribing drugs that block the _______ adrenergic receptors as these drugs are known to exacerbate asthma in many patients.

A

Beta-2

165
Q

Postganglionic ____ nerves release acetylcholine.

A

parasympathetic

166
Q

The vagus nerve innervates?

A

the lungs, heart, and the stomach

167
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary messenger system acticated by lipophobic hormones?

a) diacylglycerol
b) phospolipase C
c) tyrosine kinase
d) adenylate cyclase

A

a)diacylglycerol

168
Q

From where do parasypathetic reganglionic nerves orginate?

A

the brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

169
Q

What drug is an alpha 1 agonist that causes vasocontrisction thereby acting as a nasal decongestant

A

pseudoephrine

170
Q

The pancreas secretes hormones involved in regulation of?

A

blood glucose

171
Q

Thyroid hormone receptors form a ________ on their half sites?

A

heterodimer

172
Q

cAMP activates ___________ that activates other enzymes in the cell.

A

protein kinase

173
Q

Increasing somatostatin secretion would do what to growth?

A

inhibit it

174
Q

Which of the following is not a collateral ganglion?

a) hepatic
b) celiac
c) superior mesenteric
d) inferior mesenteric

A

hepatic

175
Q

______ is released by most postganglionic sympathetic nerves

A

norepinephrine

176
Q

The collateral ganglia contain?

A

nicotinic receptors

177
Q

What is the function of the hormone ACH

A

stimulates rention of water by the kidneys

178
Q

The brain produces lipid neurotransmitters called?

A

endocannabinoids

179
Q

The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the ____ is called the hypthalamo-hypophyseal portal system

A

anterior pituitary

180
Q

Protein kinase catalyzes the ________ of other enzymes in the cytoplasm

A

phosphorylation

181
Q

Many growth factos use?

A

tyrosine kinase as a second messenger

182
Q

Nitric oxide does?

A

is produced from L-asparagine
stimulates the dilation of blood vessels
is a chemical messenger activating adenylate cyclase

183
Q

Autonomic motor nerves innervate?

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands

184
Q

What does glucagon do in blood glucose homeostatsis?

A

raises blood glucose levels, promotes lipolysis, stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in liver

185
Q

Which of the following organs is dually innervated?

a) adrenal medulla
b) most blood vessels
c) urinary bladder
d) arrector pili muscles

A

urinary bladder

186
Q

What drugs are known as a beta blocker because the block beta 1 adrenergic receptors and therefor decrease cardiac output to control high blood pressure?

A

Propanolol and Dobutamine

187
Q

What occurs when one sympathetic preganglionic neuron synapses on serveral postganglionic neurons

A

divergence

188
Q

In the phospholipase C mechanism, most of the increased intracellular calcium comes from?

A

the endoplasmic reticulum

189
Q

which part of the brain helps to regulate the ANS actions from the medulla during motion sickness?

A

cerebellum

190
Q

Viseral reactions which accompany emotional states are due to activation of the autonomic nervous system by the?

A

limbic system

191
Q

The swellings on postganglionic axons that contain neurotransmitter are called?

A

varicosities

192
Q

The action of aldosterone secretion is?

A

stimulates kidneys to retain Na+
causes loos of K+ in urine
an increase of blood volume and pressue

193
Q

Secondary meseengers generated by the actions of phosplipase C?

A

may activate calmodulin

194
Q

True/False:

Sympathetic stimulation of an organ ALWAYS opposes the effects of parasympathic stimulation

A

False

195
Q

True/False:

Daylight causes stimulation of the pineal gland to release melatonin

A

False

196
Q

True/False:

Studies have indicated that aging is associated with increased levels of parasympathertic activity and tone

A

False

197
Q

True/False:

Mass activation is a property of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

False

198
Q

True/False:
The hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and the various target glands control the functions of each other so there is no “master gland”

A

True

199
Q

True/False:

Pituitary dwarfism is caused by growth years’ hyposecretion of growth hormone

A

True

200
Q

True/False:

Many autonomic visceral effector organs can function without nervous innervation

A

true

201
Q

True/False:

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone synthesis occurs in the neurohyophysisi

A

false

202
Q

True/False:

Damage to an autonomic nerve makes effector more sensitive to stimulation

A

true

203
Q

True/False:

polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones can be taken orally

A

False

204
Q

Alpha 2 agonistic receptors are blocked by what drugs?

A

Clonidine and Catapres which have negative feeback and control hypertension and lower BP

205
Q

Alpha 2 antagonistic receptors are blocked by?

A

Yohimbine and rasies BP, erectile disfuction

206
Q

Beta 1 agonist receprots are blocked by?

A

Dobutamine which raises heart rate and contraction strength

207
Q

Beta 1 antagonistic receptors are blocked by?

A

Metoprolol and Atenolol which lower heart rate and control hypertension also refered to as betablockers

Propanol blocks both beta one and 2 but can exacerbate asthma

208
Q

Beta 2 agonsitic receptors are blocked by?

A

Terbutaline and Albuteral that dialate bronchioles but create constipation

209
Q

Muscarinis cholinergic agonistic receptors are blocked by?

A

Metacholine and Pilocardine dialating broncioles and Pilocardine contrcits pupils

210
Q

Muscarinic cholenergic antagonisitic recepectors are bocked by?

A

Atropine which causes muscle relaxation

211
Q

Drug affecting Nicotinic cholinergic agonistic receptors is?

A

nicotine

212
Q

Druge affecting Nicotinic cholinergic antagonistic receptors?

A

D-tubocucarine causing significant muscle relaxation

213
Q

Cholinergic receptors are always ___________ stimulatory

A

ALWAYS

214
Q

Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia are lonotropic which means they?

A

create ion channels for Na+ and K+

215
Q

Muscarinic receptors on viseral organs can be inhibitory or stimulatory and ultimatley open?

A

a K+, Ca2+, or Na+ channel

216
Q

Nonadrenergic non chilinergic fibers are?

A

Neurotransmitter including ATP, vasoactive intestinal peptide and nitric oxide

217
Q

What are complementary effects?

A

both divisions produce a similar effect on target cell

218
Q

Describe how salivary glands work with nervous system

A

parasympathetic-secretion of watery salvia

Sympathetic-thickens saliva

219
Q

What are cooperative effects?

A

both divisions produce different effects that work together to promote a single action

220
Q

An example of cooperative effects are?

A

erection and ejaculation
para-vasodilation causing erection
sympa-ejaculation

OR urination
para-contracts bladder
symp-maintains muscle tone

221
Q

Organs with dual innervation involve what division of the nervous system only?

A

sympa

222
Q

An example of organs with dual innervation are?

A

adrenal medulla, arrector pili muscles of skin and many blood vessels

223
Q

Baroreceptors are part of the ________ and are what?

A

Autonomic NS and are specialized stretch receptors in blood vessels

224
Q

Chemoreceptors are part of the ________ and are what?

A

Autonomic nervous system and detect changes in pH and chemical concentration

225
Q

Sensory input to the brain’s integrating center modify?

A

the actions of pregang. neurons

226
Q

The medulla oblongata is responsible for?

A

cardiovascular, pulmonary, urinary and reproductive functions

227
Q

The hypothalamus is?

A

the main reguatory center for ANS and controls body temp, hunger and thirst

228
Q

The limbic system is?

A

Autonomic and responds during emotional stress

229
Q

The cerebeluum is responsible for?

A

motion sickness

230
Q

The telencephalon is responsible for?

A

emothions and ‘person’

231
Q

Aging is caused by the?

A

sympa. nervous system

232
Q

What are the two types of glands in body?

A

endocrine-ductless

exocrine-ducts

233
Q

Hormones act on ______ _____ and these have receptors for the specific hormones.

A

target cells

234
Q

What are some examples of organs that secrete hormones?

A

Heart, liver, kidneys, skin and stomach

235
Q

Neurohormones are secreted by the?

A

hypothalamus

236
Q

Monoamines such as epinephrine and norepinephine are produced by the?

A

adrenal medulla

237
Q

Inuslin is made up of?

A

2 polypeptide chains

238
Q

Both lutenizing hormone (LH) and follical stimulating hormone are both examples of

A

glycoproteins

239
Q

Exmaples of sex steroids are>

A

Estrogen, testosterone

corticosteroids

240
Q

coticosteriods are produced in

A

adrenal cortext

241
Q

Both steroids and thyroid hormones are?

A

lipophilic and hydrophobic

242
Q

What is special about lipophilic and hydrophobic hormones? In regards to medicine

A

They can be taken orally because they dont break down in digestive track

243
Q

Polar water soluble hormones cannot be taken?

A

orally becauses they cannot cross the membrane so they must be injected

244
Q

What are Pre-hormones?

A

a molecule released by endocine gland when altered by target cell becomes functioning hormone

245
Q

An example of a pre-hormone is?

A

insulin is produced from proinsulin

246
Q

What are the differences between neurotransmitters and hormones?

A
  • both interact with specific receptors

- mechanisms to turnoff target cell activity

247
Q

Sex steroids are produced in the?

A

gonads

248
Q

Corticosteroids are produced in the?

A

adrenal cortex

249
Q

9-cis retinoicacid is produced? and is a member of the?

A

from vitamin A

thyroid hormone family

250
Q

Calictrol is produced from? and is a member of?

A

vitamin D

Thyroid hormone family

251
Q

The steroid hormone family ___________ in the blood

A

can’t be dissolved

252
Q

Nuclear proetins (nuclear hormone receptors) ac tin?

A

the nucleus

253
Q

Where do transcription factors bond?

A

bond to gene promoter and turn transcription on and off

254
Q

What are the two domains of the Nuclear factors?

A

ligand binding domain for hormone

DNA binding domain for hormone response (element on DNA)

255
Q

What are the steps for how a steroid hormone function?

A

1) SH to carrier protein
2) detach from carrier
3) enter target
4) attach to nuclear receptor protein
5) translocated into nucleus
6) binds to half-site on DNA (hormone response element)
7) Another hormone/nuclear receptor binds to 2nd half site
8) dimerize into homodimer
9) Transcription is turned on of off

256
Q

Estrogen helps in bone by?

A

preventing osteoporosis

257
Q

Thyroid hormone is produced from

A

tyrosine

258
Q

What are the steps in the Thyroid hormone mechanism of action

A

1) Produced from tyrosine
2) 4 iodine atoms 3
- tetraiodothyronine or thyroxonine or triodothyronine
3) thryroxine binding globulin carrier protein
4) Forms heterodimer-first half sight has TR receptor and 2nd half sight has RXR
5) Turns transcription on and off

259
Q

9-cis retinoic acid is the receptor for what? and what does it do?

A

Receptor for thyroid hormone and turns transcription on or off

260
Q

What is the mechanism for Adenylate cyclase (cAMP) which contains monoamines, polypeptides and glycoproteins?

A

1) Hormone binds receptor
2) G protein moves through membrane
3) G protein turns on Adenylate cyclase
4) Adenylate cyclase uses ATP to become cAMP
5) cAMP inadvertantly acticates protein kinase by binding to regulatory subunit
6) Proein kinase phosphorylates proteins

261
Q

To turn off protein kinase-

A

1) protein phosphorylated
2) cAMP destroyed by PDE
3) G proteins shut themselves off

262
Q

What is the mechanism for Alpha Adrenergic receptors

A

1) Hormone binds to regulator
2) G -protein foes its thing
3) G-protein actives phospholipase
4) Phospholipase C takes a membrane phospholipid IP# & DAG
5) IP3 binds to Ca2+ ligand channels in ER
6) Ca2+ open and Ca2+ rushes into cell from ER
7) Ca2+ binds to calmodulin
8) Ca2+/calmodulin complex formed
9) Ca2+/calmodulin complex turns on protein kinases which generate ESP and cause vasocontriction of blood vessels on skin viscera

263
Q

To turn off Alpha Adrengergic Receptors

A

1) IP3 phosphatase breaks down IP3
2) Ca2+ pump in ER mem stops
3) G-proteins turn themselves off

264
Q

depolarization is also referred to as a?

A

EPSP (excitatory post synaptic potential)

265
Q

hyperpolarization is refered to as a ?

A

IPSP(inhibitory post-synaptic poteintial)

266
Q

to summate means?

A

to amplify one another

267
Q

to integrate means?

A

to cancel one another

268
Q

Where does ACH bond?

A

to skeletal muscle cells

269
Q

What is a agonists for acetylcholine?

A

muscarine (mushroom poision)

Physiology (7 decks)

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