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Pathophysiology > Test 3-Cardiac/Respiratory > Flashcards

Test 3-Cardiac/Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

The collapse of a small number of alveoli, resulting in decreased gas exchange.

A

Atelectasis

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2
Q

Bloody sputum

A

Heoptysis

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3
Q

Abnormally increased breathing

A

Tachypnea

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4
Q

The process of inspiration/expiration of air through the pulmonary airways.

A

Ventilation

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5
Q

The movement of blood through the pulmonary circulation

A

Perfusion

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6
Q

When oxygen combines loosely with the heme portion of hemoglobin

A

Oxyhemoglobin

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7
Q

Increase in carbon dioxide

A

Hypercapnia

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8
Q

What kind of cells does the mucociliary apparatus contain?(2)

A
  • Ciliated epithelial cells

- Goblet cells

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9
Q

Where is the mucociliary apparatus located?

A

Located from the nasal passages to terminal bronchioles

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the mucociliary apparatus?

A

To remove allergens (infection prevention)

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11
Q

How does gas exchange work?

A

Oxygen and CO2 move through the alveolar capillary membrane.

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12
Q

The heart and lungs are __________.

A

Codependent

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of acute rhinitis?

A
  • Nasal discharge
  • Nasal congestion
  • Sneezing
  • Throat irritation
  • Possible fever
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14
Q

What is the inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nose called?

A

Acute Rhinitis

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15
Q

What virus causes acute rhinitis?

A

Rhinovirus

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16
Q

What is another name for acute rhinitis?

A

Common cold

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17
Q

What is the inflammation of the pharynx?

A

Pharyngitis

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18
Q

What bacteria causes acute pharyngitis?

A

beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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19
Q

What becomes impaired in acute rhinitis?

A

Mucociliary transport

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20
Q

What can acute pharyngitis be caused by?

A

Virus or bacteria

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21
Q

What is characterized by: swelling and red pharyngeal membranes and tonsils; enlarged lymph nodes; sore throat; fever?

A

Acute Pharyngitis

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22
Q

Infection of the facial sinuses and nose membranes?

A

Acute sinusitis

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23
Q

Acute sinusitis is caused by:

A

Virus or Bacteria

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24
Q

What is the clinical presentation of acute sinusitis?

A
  • Headache
  • Facial pain/pressure
  • Nasal obstruction
  • Fever
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25
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes-causing pharyngitis can cause what?

A

Strep throat

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26
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes if untreated can lead to:

A

Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, or glomerulonephritis

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27
Q

Infection of the tonsil is called _____ _______.

A

Acute Tonsillitis

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28
Q

What viruses can cause acute tonsillitis?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) or Adenovirus

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29
Q

Which bacteria causes acute tonsillitis?

A

Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus (most common)

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30
Q

What is the clinical presentation of acute tonsillitis?

A
  • swelling
  • erythema
  • difficulty swallowing
  • fever
  • sore throat
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31
Q

What is the infection and inflammation of the epiglottis called?

A

Epiglottitis

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32
Q

What is caused by respiration infection, exposure to chemicals, trauma, virus, or bacteria?

A

Epiglottitis

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33
Q

What condition can manifest as swelling which can lead to the blockage of airways?

A

Epiglottitis

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34
Q

What is the clinical presentation of epiglottitis?

A
  • Swelling

- Erythema

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35
Q

What is the inflammation of the larynx called?

A

Laryngitis

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36
Q

What causes laryngitis?

A

Virus

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37
Q

What is the clinical presentation of laryngitis?

A
  • High pitched cough
  • Hoarseness
  • Lose of voice
  • Stridor
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38
Q

What is stridor?

A

High-pitched lung sound upon inspiration

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39
Q

Pulmonary arterial vasconstriction is also called?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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40
Q

The sensation of being short of breath is called _______.

A

dyspnea

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41
Q

Insufficient oxygen levels in the blood to meet the needs of tissues is referred to as _______.

A

Hypoxia

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42
Q

What is responsible for the stimulation of RBC and is secretes in response to low O2 levels in the blood stream?

A

Erythropoietin

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43
Q

The normal stimulus to breathe is ________.

A

Hypercapnia

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44
Q

The inflammation of bronchioles.

A

Acute bronchitis

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45
Q

What is the etiology of bronchitis?

A

-virus or bacteria

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46
Q

What viruses are responsible for acute bronchitis?

A

Influenza or coronavirus

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47
Q

What bacteria can cause acute bronchitis?

A

Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)

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48
Q

What environmental factor can influence acute bronchitis?

A

Cigarette smoke

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49
Q

What is the pathology of Bronchitis?

A
  • inflammatory response
  • irritation and edema
  • diminished mucociliary function
  • airways become obstructed by WBCs and mucus
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50
Q

What is the clinical presentation of bronchitis?

A
  • pharyngeal erythema
  • rhinorrhea
  • wheezing and rhonchi
  • productive cough
  • stridor
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51
Q

Out of wheezing or stridor, which is more dangerous?

A

Stridor

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52
Q

Inflammation of lung tissue which causes fluid buildup in the alveolar spaces

A

Pneumonia

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53
Q

Are bacteria or viruses more common in Pneumonia?

A

Bacteria

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54
Q

Which bacteria are responsible for Pneumonia?

A
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
  • Legionella
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55
Q

Which viruses are responsible for Pneumonia?

A
  • Influenza
  • Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coronavirus
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56
Q

What are some risk factors for Pneumonia?

A
  • Immunosuppression (HIV/AIDS)
  • Cancers
  • Aspiration
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57
Q

What is the pathophysiology for pneumonia?

A
  • pathogens enter lung tissue
  • adheres to respiratory epithelium & stimulates inflammatory response
  • excessive stimulation of respiratory goblet cells
  • increase in edema and mucus
  • impaired gas exchange
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58
Q

Clinical presentation of pneumonia

A
  • cough
  • fever
  • chills
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • dyspnea
  • hemoptysis
  • tachypnea
  • cyanosis
  • crackles
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59
Q

What is caused by bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Tuberculosis

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60
Q

How is tuberculosis spread?

A

Airborne droplets

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61
Q

Who are at risk individuals of tuberculosis?

A
  • immunocompromised
  • crowded environments
    • nursing homes
    • prisons
    • healthcare workers
    • urban residents
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62
Q

The most common respiratory infection worldwide?

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

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63
Q

What is the period where TB lives in the body but is inactive?

A

Latent Period

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64
Q

Can TB spread when it is in its latent period?

A

No

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65
Q

Latent TB can lead to _______ TB.

A

Disease

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66
Q

True or False: TB disease can cause death if it is not treated.

A

True

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67
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Tuberculosis?

A
  • Droplets enter pathway
  • Bacilli multiply, causing inflammation
  • WBCs accumulate and wall off infection
  • Create tubercle and surrounding scar tissue
  • Bacteria multiply and damage lung tissue
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68
Q

What is the clinical presentation of tuberculosis?

A
  • Cough (most common)
  • Hemoptysis
  • Fever
  • Night sweats (key feature)
  • Weight loss
  • Crackles
  • Caseous necrosis (dormancy and reactivation)
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69
Q

What condition causes reversible bronchoconstriction?

A

Asthma

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70
Q

Which pulmonary disease is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles, impairment of the mucociliary movement, and is caused by either bacteria or a virus?

A

Bronchitis

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71
Q

What term describes when material from the oropharynx enters the lower respiratory tract?

A

Aspiration

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72
Q

When a patient coughs or sneezes, the body expels _______, which is exactly how tuberculosis and the coronavirus are transmitted.

A

Airborne droplets

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73
Q

Is asthma an acute or chronic disorder?

A

Chronic

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74
Q

What condition causes permanent inflammatory changes with each attack?

A

Asthma

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75
Q

What is the etiology of asthma?

A
  • Combination of genes and environment
  • Allergies
  • Cigarette smoke
  • Chemical fumes
  • Viral infections
  • Exercise
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76
Q

What is the pathophysiology of asthma?

A
  • Trigger
  • Bronchial constriction
  • Inflammation
  • Mucus secretion
  • T-lymphocytes (Th1 and Th2)
  • Immunogloblin E (IgE) activation and link to mast cells
  • Releases histamines
  • chemical mediators
  • Bronchial edema and constriction
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77
Q

Signs of asthma

A
  • airway inflammation
  • hypersecretion of mucus
  • airway muscle constriction
  • swelling bronchial membranes
  • coughing, wheezing, dyspnea
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78
Q

What is a combination of chronic bronchitis, emphysema, & hyperactive airway disease?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

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79
Q

Emphysema damages the elasticity of the alveoli, which results in air trapping which causes what _________?

A

Chest to have a barrel-shaped appearance

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80
Q

What is the etiology of COPD?

A
  • smoking
  • occupational exposures
  • environmental exposures
  • genetic susceptibility (rare)
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81
Q

What is the patho of COPD?

A

Chronic bronchitis + loss of alveolar elastic recoil=

Obstruction and sub-optimal oxygenation

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82
Q

True or False: COPD is a devastating condition, however it does not cause permanent remodeling of pulmonary structure.

A

False. It DOES cause permanent remodeling.

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83
Q

What is the clinical presentation of COPD?

A
  • worsening dyspnea
  • cough/wheezing
  • hypoxia (bronchitis)—> pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction
  • clubbing of fingers
  • right sided heart failure (cor pulmonale)
  • barrel shaped chest (emphysema)
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84
Q

The intermittent cessation of air flow from the upper airway during sleep is called ______.

A

Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

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85
Q

What is another name for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A

Hypoventilation syndrome

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86
Q

What is the clinical presentation of obstructive sleep apnea?

A
  • loud snoring
  • choking
  • gasping
  • unrestful sleep
  • daytime sleeping
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87
Q

What are the risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A
  • airway anatomy
  • obesity
  • neck circumference
  • alcohol
  • medications
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88
Q

What the characteristics of Pneumothorax?

A
  • collapsed lung
  • air in the pleural cavity
  • air presses against lung causing collapse
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89
Q

What is the etiology of pneumothorax?

A
  • chest trauma
  • rupture of the alveoli
  • medical/surgical procedures
  • spontaneous
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90
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a pneumothorax?

A
  • chest pain
  • dyspnea
  • increased respiratory rate (tachypnea)
  • lack of breath sounds on the affected sign
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91
Q

This condition is characterized by:

  • fluid around alveoli
  • inhibits oxygen transfer
  • increased pressure in the capillaries of the lungs
A

Pulmonary edema

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92
Q

Which condition has fluid in the pleural space?

A

Pleural effusion

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93
Q

What is the etiology of pulmonary edema?

A
  • LV heart failure
  • Mitral valve disease
  • Damage to capillary membranes
    • infection
    • inhaled chemicals
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94
Q

What is the clinical presentation of pulmonary edema?

A
  • Respiratory distress
  • Pink frothy sputum
  • Crackles
  • Confusion
  • Heart failure
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95
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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96
Q

What is a sudden progressive pulmonary edema condition?

A

ARDS

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97
Q

What is ARDS characterized by?

A

Diffuse alveolar injury and pulmonary capillary damage

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98
Q

What is the etiology of ARDS?

A
  • Following
    • sepsis
    • trauma
    • massive transfusion
    • drug overdose
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99
Q

True or False: ARDS is very difficult disease to survive.

A

True

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100
Q

Pathophysiology of ARDS

A
  • inflammatory response
  • release of cellular/chemical mediators
  • damage to alveolar-capillary membrane
  • fluid leaks into alveolar interstitial spaces
  • alveoli collapse
  • decrease lung compliance
  • inability to ventilate
  • hypoxia and hypercapnia
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101
Q

Clinical Presentation of ARDS

A
  • severe hypoxia
  • hypercapnia
  • shortness of breath
  • pink frothy sputum
  • multi-system organ failure
  • confusion, anxiety
  • tachycardia
  • acute kidney injury
102
Q

_____ are elastic and allow for vasodilation and vasoconstriction

A

Arteries

103
Q

Which system is blood brighter in?

A

Arterial

104
Q

The arterial system is a _____ pressure system.

A

Higher

105
Q

What is the most inner layer of the artery that is composed of endothelial cells and is reactive?

A

Tunica intima

106
Q

What is the middle layer of an artery that is composed of smooth muscle?

A

Tunica media

107
Q

What is the outer layer of an artery composed of connective tissue?

A

Tunica external

108
Q

Which part of the artery does injury mostly occur?

A

Tunica intima

109
Q

Which part of the artery protects and supports the artery?

A

Tunica external

110
Q

Which part of the artery deals with blood pressure?

A

Tunica media

111
Q

The pressure exerted on an artery wall by circulating blood

A

Blood pressure

112
Q

Senses pressure changes by responding to change in the tension of the arterial wall

A

Baroreceptors

113
Q

The amount of blood that the heart pumps in a min (mL/min)

A

Cardiac output

114
Q

The amount of blood ejected from the LEFT ventricles of the heart per contraction (mL/beat)

A

Stroke volume

115
Q

Resistance used to create blood pressure

A

peripheral vascular resistance

116
Q

BP =

A

CO X PVR

117
Q

How well the heart contracts

A

Contractility

118
Q

How do the arteries compensate for decreased BP?

A
  1. Baroreceptors sense drop in BP
  2. Triggers SNS
  3. Increased HR
  4. Arterial vasoconstriction
119
Q

How do the kidneys respond to a drop in blood pressure?

A
  1. Drop in perfusion sensed by kidneys
  2. Renin released
  3. Angiotensin I
  4. Angiotensin II
  5. Aldosterone
  6. Increased sodium and water reabsorption
  7. Increased blood volume and blood pressure
120
Q

How does the posterior pituitary gland respond to a drop in blood pressurre?

A
  1. Poor perfusion sensed by posterior pituitary gland
  2. ADH hormone released
  3. Acts to increase water reabsorption at duct
  4. Increase blood volume and blood pressure
121
Q

Elevated lipids in the bloodstream (cholesterol and triglycerides)

A

Hyperlipidemia

122
Q

Which lipoprotein is bad?

A

LDL (low density lipoprotein)

123
Q

Why is LDL bad?

A

Carries cholesterol to the endothelial layer of arteries

124
Q

Why is HDL good?

A

Carries extra cholesterol back to liver (liver extraction)

125
Q

What condition is characterized by fatty deposits around the eyes?

A

Xanthelasma

126
Q

What condition is characterized by arcus sennils?

A

Yellow ring around eyes

127
Q

What condition is characterized by fatty deposits under skin?

A

Xanthoma

128
Q

What are symptoms of Metabolic Syndrome (syndrome X)?

A

-Central obesity
-High BP
-High triglycerides
-Low HDL cholesterol
-Insulin resistance
(Lab tests run to find levels)

129
Q

What part of the artery does atherosclerosis affect?

A

Tunica intima

130
Q

What does athersclerosis cause??

A
  • Higher blood pressure

- Higher heart rate

131
Q

What modifiable factors cause atherosclerosis?

A
  • diabetes
  • obesity/diet
  • alcohol
  • smoking
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • high BP
132
Q

What nonmodifiable factors influence atherosclerosis?

A
  • Age (older)
  • Gender (men)
  • Genetics
133
Q

How does atherosclerosis develop?

A
  • Injury to endothelial cells in artery
  • LDL deposits at site of injury (WBCs engulf LDL)
  • Foam cells absorb LDL and forms plaque
  • Plaque forms and hypertrophies
  • Vasodilation capacity decreases (diameter closes)
  • Plaque calcifies over time (can break off and cause embolisms)
134
Q

What part of the artery does hypertension effect?

A

Tunica Media

135
Q

What health condition is considered the “silent killer”?

A

Hypertension

136
Q

What are the risk factors for primary hypertension?

A
  • age (older)
  • Race (African)
  • family hx
  • obesity/lifestyle
  • tobacco
  • diet excess salt
  • excessive alcohol
  • stress
137
Q

What are the causes of secondary HTN?

A
  • Cushing’s disease
  • Kidney disease
  • Drugs
  • neurogenic causes
  • Pheochromocytoma
138
Q

What is elevated BP related to?

A

Cardiovascular damage

139
Q

What does hypertension do to arteries?

A

Weakens them

140
Q

Hypertension causes higher resistance against _________?

A

Left ventricle

141
Q

The extra resistance against the left ventricle on the heart during HTN causes what to happen?

A

The left ventricle to hypertrophy

142
Q

What is peripheral arterial disease?

A

Atherosclerosis of extremely peripheral arteries

143
Q

What does PAD do?

A

Causes obstruction of blood flow

144
Q

Which vessels are mainly affected by PAD?

A

Femoral, iliac, tibial, popliteal

145
Q

_______ and _______ increases the risk of PAD by 3-4x

A

smoking and diabetes

146
Q

What is the clinical presentation of PAD?

A
  • pain distal to occlusion
  • cool skin
  • pallor (pale)
  • absent or weak pulse
  • paresthesia (pins/needles)
  • **DO NOT ELEVATE LEGS
147
Q

What is activity causing that has pain with movement, but stops when resting?

A

Intermittent claudication

148
Q

How many stages of PAD are there?

A 
4
I. Reduced pulses
II. Intermittent claudication
III. Pain when resting
IV. Ulcers (Necrosis occurs)
**Typically 3/4 bring patients in**
149
Q

Weakening in an artery (endothelial lining) that causes an area of bulging?

A

Aneurysm

150
Q

What is the risk of an aneurysm?

A

Rupturing

151
Q

What is the sequence of an aneurysm?

A
  • Bulging occurs
  • Wall weakens
  • Blood becomes stagnant/turbulent
  • Thrombus
  • Rupture
152
Q

When do symptoms of an aneurysm occur?

A

After the rupture

153
Q

What is a symptom of a cerebral aneurysm?

A
  • headache

- cranial nerve dysfunction

154
Q

What are symptoms of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A
  • back, abdominal, or flank pain
  • nausea or vomiting
  • Stomach may have pulse when patient is laying down
  • bruit/turbulent blood flow (swooshing)
155
Q

What carries 2/3 of the body’s blood volume and returns blood to the heart?

A

Veins

156
Q

Veins are a ______ pressure system

A

Low

157
Q

Why do veins have valves?

A

To prevent back flow

158
Q

True or False: Veins are collapsible

A

True

159
Q

What is the Virchow Triad?

A
  • Venous Stasis
  • Hypercoagulabilty
  • Vessel injury
160
Q

What is the Virchow triad in relation to?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis or Venus Thromboembolism

161
Q

How many types of veins are there?

A

2

Superficial and deep

162
Q

How does a pulmonary embolism occur?

A
  1. Blood clot breaks off
  2. Travels up to vena cava
  3. Passes through the heart
  4. Lodges in piece of lung
    * happens suddenly!*
163
Q

What is the clinical presentation of DVT/VTE?

A
  • swelling
  • warmth
  • tenderness
  • redness
164
Q

What are some risk factor of DVT/VTE?

A
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • lifestyle
  • cancer
  • pregnancy (5% greater risk)
  • birth control
  • surgery before long distance travel
165
Q

Symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency?

A
  • Swelling in lower legs
  • Aching or tiredness in legs
  • Leathery looking skin
  • new varicose veins
  • flaking or itching skin
  • stasis ulcers
166
Q

What is chronic venous insufficiency caused by?

A

Trauma
Pregnancy
Prolonged standing

167
Q

What does chronic venous insufficiency cause?

A

Damage to valves in the deep veins in the legs

168
Q

What does chronic venous insufficiency lead to?

A

Impaired Venous Return

Results in high venous pressure and stasis of blood

169
Q

What is the etiology of varicose veins?

A
  • Gender (women)
  • Environment (prolonged standing/sitting)
  • Pregnancy
  • Lifestyle (sedentary/obesity)
170
Q

Which veins does varicose veins occur in?

A

Superficial veins

171
Q

What causes varicose veins?

A

Veins valves become damages and cannot prevent back flow. Causes valves to bulge.

172
Q

Where does venous ulcers occur?

A

Lower extremities

173
Q

What causes venous ulcers?

A

Sluggish circulation leads to poor oxygenation which leads to impaired waste removal

174
Q

Clinical presentation of venous ulcers

A
  • dark red
  • uneven margins
  • painful
  • large amount of edema and drainage
  • pulses present
  • capillary refill is Normal
175
Q

What is the sequence of conduction through the heart?

A
  • Impulse
  • SA node (natural pacemaker)
  • AV node (helps contract ventricles)
  • Bundle of His
  • Purkinje Fibers
176
Q

What happens during atrial depolarization?

A

The SA node activates (P wave)

177
Q

What happens during ventricular depolarization?

A

The AV node activates (about to contract)

QRS wave

178
Q

What happens during ventricular repolarization?

A

The P fibers are activated

T wave

179
Q

What happen during atrial fibrillation?

A

Loss of control of the SA node

180
Q

What type of medication are people with A-Fib on?

A

Blood thinners

181
Q

When cardiac cells generate spontaneous action potentials?

A

Automaticity

182
Q

What happens during premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

A

The heart’s ventricles prematurely contract causing a person to have a fluttering feeling in chest

183
Q

What can happen to a patient during ventricular fibrillation?

A

Patient may pass out which

184
Q

Why can a patient pass out during ventricular fibrillation?

A

No blood is getting pumped out of the heart

185
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia?

A

The ventricles are pumping too fast

186
Q

What are clinical signs of ventricular tachycardia?

A

Low cardiac output (low BP/sweaty)

Heart doesn’t have enough time to pump blood

187
Q

What causes a third degree block?

A

There is a disconnect between the SA and AV nodes

188
Q

What is the clinical signs of a third degree block?

A

Low heart rate and cardiac output

189
Q

What are the two kinds of cardiac valve disease?

A
  1. Stenosis

2. Regurgitation

190
Q

What is stenosis of the heart valve?

A

Diseased tissue that doesn’t allow the valve to open properly

191
Q

What is regurgitation of the cardiac valves?

A

The blood back flows in the heart due to not closing properly.

192
Q

What causes ischemic heart disease?

A

Inadequate blood supply to the heart

193
Q

What is unstable angina?

A

New chest pain

194
Q

What causes myocardial infarction?

A

Cell death in the heart occurs?

195
Q

What type of MI is characterized by complete occlusion?

A

STEMI

196
Q

What type of MI is characterized by partial occlusion?

A

NSTEMI

197
Q

True or False: Unstable angina causes permanent damage in the heart

A

False

198
Q

How many types of acute coronary syndrome are there?

A

3

  1. Unstable angina
  2. STEMI
  3. NSTEMI
199
Q

Which type of acute coronary syndrome is there a complete thrombus occlusion?

A

STEMI

200
Q

What type of damage does a NSTEMI cause?

A

Partial thickness damage

201
Q

What type of damage does a STEMI cause?

A

Full thickness tissue damage

202
Q

What EKG does unstable angina cause?

A

No changes

203
Q

What EKG changes does an NSTEMI cause?

A

ST depression

204
Q

What type of EKG changes does a STEMI cause?

A

ST elevation

205
Q

When does an acute myocardial infarction occur?

A

Occurs when the tissue occurs a prolonged period of ischemia

206
Q

What type of damage do cells endure during a myocardial infarction?

A

Irreversible

207
Q

How is a myocardial infarction classified?

A

By its location of occlusion (back/front/side)

208
Q

What is an acute MI cause by?

A
  • Ruptured plaque and platelet aggregation

- Clot

209
Q

What does the extent of damage in an MI depend on?

A
  1. Location of occlusion in the artery
  2. Length of time of occlusion
  3. Heart’s availability of collateral circulation
210
Q

What is the chain of effects for an MI?

A
  • Ischemia
  • Irreversible cell damage
  • Cell membranes rupture
  • Release creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) and cardiac tropinin

*if levels are abnormal;may cause cell death

211
Q

What are the complications following an MI?

A
  • Reperfusion injuries (Myocardial stunning: cells are damaged and cannot handle blood)
  • Conduction disorders (leads to dysrhythmias)
  • Pericarditis
  • Mitral regurgitation
212
Q

Infection of the endocardium

A

Endocarditis

213
Q

What does endocarditis mostly effect?

A

Heart valves

214
Q

True or False: Endocarditis is an infectious disease

A

False

215
Q

What bacteria causes endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans/staph aureus

216
Q

How does endocarditis happen?

A
  1. microorganisms enter the bloodstream
  2. Travel and adhere to damaged heart tissue
  3. Multiply and grow (coagulation cascade)
  4. Vegetation develops
  5. Vegetation damages heart structures and releases emboli
217
Q

True or false: Endocarditis can happen in any heart tissue

A

TRUE

218
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a MI?

A
  • Diaphorsis (sweating)
  • Crushing chest pain that radiates
  • pallor (pale)
  • Levine’s sign (fist at chest)
  • Dyspnea
  • nausea/vomiting
  • ekg changes
  • silent
219
Q

True or False: Men and women have the same clinical presentation of an acute MI.

A

False. Women typically have different signs.

220
Q

What is the clinical presentation of endocarditis?

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • petechiae
  • splinter hemorrhages
  • Roth spots
  • Osler nodes (finger tips)
  • Janeway lesions (palms and soles)
221
Q

The inflammation of the pericardium and epicardium.

A

Pericarditis

222
Q

Pericardial effusion is ___________

A

Where fluid accumulates in the pericardium

223
Q

What is the etiology of pericarditis?

A
  • Viruses (influenza, EBV, Varicella, hepatitis, mumps, HIV)
  • TB
  • Autoimmune disorders
  • Rheumatic Fever
  • MI (Dressler’s syndrome)
  • Radiation
224
Q

How to pericarditis occur?

A
  • Etiology
  • Inflammation response
  • Capillaries in membrane become more permeable (fluid leaks in)
  • inflammation and edema
  • restriction of heart movement
225
Q

What it the clinical presentation of pericarditis?

A
  • fever
  • chest pain
  • pericardial friction rub (scratching sound is audible)
  • can lead to cardiac tamponade (too much fluid)
  • can lead to Beck’s triad
  • pulses paradoxus (decrease in systolic BP w/inspirations)
226
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A
  • hypertension
  • jugular vein distention
  • muffled heart tones
227
Q

What causes heart failure?

A
  • Ischemic heart disease
  • Chronic HTN
  • Chronic pulmonary diseases
  • Cardiomyopathy (muscles get smaller)
  • Dysrythmias
  • Valve Disease
228
Q

What causes systolic heart failure?

A
  • Weakened ventricle cannot eject blood
  • Causes backup of pressure
  • less blood is bumped out
229
Q

What causes diastolic heart failure?

A
  • ventricle cannot fully relax and expand
  • causes stiff ventricle to fill with less blood
  • less blood enters the ventricle
230
Q

Is systole responsible for pumping or filling?

A

Pumping

231
Q

Is diastole responsible for pumping or filling?

A

Filling

232
Q

What is another name for cor pulmonale?

A

Right sided heart failure

233
Q

Where does blood back flow in right right sided heart failure?

A

The vena cava

234
Q

Where does blood back flow in left sided heart failure?

A

The pulmonary veins

235
Q

Where does congestion occurs in right sided heart failure?

A

Jugular veins, liver, lower extremities

236
Q

Where does congestion occur in left sided heart failure?

A

The lungs

237
Q

What happens to the ventricles in either right or left sided heart failure?

A

Hypertrophies

238
Q

What is left sided heart failure caused by?

A

Increased after load (resistance) from HTN

239
Q

Why is the muscle ineffective at ejecting blood in left sided heart failure?

A

Stiffness caused from hypertrophy

240
Q

What is the clinical presentation of backwards effects of LV heart failure?

A
  • Crackles (fluid in lungs)
  • Dyspnea
  • Orthopnea
241
Q

What is the forward effects of LV heart failure?

A

Confusion

Poor urine output (RAAS)

242
Q
  • Congested heart failure
  • Blood gets pushed back into the atria
  • Creates a build up of pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary system
  • causes fluid extravasation and accumulation in alveoli.
A

Backwards effects of left sided heart failure

243
Q
  • Effects the whole body
  • Inadequate ejection of blood through the aorta
  • decreased perfusion of organs
  • decreased perfusion stimulates RAAS, ADH, SNS
A

Forward effects of left sided heart failure

244
Q

What is right sided heart failure caused by?

A
  • coronary artery disease
  • HTN
  • left ventricle failure
  • right ventricle ischemia & infarction
  • lun disease-cor pulmonale (COPD)
245
Q

What the clinical presentation of backward effects of right sided heart failure?

A
  • jugular vein distention
  • splenomegaly
  • hepatomegaly
  • ascites (fluid in peritoneal cavity)
  • edema
246
Q

Clinical presentation of forward effects of right sided heart failure

A

Hypoxia (lack of blood flow)

247
Q
  • Difficulty pumping blood forward into pulmonary artery
  • causes back of blood intro atria
  • raises hydrostatic pressure on right side
  • leads to increased pressure in superior and inferior vena cavity
A

Backwards effects of right sided heart failure

248
Q
  • Decreased pulmonary arterial blood flow

- altered alveolar oxygen diffusion

A

Forward effects of right sided heart failure

249
Q

Is backward or forward effects of right sided heart failure more common?

A

Backward effects

250
Q

_______ are elastic and allow for vasodilation and vasoconstriction

A

Arteries

Pathophysiology (8 decks)

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