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Microbiology > Test 3 - Chapter 19 > Flashcards

Test 3 - Chapter 19 Flashcards

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1
Q

Gram Positive Cells stain which color?

A

Purple

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2
Q

There are two major groups of Gram positve based on ____?

A

DNA

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3
Q

The groups of Gram Positve bacteria based on DNA are either low ____+____ or ______?

A

G+C or High G+C

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4
Q

Staphylococcus Streptococus Bacillus and Clostridium are all HIGH/LOW G+C?

A

Low G+C

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5
Q

Phylum Actinobacteria are HIGH/LOW G+C?

A

High G+C

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6
Q

Is Staphylococcus part of our normal microbiota?

A

Yes

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7
Q

Is Staphylococcus GramPositive or Negative?

A

Gram Positive

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8
Q

Staphylococcus cells occur is ____-Like clusters?

A

Grape-like

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9
Q

Is Staphylococcus Nonmotile/Motile?

A

Nonmotile

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10
Q

Is staphylococcus faculative anaerobes?

A

yes

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11
Q

Is Staphyloccous salt tolerant/intolerant?

A

Tolerant

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12
Q

Can Staphylococcus survive dessication (live on surfaces)?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Can staphylococcus survuve radiation?

A

yes

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14
Q

Does staphylococcus produce catalse?

A

Yes

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15
Q

The two species of Staphylococcus are?

A

aureus and epidermidis

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16
Q

Which species of staphylococcus is more virulent?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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17
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is considered _[a]___ microbiota of human __[b]___

A

a- normal

b- skin

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18
Q

Production of these two things allow staphylococcus to result in pathogenicity?

A

Enzymes and toxins

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19
Q

Is Staphylococcus contains structures that enable it to evade ______ then it is more likely to cause disease?

A

phagocytosis

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20
Q

As a structual defense against Phagocytosis, Staphylococcus has a coating on the cell surface called ____ ____?

A

Protein A

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21
Q

Protein A interferes with humoral ____ _____

A

Immune responses

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22
Q

Protein A also inhibits the ______ cascade?

A

Complement

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23
Q

Staphylococcus also has a structural defense mechanism against phogocytosis called Bound Coagulase which converts fibrinogen to _[a]__ molecules (which hide the bacteria from phagocytosis)

A

FIBRIN MOLECULES

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24
Q

Staphylococcus can also SYNTHESIZE polysaccharide _[a]___ layers called _[b]___.

A

a- slime

b- capsules

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25
Q

An enzyme in Staphylococcus is cell-free coagulase which triggers blood _____

A

clotting

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26
Q

another enzyme in staphylococcus is Hyaluronidase which enables the bacteria to spread between cells by breaking down ____ ____

A

hyaluronic acid

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27
Q

Staphylokinase (an enzyme in Staphylococcus aureus) that allows it to free itself from _____

A

blood clots

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28
Q

The enzyme B-lactamase breaks down _____ and allows bacteria to survuve treatment with B-lactam antimicrobial drugs

A

Pennicilin

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29
Q

Cytolytic toxins produced by staphylococcus disrupt the ____[a]__ _____ of a variety of cells. Leukocidin can lyse ___[b]___ specifically?

A

a- cytoplasmic membrane

b- leukocytes

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30
Q

Both Staphylococcus aureus and epidermidis can be found in upper respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts? T/F

A

true

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31
Q

Staphylococcus disease have three categories, NONINVASIVE, CUTANEOUS and SYSTEMIC. T/F?

A

True

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32
Q

Noninvasive staphylococcus diseases are mainly _____ ______?

A

food poisoning

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33
Q

Scalded skin syndrome, impetigo and Folliculitis are examples of _____ staphylococcus diseases?

A

Cutaneous

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34
Q

Bacteremia, Endocarditis, Pneumonia, Osteomyelitis, and TSS (toxic shock syndrome) are all examples of ____ staphylococcus diseases?

A

Systemic

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35
Q

For diagnosis of Staphylococcus you must detect Gram-__[a]___ bacteria in __[b]___-clusters in pus, blood, or other fluids.

A

a- Positive

b- grapelike

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36
Q

Methicillin can be used as treatment for Staphylococcus? T/F

A

True

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37
Q

Name whether Alpha, Beta, or Gamma hemolysis: Complete digestion and lysis of red blood cells, and produces clear zones around colonies?

A

Beta Hemolysis

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38
Q

Name whether Alpha, Beta, Gamma hemoysis: No digestion or lysis of RBD and no change in the gar around the colonies?

A

Gamma Hemolysis

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39
Q

Name whether Alpha, Beta, or Gamma Hemolysis: Partial digestion and lysis of RBC’s and produces greenish-brow discoloration around colonies?

A

Alpha hemolysis

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40
Q

Streptococcus are Gram _____?

A

Positive

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41
Q

Streptococcus are arranged in ____ or ____?

A

pairs or chains

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42
Q

Streptococcus are catalase positive/negative?

A

negative

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43
Q

Streptococcus are peroxidase postive/negative?

A

positive

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44
Q

For streptococcus - Lancefield groups ___ and ___ include most of the significant human pathogens?

A

A and B

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45
Q

Group A Streptococcus: Streptococcus pyogenes: Structural components consist of Protein ___ ( which destabalizes complement and interferes with opsonization and lysis)

A

Protein M

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46
Q

Streptokinases, Deoxyribonucleases, C5a peptidase, and Hyaluronidase are all enzymes in Group ____ Streptococcus

A

Group A strepto

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47
Q

Pharyngitis and scarlet fever fever belong to which disease category?

A

Group A streptococcol diseases

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48
Q

About 50% of pharyngitis (strep throat) is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, the other 50% is _____

A

viral

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49
Q

Pyo refers to?

A

Pus

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50
Q

Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis are Group ____ streptococcal diseases

A

Group A

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51
Q

Diagnosis for Group A Streptococcus pyogenes is Gram __[a]___ found in short _[b]__ or __[c]__

A

a- positive
b- chains
c- pairs

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52
Q

Group B Streptococcus: Streptococcus agalactiae is gram _[a]___ cocci that form __[b]__

A

a- postive

b- chains

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53
Q

Group B Strepto has colonies that are buttery (not white) and are slightly ____

A

larger

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54
Q

Group B Strepto has a smaller/larger zone of beta hemolysis ?

A

smaller

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55
Q

Unlike Group A, Group B is resistant to _____?

A

Bacitracin

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56
Q

Group A/B Strepto are more normal in lower gastrointestinal, genital and urinary tracts?

A

Group B

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57
Q

Streptococcus Virirdians are Alpha/Beta?Gamma?

A

Alpha

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58
Q

Streptococcus Virirdians appear in which shape?

A

pairs of cocci

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59
Q

Their Pathogenic features include stimulating phagocytosis, polysaccharide capsule prevents digestion in lysosomes, which prevents removal from the body. is this Streptococcus Group B or Streptococcus Viridians?

A

Viridians

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60
Q

Their pathogenic features are unknown. Is this strepto group A/B/Viridians?

A

Group B

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61
Q

Their pathogenic features Interfere with the action of complement. Strepto Group A/C/Viridian or Staphylococcus?

A

Strepto Group A

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62
Q

Their pathogenic feature prevents phagocytosis. Is this Strepto A/B/Viridians or Staphylococcus?

A

Staphylococcus

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63
Q

Whose epidemiology consists of the following: normal microbiota of skin, upper respiratory, GI, urogenital tracts, transmission by direct contact and fomites? Strepto A/B/Viridian or Staphylococcus?

A

Staphylococcus

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64
Q

Whose epidemiology conisst of the following: Causes disease due to depleted normal microbiota or impaired immunity, skin and pharynx, transmission by droplets, direct contact and fomites? Strepto A/B/Viridian or Staphylococcus?

A

Strepto A

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65
Q

Whose epidemilogy consists of the folllowing: normal microbiota in GI and urogenital tracts; in newborns, in adults after childbirth and wound infections? Strepto A/B/Viridian or Staphylococcus?

A

Strepto B

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66
Q

Whose epidemiology consists of the following: normal microbiota in mouth, pharynx, GI and urogenital tracts; disease in those with less active immune systems and diseases in lungs? Strepto A/B/Viridian or Staphylococcus?

A

Strepto Viridian

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67
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is under which Group of Strepto?

A

Strepto A

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68
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae is under which group of strepto?

A

Strepto B

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69
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is under which group of strepto?

A

Strepto Viridian

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70
Q

Eneterococcus has which form of hemolysis?

A

Gamma

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71
Q

Their growth is high at high temperatures, (45C) high pH and high NaCl and high bile. Eneterococcus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria?

A

Enterococcus

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72
Q

Does Enterococcus form short chains and pairs, or long chains and singles?

A

short chains and pairs

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73
Q

Has no pathogenic features: Enterococcus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria?

A

Enterococcus

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74
Q

It is normal in colon, nosocomial infections, poor hygiene, intestinal acerations. Enterococcus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria?

A

Enterococcus

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75
Q

Endospores are inttroduced into wounds, improper canning, antimicrobial treatments? Enterococccus, Bacillus, Clostridium, Listeria?

A

Clostridium

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76
Q

Have Central endospores, produce toxins: Bacillus/Clostridium/?

A

Bacillus

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77
Q

Have subterminal or terminal endospores and produce toxins: Bacillus/Clostridium

A

Clostridium

78
Q

Endospores capsule inhibits phagocytosis: Bacillus/Clostridium?

A

Bacillus

79
Q

Endospore toxins lyse blood and other cellsincreasing vascular permeability. Bacillus/Clostridium

A

Clostridium

80
Q

Prevent Destruction in phagosome? Enterococcus/Bacullus/Listeria?

A

Listeria

81
Q

Transmitted as spores, not usually human to human Bacillus/Clostridium?

A

Bacillus

82
Q

Have facultative intracelluar parasite? Enterococcus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria?

A

Listeria

83
Q

Contaminated thru food and drink and mother to fetus? Enteroccocus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria

A

Listeria

84
Q

C. perfringens food poising is caused by whoch strain of bacteria? Enterococcus/Bacillus/Clostridium/Listeria

A

Clostridium

85
Q

Bacillus is Gram ___

A

positive

86
Q

Bacillus can grow three of which ways?

A

single, pair, chains

87
Q

Gastrointestinal/Cutaneous/Inhalation anthrax are the clinical manifestations. Which of these is the most common form in humans?

A

Cuataneous

88
Q

Which one is rare in humans and secretes toxins in lungs which enter bloodstream causing toxemia? Gastrointestinal/Cutaneous/Inhilation

A

Inhilation

89
Q

Which strand produces ecshar? Gastro/Cutaneous/Inhilation?

A

Cuatenous

90
Q

Which has the highest mortality rate at near 100%?

A

Inhilation anthrax

91
Q

In diagnosis, are they motile or imotile?

A

motile

92
Q

Ciprofloxacin used due to fear of resistance to _____?

A

pennicilin

93
Q

is there a vaccine against anthrax?

A

yes

94
Q

Clostridium anaerobic/aerobic?

A

anaerobic

95
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes Botulism/Gas Gangrene?

A

Gas Gangrene

96
Q

C. diff motile or imotile?

A

motile

97
Q

Clostridium difficile produces two toxins, called?

A

Toxin A and B

98
Q

C dificile cause mostly _____

A

diarrhea

99
Q

Clostridium botulinum contains among the deadliest ____ known

A

toxins

100
Q

Three manifestations of botulism?

A

foodbourne, infant, wound botulism

101
Q

Clostridium tetani is gram ____

A

positive

102
Q

clostridium tetani form subterminal/terminal endopores?

A

terminal

103
Q

Clostridium tetani is motile/imotile?

A

motile

104
Q

tetanus toxin is a powerful neurotoxin that is released when ___________

A

cell dies

105
Q

characteristic muscular contraction occurs in ______ disease

A

tetanus

106
Q

Listeria monocytogenes causes Listeriosis wich is a opportunistic/true pathogen?

A

opportunistic

107
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can cause Pneumonia/Meningitis in certain at-risk groups?

A

meningitis

108
Q

Diagnosis of Listeria is rarely seen in Gram stains. T/F

A

true

109
Q

Most antimicrobial drugs do what to Listeria? Inhibit/Lyse

A

inhibit

110
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium : which are made of toxins?

A

Corynebacterium

111
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which attach to and kill respiratory epithelial cells?

A

Mycoplasmas

112
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which have mycolic acid in cell wall (acid fast) resistant to drying out and drugs?

A

Mycobacterium

113
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: Which produce acid when fermenting carbohydrates?

A

propioibacterium

114
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which has transmission by direct contact only?

A

Mycoplasma

115
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which has transmission by direct contact and respiratory droplets; endemic where no vaccines

A

Corynebacterium

116
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which causes skin infections by iatrogenic infections,

A

Propionibacterium

117
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium: which has transmission in dried aerosol droplets; pandemics increasing in persons with weak systems

A

Mycobacterium

118
Q

Mycoplasmas/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Propionibacterium Which has a fried egg appearance?

A

Mycoplasmas

119
Q

Unusual in bacteria, but these have sterols in their cytoplasmic memebranes?

A

mycoplasmas

120
Q

Mycoplasmas aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

121
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia cause primary atypical pneumonia called “_____ _____”

A

“walking pneumonia”

122
Q

Mycoplasmas are [a]small/large? they are [b]easy/hard to see? Growth in cultures is [c]fast/slow?

A

a- small
b- hard
c-slow

123
Q

Prevention of Mycoplasma pneumonia is difficult because patients are often _[a]___ and have ___ ___[b]___

A

a- infectious

b-no symptoms

124
Q

Is there a vaccine for mycoplasmic pneumonia?

A

no

125
Q

M. hominis, M.genitalium and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all ______(s) associated with human disease

A

mycoplasmas

126
Q

M. genitalium and U. urealyticum cause inflammation of the _____

A

urethra

127
Q

Bacillus, Listeria, Lactobacillus, Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus are all low ___+___ Gram ____bacilli and cocci?

A

low G+C Gram positive

128
Q

Corynebacterium is cocci/bacilli/pleomorphic in shape?

A

pleomorphic

129
Q

All species of corynebacterium are _____?

A

pathogenic

130
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a lysogenic bacteriophage conaining gene for diptheria Pathogen/Toxin?

A

toxin

131
Q

The _____ toxin is one of the more potent toxins known?

A

diptheria toxin

132
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes disease called ______ and _____ diptheria

A

respiratory and cutaneous

133
Q

In respiratory diptheria, pseudomembrane can block the ____ ______ and cause death by asphyxiation?

A

Respiratory passage

134
Q

in which (Cutaneous/Respiratory diptheria) can the toxins enter bloodstream and kill heart and nerve cells?

A

in cutaneous diptheria

135
Q

presence of pseudomembrane is a diagnosis for Corynebacterium diptheriae/Propionibacterium

A

C. diptheriae

136
Q

If colony morpholgies iclue: large irregular gray, small flat gray, or small round convex black… this is indicative of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? T/F

A

true

137
Q

For treatment of corynebacterium diphtheriae there is a neautralizing _[a]____ (immunoglobulin) to block binding of __[b]__ to cell

A

a- antitoxin

b- toxin

138
Q

Penicillin or erythromycin to kill bacteria of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

both

139
Q

A major prevention of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

a vaccine (tdap)

140
Q

Mycobacterium has a cell wall that contains ___ ___ ( a waxy lipid)

A

mycolic acid

141
Q

Most species of mycobacterium are Pathogenic/Nonpathogenic?

A

Nonpathogenic

142
Q

to see mycobacterium you must you ___ ___ staining technique?

A

acid fast

143
Q

Mycobacterium is Gram ____?

A

positive

144
Q

Is Mycobacterium acid fast?

A

yes

145
Q

Mycobacterium produces a ____ factor?

A

cord factor

146
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is strongly/weakly virulent?

A

weakly

147
Q

those with weakened ____ are at most risk for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

immuity

148
Q

What kills ~2million a year, 1/3 world’s population is infected and 10% of infected individuals have life-threatening disease?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

149
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis form small hard nodules in lungs called _____?

A

tubercles

150
Q

Three types of Tuberculosis?

A

Primary TB, Secondary TB, Disseminated TB

151
Q

Primary TB results from ____ infection with M. tuberculosis?

A

initial

152
Q

Primary TB results usually in _____?

A

children

153
Q

Secondary TB is a reestablishment of _____ _____?

A

active infection

154
Q

Disseminated TB results when infection ___________?

A

spreads throughout the body

155
Q

A-Internalization by lung phagocytes and cells lining alveoli, B- Formation of tubercles, C-Infection, D- Maturation of tubercles, E-Free replication in host cells: Which is correct order?

A

C, A, E, B, D

156
Q

Production of Caseous Necrosis happens at which stage?

A

Stage 5 (Maturation of tubercles)

157
Q

Caseous necrosis occurs when ____ and ____ are release from dying cells causing tissue to have consistency with cheese!

A

fat and proteins

158
Q

Macrophages become tightly packed around the site of infection forming a _[a]____ in which stage ____[b]____?

A

a- tubercle

b-stage 4 -formation of tubercles

159
Q

Which stage in Primary TB can be asymptomatic or cause just a mild fever?

A

stage 3- free replication in hosts

160
Q

Pili of bacteria attach to extracellular protein of humans in which stage?

A

stage 1- infection

161
Q

If tubercles are found in lower and central areas of lungs suggests _[a]___ TB, of found in higher areas of lungs suggests __[b]___ TB

A

a-primary

b- secondary

162
Q

Mycobacterium leprae is Gram _[a]____ and is [b] acid fast/non acid fast?

A

a- positive

b-acid fast

163
Q

Mycobacterium leprae grows best at?

A

philanges

164
Q

Mycobacterium leprae grows intracellular/extracellular?

A

intracellular

165
Q

Mycobacterium leprae only other host is a _____

A

Armadillo (yee haw!)

166
Q

Mycobacterium leprae is weak/strong virulent?

A

weak

167
Q

Mycobacterium leprae is spread how?

A

close contact person to person

168
Q

Two forms of leprosy: Tuberculoid leprosy and lepromatous leprosy. which is the non progressive form of the disease?

A

Tuberculoid

169
Q

Two forms of leprosy: Tuberculoid leprosy and lepromatous leprosy: which is where you lose sensation due to nerve damage?

A

tuberculoid

170
Q

Two forms of leprosy: Tuberculoid leprosy and lepromatous leprosy: which is where you lose limbs and such?

A

Lepromatous

171
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare is true pathogen/opportunistic?

A

opportunistic

172
Q

infections of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare can result from ingestion of?

A

contaminated food or water

173
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare can affect almost every _____?

A

organ

174
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare spreads through body through?

A

lymph system

175
Q

Propionibacterium is gram ___

A

positive

176
Q

Propionibacterium acnes

produce ______ _____ when fermenting carbohydrates

A

propionic acid

177
Q

Sebum entering the sebaceous gland is which step of acne?

A

1st

178
Q

creation of a black head is step?

A

3

179
Q

creation of white head is step?

A

2

180
Q

pustule formation is what step in acne?

A

4

181
Q

which step only occurs in severe cases of acne?

A

step 4 pustule formation

182
Q

Nocardia is Acid Fast/Non acid fast?

A

acid fast

183
Q

elongated filamentous cells resembling fungal hyphae?

A

Nocardia

184
Q

Nocardia asteroides is opportunistic/true pathogen?

A

opportunistic

185
Q

Pulmonary, cutaneous, and central nervous system infections are all caused by Nocardia _____

A

asteroides

186
Q

Presence of long, acid-fast, hypha-like cells in skin, sputum, pus, or cerebrospinal fluid samples: These represent diagnosis for what species?

A

Nocardia asteriodes

187
Q

Actinomyces are acid fast/non acid fast?

A

non acid fast

188
Q

Actinomyces can sometimes cause dental ____

A

caries

189
Q

Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Actinomycetes : which form branching filaments resembling fungi and incude Nocardia?

A

Actinomycetes

190
Q

Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Actinomycetes: which produce metachromatic granules?

A

Cornebacterium

191
Q

Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium/Actinomycetes: which are aerobic rods that sometimes form filaments?

A

Mycobacterium

Microbiology (10 decks)

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