Test 4-Renal & Urological Flashcards
1
Q
Decreased perfusion of the kidneys activates what system?
A
RAAS
2
Q
The RAAS system increases what?
A
Sodium and water retention (can lead to hypertension)
3
Q
Kidneys produce _____ to increase red blood cells
A
Erythropoietin
4
Q
Kidneys synthesize ______ which helps absorb _______
A
Vitamin D; Calcium
5
Q
Failing kidneys does what to RBCs
A
lowers them
6
Q
What happens to calcium levels in the blood in kidney failure?
A
Hypocalcemia
7
Q
A problem before the kidneys
A
Prerenal dysfunction
8
Q
A problem after the kidneys
A
Postrenal dysfunction
9
Q
Results from an injury to the kidney itself
A
Intrarenal dysfunction
10
Q
What causes intrarenal dysfunction?
A
Nephrotoxic drugs, streptococcal infections, and systemic diseases
11
Q
What causes prerenal failure?
A
Heart failure, trauma, and shock
12
Q
Prerenal failure occurs when?
A
Blood flow and perfusion to the kidneys is reduced
13
Q
Postrenal failure occurs when?
A
An obstruction prevents outflow from the kidneys
14
Q
What is the classic back pain sign from the kidneys called?
A
Costovertebral angle pain
15
Q
Blood in the urine
A
Hematuria
16
Q
Proteins in the urine
A
Proteinuria
17
Q
Measures urine concentration
A
Specific Gravity
18
Q
Glucose in the urine most commonly results from what?
A
Hyperglycemia (can indicate diabetes)
19
Q
What can be seen in urine after intense exercise?
A
Proteins
20
Q
What in the urine may indicate damage to structures of the renal system?
A
Blood
21
Q
What in the urine may indicate liver damage?
A
Bilirubin and Urobilinogen
22
Q
What in the urine may indicate an infection of the renal system?
A
Nitrates and leukocyte esterase
23
Q
What are 2 waste products that should be filtered and removed by the kidneys?
A
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and Creatinine
24
Q
Increased _____________ may indicate reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A
serum creatinine
25
An increase in BUN levels
Azotemia
26
What are two forms of kidney dialysis?
1. Peritoneal dialysis
| 2. Hemodialysis
27
What is the most common urological problem?
Obstruction
28
Distention of the renal pelvis
Hydronephrosis
29
Dilation of the ureter
Hydroureter
30
Stones located anywhere in the urinary tract
Urolithiasis
31
Stones can be categorized based off of what?
Their location
32
What is the most common cause of UTIs?
E. coli
33
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is diagnosed when?
2 consecutive urine cultures grow a colony count exceeding 100,000 bacteria
34
Bladder walls shows small tears and hemorrhages when the bladder is distended
Non-ulcerative interstitial cystitis
35
A lesion called a Hunner ulcer is present on histological exam of the bladder wall
Ulcerative interstitial cystitis
36
What interstitial cystitis (IC) is relieved with attempts to empty the bladder?
Ulcerative IC
37
What is the most common form of bladder cancer?
Transitional cell carcinoma
38
Doctor who cares for the kidneys
Nephrologist
39
Doctor who cares for the whole renal/urological system
Urologist
40
What is excessive in parathyroid conditions?
Calcium
41
Kidneys are a major player in _____ excretion
Potassium
42
Kidneys maintain what balance?
Acid-Base (Bicarbonate: Metabolic Buffer)
43
Kidneys make sure there is not too much or too little what in the body?
Water
44
What percentage of the body's blood is filtered through the kidneys?
20%
45
Kidneys require ______ pressure to function
Hydrostatic
46
Blood begins process of filtration pushed through hydrostatic pressure through what part of the Nephron?
Bowman's Capsule
47
The amount of blood filtered the glomerulus per minute
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
48
At what age does the GFR decrease?
30 years old
49
What part of the Nephron does more water absorption than electrolytes take place?
Proximal tubule
50
What part of the Nephron does more electrolyte absorption than water take place?
Distal tubule
51
What part of the Nephron is where most water and salt is reabsorbed and urea is excreted?
Loop of Henle
52
The breakdown product of muscle excreted by the kidneys
Creatinine
53
Increased creatinine indicates what?
Kidneys are not functioning properly
54
What creatinine test is the more common lab test?
Serum
55
A ________ GFR indicates decreased renal function
Decreased
56
________ levels of BUN indicate decreased renal function
Increased
57
Urea is what kind of waste?
Nitrogenous
58
What are the risk factors for kidney stones?
- Dehydration
- Hypercalcemia
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Gout
59
What kind of diet should people with recurrent kidney stones avoid?
Purine diet (Meats)
60
The formational of stone (calculi) in the kidney.
Nephrolithiasis
61
Nephrotic Syndrome is caused by:
- HTN
- Glomerulonephritis
- Diabetes
- Autoimmune
62
What is the pathology of Nephrotic Syndrome?
Endothelial cell and basement membrane damage leads to loss of protein (albumin) leads to edema because of decreased oncotic pressure
63
Infection of the kidney
Nephritis
64
Clinical presentation of Nephrotic Syndrome
- Albuminera
- Low blood albumin levels
- Edema
65
60% of Acute Kidney Injuries (AKI) are _____ disorders
Prerenal
66
What are the first organs to sense a drop in blood pressure?
Kidneys
67
What are the four phases of AKI?
1. Initial insult (condition disrupts kidney function)
2. Oliguria (low GFR, low urine output, fluid overload)
3. Diuresis (large unconcentrated urine outflow)
4. Recovery (healthy nephrons take over function of damaged nephrons)
68
What is the patho of AKI?
Decreased GFR of the blood leads to azotemia, high serum creatinine, and fluid retention
69
The higher the category of CKD in GFR indicates what?
The higher level of disease
70
What neurological condition is caused from Chronic Renal Failure?
Encephalopathy (Causes confusion, stupor, and coma)
71
What conditions in the blood result because of CRF?
Anemia and Thrombocytopenia
72
What electrolyte and mineral imbalances happen because of CRF?
Potassium, Calcium, and Vitamin D
73
Where is peritoneal dialysis inserted?
Through the abdomen
74
What is hemodialysis given through?
- a central line
| - arteriovenous fistula (vibrates)
75
What in males can cause an urological obstruction?
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
76
Obstruction of the kidneys can lead to:
Hydronephrosis and hydroureter
77
Symptoms of nephritis:
Fever, chills, pain, CVA tenderness, frequency, dysuria
78
Infection of the bladder
Cystitis
79
How does cystitis occur?
When bacteria enters the bladder
80
What symptoms present in elderly with a UTI?
- confusion
- disorientation
- hyptotension
81
UTIs in elderly can lead to what?
Urosepsis (caused by bacterial endotoxins)
82
Inflammation of the bladder not associated with a known bacteria
Interstitial cystitis
83
What does micturate mean?
To urinate
84
When the endocrine system is in dysfunction what is the body suffering from?
Hormone deficiency
Hormone excess
Hormone resistance
85
What are the three keys to understanding the disorders of the endocrine system?
1. normal functioning
2. hypofunction vs hyperfunction
3. location of the dysfunction
86
The regulatory link that keeps the body's hormones in balance
negative feedback system
87
The hypothalamus secretes what?
Corticotropin-Releasing Factor (CRF)
88
CRF stimulates what?
The pituitary gland
89
Pituitary gland secretes what?
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
90
ACTH stimulates what?
The adrenal gland
91
The adrenal gland secretes what?
Cortisol
92
What gland senses increased levels of cortisol?
The pituitary gland
93
When the negative feedback system fails, what does it result in?
Dysregulation of hormones
94
When the endocrine gland secretes an inadequate amount of hormone
Hypofunction
95
When the endocrine gland secretes an excessive amount of hormone
Hyperfunction
96
The endocrine gland itself causes the dysfunction is what type of endocrine disorder?
Primary
97
The pituitary gland causes the dysfunction is what kind of endocrine disorder?
Secondary
98
The hypothalamus is the root of dysfunction in an endocrine disorder
Tertiary
99
The pituitary is comprised of how many sections?
1. Anterior pituitary
| 2. Posterior pituitary
100
What tropic hormones does the anterior pituitary gland release?
FSH, LH, Adrenocorticotropic hormone, TSH, Prolactin, Growth Hormone
101
What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?
ADH and oxytocin
102
ADH and oxytocin are created where?
Hypothalamus
103
Disorders of ADH result from
fluctuating water and ADH levels
104
Occurs from a lack of secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary
Central diabetes insipidus
105
What is SIADH?
Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH
106
Overproduction of ADH
SIADH
107
What glands regulate the body's metabolism?
Thyroid glands
108
Insufficient levels of T3 and T4
Hypothyroidism
109
Symptoms of hypothyroidism
- weight gain
- fatigue
- feelings of being cold
- decreased heart rate
- confusion
110
The most common cause of hypothyroidism
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
111
Excessive amounts of T3 and T4
Hyperthyroidism
112
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
- Weight loss
- Tremors
- Increased HR
- Feelings of being warm
113
The most common cause of thyroid hyperfunction
Grave's disease
114
Four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland
Parathyroid
115
________ hormone regulates calcium levels
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
116
Parathyroid hormone lowers _______ levels
Phosphate
117
Parathyroid dysfunctions come in which 2 forms?
1. Primary (problem with PTH itself)
| 2. Secondary (due to problems w/calcium levels)
118
How does primary hypoparathyroidism occur?
Due to the destruction or removal of the PTH glands
119
Lack of PTH results in what 2 conditions?
Hypocalcemia and Hyperphosphatemia
120
How does secondary hypoparathyroidism occur?
From any disorder that causes hypercalcemia
121
What is the main cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Tumors of the parathyroid gland
122
What typically causes secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Kidney failure (lowers calcium levels)
123
What is the work horse of the body?
The adrenal gland
124
How many parts does the adrenal gland consist of?
The cortex and the medulla
125
What does the adrenal cortex produce?
- Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
- Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
- Androgens
126
What is the adrenal cortex stimulated by?
- CRH from the hypothalamus
| - ACTH from the anterior pituitary
127
What does the adrenal medulla produce?
- Epinephrine
| - Norepinephrine
128
Why does the adrenal medulla release epinephrine and norepinephrine?
In response to SNS activation
129
What is the condition characterized by a lack of hormones from the adrenal cortex?
Addison's Disease
130
Decreased cortisol causes what?
Hypoglycemia
131
Decreased aldosterone has what effect on sodium and potassium?
Decreased sodium; increases potassium
132
Reduced androgens may suppress what in women?
Libido
133
Due to a pituitary disorder in which not enough ACTH is produced
Secondary adrenal insufficiency
134
An excess of adrenal cortex hormones results in what condition?
Cushing's disease
135
A tumor of the pituitary gland produces elevated
ACTH
136
What does elevated ACTH do to blood glucose
Increases it (decreases wound healing)
137
What condition is characterized by a moon face and buffalo hump?
Cushing's disease
138
A hyperactive adrenal gland disorder characterized by high cortisol; ACTH is low
Cushing's syndrome
139
Prolonged used of ___________ can result in Cushing's syndrome
Corticosteroids
140
A disorder of the adrenal medulla (hallmark of adrenal excess)---increases epinephrine and norepinephrine
Pheochromocytoma
141
Disease of glucose regulation
Diabetes
142
Elevated glucose in the blood
Hyperglycemia
143
Which cells of the pancreas release insulin?
Beta cells
144
What helps move glucose from the blood and into body cells?
Insulin
145
Low glucose in the blood
Hypoglycemia
146
Stimulates the liver to release glucose in the blood
Glucagon
147
Which diabetes is characterized by the lack of insulin?
Type 1 Diabetes
148
Pancreas can produce insulin, but the cells have become resistant to accept it
Type 2 Diabetes
149
Risk factors for type 2 diabetes
- obesity
| - lack of activity
150
Three common tests to test for diabetes include:
1. Fasting blood glucose level
2. Oral glucose tolerance test
3. Glycated hemoglobin test (A1c test)
151
How many months does the A1c monitor?
the preceding 3 months
152
Which diabetes always needs insulin?
Type 1 diabetes
153
What are the three lifestyle modifications when treating diabetes?
1. Diet (50% carbs; 30% fats; 20% proteins)
2. Exercise
3. Health Maintenance
154
Which organ produces glucose?
Liver
155
Which organ absorbs insulin?
Small intestine
156
Which organ releases insulin?
Pancreas
157
Which medicines help the pancreas produce insulin?
Sulfonylureas and Meglitinides
158
What two things do biguanides and thiazolidinediones do?
1. prevents the liver from producing more glucose for the blood
2. help cells become more sensitive to insulin
159
What are the two categories of insulin?
1. Conventional
| 2. Insulin analogues
160
What is insulin classified off of?
Onset of action
| Rapid acting, Intermediate acting, Long-acting
161
High blood glucose levels damage what cells?
Endothelial
162
The three classic symptoms of diabetes
Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
163
What is the endocrine system consisted of?
- Glands
- Specialized cell clusters
- Hormones
164
What is the role of the endocrine system?
- Regulates the body's metabolic activities
| - Maintains homeostasis
165
What are the three processes of endocrine dysfunction?
- hormone deficiency
- hormone excess
- hormone resistance
166
What are the causes of endocrine dysfunction?
- autoimmunity
- chemical mediator dysfunction
- tumor
- trauma/ischemia
- removal
167
A disorder characterized by the body making too little ADH from the posterior pituitary or lack of response from the kidneys to ADH
Diabetes Insipidus
168
What does Diabetes Insipidus cause?
The body to lose too much water, leads to dehydration, frequent urination and thirst. Can cause confusion.
169
What is the effect of SIADH?
The body holds on to water which leads to fluid volume overload, hyponatremia, weakness, confusion, and H/A
170
What is another name from Acromegaly?
Gigantism
171
What are some symptoms of acromegaly?
- Large jaws and facial bones
| - Large hands, feet, and long bones
172
An autoimmune destruction of the thyroid, a congenital condition called cretinism, lack of iodine, or lack of stimulation due to lack of TSH from the anterior pituitary are causes of what condition?
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
173
An autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid, thyroiditis, tumors of the thyroid, too much iodine intake, excessive stimulation of TSH from the anterior pituitary are all causes of what condition?
Grave's Disease
174
What condition causes lethargy, hypotension, N&V, anorexia, hypoglycemia, aldosterone imbalance leading to hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, darkening of the skin and mucous membranes, personality change and emotional lability?
Addison's Disease
175
Which condition can cause weight gain in the central area of the body, facial edema, stretch marks, hirsutism, fat on the cervico-thoracic region?
Cushing's Disease/Syndrome
176
Diabetes is a disorder of _________ metabolism.
Carbohydrate
177
High blood glucose damages what cells?
Endothelial
178
High blood glucose promotes an environment that prevents healthy cell healing and promotes _______ growth.
Pathogen
179
What will be in a person's urine with diabetes?
Sugar or Ketones (Glycosuria/Ketonuria)
180
What are the normal capillary blood sugars?
70-100 mg/dL
181
What is the normal Hgb A1C levels for a person without diabetes?
<5.7
182
In a patient with diabetes, what does the ADA recommend for their A1C levels?
<6.5
183
Why is C-Peptide looked at in Diabetes?
Because when insulin is secreted, so is C-Peptide. Low or absent C-Peptide levels indicate type 1 diabetes
184
How many months does the A1C look at?
Previous 3 months (due to the hemoglobin turnover rate)
185
Why are minimal ketones present in Type 2 Diabetes?
Because insulin is present, so fat is not broken done
186
Why are ketones present in Type 1 Diabetes?
Cells think they are starving so the body compensates by breaking down fat which results into fatty acids that are converted to ketones
187
Which type of diabetes leads to a state of metabolic acidosis?
Type 1
188
A symptom of DKA that involves hyperventilation as the body attempts to compensate for metabolic acidosis through the respiratory system by blowing off CO2
Kussmaul's respiration
189
Which diabetes is characterized by ketone breath/body odor?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (Type 1)
190
What are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
- Shaking
- Sweating
- Anxious
- Dizziness
- Hunger
- Tachycardia
- Impaired Vision
- Weakness/Fatigue
- Headache
- Irritable
191
What is the 15 x 15 rule in acute hypoglycemia?
Treat with 15 gm of carbs and recheck the blood sugars in 15 minutes
192
What are the long term complications of diabetes?
- Cerebrovascular disease
- Retinopathy
- Heart disease
- Nephropathy
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Poor WBC function
- PAD
- Peripheral neuropathy
193
The disorders of the upper GI tract affect what?
- esophagus
- stomach
- small intestine
194
What are some self-induced causes of upper GI disorders?
- smoking
- alcohol abuse
- frequent use of NSAIDs
195
Difficulty swallowing; what causes it?
Dysphagia (normally result of neuromuscular dysfunction)
196
stomach acid that flows backwards, enters the esophagus, and causes pain/discomfort; what causes it?
GERD (happens when the LES does not close properly)
197
Inflammation of the esophagus; what causes it?
Esophagitis (can arise from acid reflux, candida albicans infection, or ingestion of chemicals)
198
Upper GI bleeding (UGIB) can lead to what?
- Hematemesis: blood in vomit
| - Melena: blood in stool
199
What is a condition in the esophagus that is typically a result of hepatic portal hypertension?
Esophageal varices
200
A portion of the stomach that pushes upward through the opening in the diaphragm which disrupts the closure of the LES
hiatal hernia
201
A condition in the pyloric valve that prevents the stomach from emptying normally
Pyloric Stenosis
202
An inflammatory erosion of the stomach or duodenal lining
Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)
203
What are some causes of PUD (peptic ulcer disease)?
- H. Pylori Infection
- NSAIDs
- stress
- caffeine
- smoking
204
What is a symptom of PUD?
Pain between meals that is alleviated with eating
205
The rapid emptying of gastric contents
Dumping syndrome
206
How many forms can gastritis occur?
2
1. Acute- usually caused from medications (NSAIDs)
2. Chronic- H. Pylori most common cause
207
Infections of the small intestine, stomach, and large intestine lead to what?
Gastroenteritis
208
What causes gastroenteritis?
- Norovirus
- E-Coli (157)
- Salmonella
- Shigella
- C-Diff
209
What is the most common symptom of gastroenteritis?
Diarrhea
210
An autoimmune response to a gluten-derived peptide that causes inflammation in the intestinal villi?
Celiac disease
211
How can celiac disease be confirmed?
Through antibody testing and an intestinal biopsy
212
Inflammation of the peritoneal membrane
Peritonitis
213
What is the cause of peritonitis?
Caused by bacterial infection or leakage of intestinal contents
214
What are the triad of symptoms of peritonitis?
- abdominal pain
- rigidity
- rebound tenderness
215
Affects the entire GI tract and the whole thickness of the GI wall
Crohn's Disease
216
Which disease has skip lesions and cobblestoning?
Crohn's Disease
217
Affects only the large intestine, begins in the rectum and extends upwards
Ulcerative Colitis
218
What layers of the intestinal wall are effected in Crohn's disease?
Upper layers only
219
Formation of an anal fistula and anal fissure are common in what disease?
Crohn's disease
220
Pseudopolyps are common in what disease?
Ulcerative colitis
221
Inflammation of the appendix resulting from blockage of the appendix and bacterial growth
Appendicitis
222
What is the pH of the stomach?
1.5-2
223
Small outpouchings of the weakened intestinal wall that become inflammed
Diverticulitis
224
What are the three alterations in motility of the large intestine?
1. irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2. Bowel obstruction
3. Volvulus
225
When the motor functions of the bowel slow down or increase?
Irritable bowel syndrome (can be bouts of diarrhea, constipation, and abdominal distention)
226
What is the etiology of IBS?
no known etiology
227
What is the physical obstruction of the bowel called?
Mechanical obstruction
228
What is a nonmechanical obstruction of the bowel?
Weakened intestinal muscles
229
What are the bowel sounds in a complete bowel obstruction?
there are no sounds
230
When the large intestine becomes twisted
Volvulus
231
What can a volvulus lead to?
Bowel obstruction and ischemia
232
What are the roles of the liver?
- Body's processing plant
- Aids in digestion
- Aids in fat, protein, and carbohydrate metabolism
- Filters and detoxifies the blood
- Synthesizes albumin
- Converts bilirubin
233
What is the most common cause of dysphagia?
Stroke
234
Elevated Bilirubin levels in the blood
Hyperbilirubinemia
235
Why does hyperbilirubinemia occur?
- increased RBC hemolysis
- hepatocellular injury
- bile duct obstruction
236
What causes an UGIB?
- Peptic ulcer disease (generally in stomach or lower intestine)
- Alcoholism
237
Elevated bilirubin can result in what physical symptom?
Jaundice (yellowing of the skin)
238
Portal hypertension increases the risk of what?
- Esophageal varices
| - Upper GI bleed
239
How does portal hypertension occur?
Blood comes from the GI tract, which normally goes to the liver, but begins to back up
240
Dilated, superficial veins that become visible around the umbilicus
Caput Medusa
241
The enlargement of the liver is called what
hepatomegaly
242
What can liver damage lead to?
- hepatomegaly
- RUQ tenderness
- decreased coagulation factors (clotting disorders/prolonged PT)
- elevated ammonia levels
- caput medusa
243
Who does hiatal hernia occur most in?
The elderly
244
What do liver function tests measure?
hepatic injury
245
Hepatocellular injury can be measuring by checking for what liver enzymes?
- Aspartame aminotransferase (AST)
| - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
246
Inflammation of the liver
Hepatitis
247
Which form of hepatitis are transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
Hep A & E
248
Which form of hepatitis is primarily transmitted via blood through IV drug usage?
Hep C
249
Which form of hepatitis is spread by blood products, body fluids, and sexual contact?
Hep B
250
One of the most common liver disorders in the United States
Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
251
Epigastric and/or abdominal pain is usually present how long after eating in PUD?
2-3 hours
252
Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with what syndrome?
Metabolic
253
Which hepatitis may present as an acute, reversible condition?
Alcoholic hepatitis
254
What does alcohol do to the liver?
Damages it; alcohol is a toxin to the liver
255
What are three accessory organs that participate in the function of the GI tract
- gallbladder
- pancreas
- biliary duct
256
Dysfunction in the gallbladder can affect dysfunction in what other organ?
Pancreas (and visa versa)
257
Inflammation of the gallbladder
Cholecystitis
258
Cholelithiasis
Gallstones
259
What are the most common gallstones?
Cholesterol stones
260
What are the risk factors of the gallbladder disease?
- age
- female disease
- obesity
261
What are the symptoms of gallbladder disease
- nausea
- vomiting (especially after high fat meals)
- RUQ pain that radiates to the shoulder area
262
Biliary duct obstruction can lead to what?
Liver dysfunction
263
Increase in the osmotic load presented to the intestinal lumen because of diminished absorption
Osmotic diarrhea
264
Mucosa lining is inflamed, edematous, and unable to reabsorb fluid or nutrients
Inflammatory diarrhea
265
Occurs when an organism stimulates the intestine to secret fluid and mucus
Secretory diarrhea
266
Caused by intestinal neuromuscular disorders
Motility diarrhea
267
Biliary duct obstruction can lead to what in the bloodstream?
Bilirubin and bile salts
268
When pancreatic dysfunction occurs, the pancreas is vulnerable to _________
autodigestion (pathophysiology of pancreatitis)
269
Inflammation of the pancreas
Pancreatitis
270
What are the two types of pancreatitis?
1. acute
| 2. chronic
271
Celiac disease leads to malabsorption of what essential nutrients?
- Vitamin D
- Vitamins
- Fat
- Proteins
- FeSO4
272
Small intestines are often due to _________
surgical adhesions or scar tissue
273
What is the number 1 cause of chronic pancreatitis?
Heavy alcohol use
274
Pancreatic calcifications observed on an abdominal xray are conditied pathological signs of what condition?
Chronic pancreatitis
275
Pancreatic cancer has a _____ mortality rate
high
276
Cancer of the pancreas most commonly arises from where?
Ductal cells
277
Signs and symptoms of pancreatic cellular damage include:
- elevation of pancreatic amylase and lipase in blood
- sudden onset of paint that radiates to back
- Cullen and Grey Turner sign (indicates bleeding in retroperitoneal area)
278
How long do you have to listen for absent bowel sounds?
5 minutes
279
Which inflammatory bowel disease can predispose to colon cancer?
Ulcerative colitis
280
Varicosities of the lower rectum that includes pain, burning and itching
Hemorrhoids
281
Bleeding in the stool that is bright red comes from ________
large intestine
282
The presence of diverticula is called
diverticulosis
283
Unconjugated bilirubin is often _______
prehepatic (typically seen in newborns)
284
Conjugated process is often _______
intrahepatic
285
Posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia happens where?
After the liver
286
What is another name for jaundice?
Icterus
287
Signs of liver dysfunction
- elevated bilirubin levels
- low albumin
- prolonged bleeding times
- elevated liver functions (AST and ALT)
288
Symptoms of hepatitis
- dark urine
- splenomegaly
- jaundice
- Flu-like symptoms: anorexia, fatigue, fever, nausea, vomiting
- hepatomegaly
289
Cirrhosis and liver failure decreases what liver functions?
- detoxification
- bile synthesis and fat digestion
- albumin synthesis
290
Why can dysfunction of the gall bladder lead to dysfunction of the pancreas?
-the common bile duct becomes obstructed with gallstones
291
Who are most likely to develop gallstones?
-Full, fertile, females over 40; high calorie; high cholesterol diets
292
Alcohol ______ damages cells of the pancreas.
directly
293
Collection of fluid rich in pancreatic enzymes, blood, and necrotic tissue; if ruptures, can lead to relapse of pancreatitis.
Pseudocyst of the pancreas
294
What is amylase and lipase?
Digestive enzymes
