Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

phrenic nerves

A

C3-C5 innervates diaphragm (phrenic motor nucleus) and comes out of the spinal cord

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2
Q

internal and external intercostal skeleton

A

between ribs, movement helps move ribs

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2
Q

intercostal nerves

A

innervates internal and external intercostal skeleton and originates from the spinal cord. T1 - L1

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3
Q

external intercostal skeleton

A

contributes to inhalation with diaphragm

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4
Q

abdominal nerves (rectus abdominus)

A

innervates abdominal muscles, T7-L1: contribute to respiration by helping expel air from the lungs during exhalation. Only contracts on forced expiration,

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5
Q

exhalation/expiration

A

usually passive without muscle contraction, diaphragm doms up as air flows out.

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6
Q

inhalation/inspiration

A

active -> contraction of muscles at rest (diaphragm flattens) thorax increases in vol as inspiratory muscles, diaphragm and external intercostal muscles expands in three directions.

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7
Q

Where is the diaphragm

A

base of the thoracic cage

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8
Q

how much of the inspiratory effort does the diaphragm partake in

A

70% in contraction

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9
Q

ribs during exhalation

A

move down and in

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10
Q

lung volume at rest (litres)

A

tidal volume, which is 0.5L (500mL).

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11
Q

ribs during inhalation

A

move up and out

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11
Q

tidal volume

A

500 mL.

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12
Q

Atmospheric pressure and intrapleural pressure

A

negative intrapleural pressure to create a diffusion gradient that allows air to move in upon inhalation (inspiration).

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13
Q

how many lobes in the lung

A

5

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14
Q

how many lobes on the right side of the lung

A

3, no cardiac notch leaves space for a third lobe.

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15
Q

how many lobes on the left side of the lung

A

2 with a cardiac notch to accommodate for the heart

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16
Q

lungs surrounded by

A

visceral pleura

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17
Q

parietal pleura

A

lines thorax and covers lung (outer layer)

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18
Q

pulmonary pressure in inspiration

A

Pulmonary pressure begins at 0 cm H₂O, equal to atmospheric pressure, when the lungs are at rest (before inhalation begins). Diaphragm contracts and thoracic cavity expands -> lungs expand -> lower pressure in alveoli creating a negative pressure relative to the atmosphere.

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19
Q

pneumothorax

A

chest is open to the atmosphere, pleural pressure is equal to the atmosphere -> deflated lung as air rushes into the chest

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19
Q

pulmonary pressure in expiration

A

The decrease in lung volume increases the pressure inside the alveoli, causing pulmonary pressure to rise above atmospheric pressure. This positive pressure forces air out of the lungs into the atmosphere as gases flow from areas of higher pressure (lungs) to lower pressure (outside air).

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20
Q

pleural pressure in expiration and inspiration.

A

is always negative to keep the lungs inflated by being more negative from atmosphere. Becomes less negative during expiration.

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21
Q

What does a spirometer measure

A

tidal breath (Vt), respiratory frequency (f), minute ventilation (tidal x frequency), inspiratory and expiratory reserve vol.

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22
Q

what cant you measure with a spirometer

A

residual volume, total lung capacity, functional residual capacity.

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23
Q

hyperventilation

A

> 6L/min

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24
Q

hypoventilation

A
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25
Q

minute ventilation

A

Vt x f= 0.5L x 12 (breaths) = 6L/min

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26
Q

Va

A

alveolar ventilation

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27
Q

dead space

A

Vd = 22ml/kg -> 150 mL

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28
Q

deadspace ventilation

A

150 x 8 = 1.8 L

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29
Q

vitalographs

A

measures gas volume dynamics and measures the efficiency of lungs such as obstructions/stiffness and can serve as an early diagnostic test. Can diagonise COPD and asthma

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30
Q

FEV1/FVC healthy lung

A

80% is a healthy lung.

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31
Q

FEV1

A

forced expiratory volume in one sec = 4 L

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32
Q

FVC

A

forced vital capacity, 5L and usually less than during a slower exhalation.

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32
Q

Diffusion distance in human lung

A

0.5 micrometers in diameter

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33
Q

external respiration full def

A

process in the lungs by which O2 is absorbed from the atmosphere into the blood within pulmonary capillaries, CO2 is excreted

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34
Q

internal surface of the lung is about

A

100m2

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34
Q

upper class anatomical boundary

A

nose and larnyx

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35
Q

internal/tissue respiration

A

exchange of gases between blood and systemic capillaries and the tissue fluid and cells which surrounded.

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35
Q

lower class

A

trachea and alveoli

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36
Q

pulmonary ventilation

A

breathing, the bulk movement of air flow into and out of lungs, the ventilatory pump comprises the rib cage with its associated muscles and the diaphragm

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37
Q

what is part of the conducting part of the respiratory system

A

nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

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37
Q

function of the conducting part of the respiratory system

A

the bulk movement of air into and out lungs which conduct air between the nose and deepest recesses of lungs. Humidify and clean the air.

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37
Q

function of the respiratory part of the respiratory system

A

comprises the tiny, thin-walled airways where gases are exchanged between the air and blood. Transport of gases to various parts of the system.

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38
Q

what structures are part of the Respiratory part of the respiratory system

A

respiratory bronchioles, alveolar sac, alveolar ducts and alveoli.

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39
Q

nasal cavity

A

tall narrow chamber lined with mucous membrane which humidifies and warms inspired air

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40
Q

for gas exchange, the air has to be:

A

clean, free of dust and bacteria, warm and saturated with 100% H2O

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41
Q

What is in the nasal cavity (cellular/small)

A

thick hairs that help filter and ciliated epithelium to allow particles to stick to mucus. Under this, is a very rich blood supply with large vessels that allow heat exchange.

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42
Q

structure of nasal cavity

A

conchae which increases the SA of the nasal cavity and slows down air by creating turbulence.

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43
Q

What lines the conducting zone

A

the respiratory epithium: pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium + goblet cells and basal cells

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43
Q

sinuses

A

air filled spaces in the skull which is also lined with respiratory epithelium and mucus. They lighten the face and add resonance to the voice

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44
Q

sinusitis

A

buildup of mucus/ infection of sinuses

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45
Q

glands under epithelium

A

secrete water secretions and constantly supplying the layer for humidity

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46
Q

mucociliary clearance

A

cilia beating -> moving particles down mucocilary escalator till the end of the conducting site.

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47
Q

smoking effects on cilia

A

paralyses cilia

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48
Q

the pharynx is an airway but also

A

a food way -> primarily part of the gastrointestinal system.

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48
Q

Three parts of the pharynx (throat) each have an anterior opening

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx and larngopharynx

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49
Q

epiglottis

A

protects the airway from food and closes to push food posterior to airways.

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50
Q

trachea main features

A

has to stay open -> C-shaped cartilage and mainly to get air into lungs, 12 cm long windpipe.

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51
Q

esophagus position relative to the trachea

A

posterior to trachea and lying in the shallow groove formed by the trachealis msucle.

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52
Q

the trachea is lined with

A

pseudo-stratified columnar ciliated epithelium and transport a mucous sheet upwards to the nasopharynx

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53
Q

respiratory zone branching starts at

A

20-23

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54
Q

alveolar sacs branching position

A

28

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55
Q

bronchus structure (cells)

A

columnar ciliated epithelial cells with goblet cells, contain smooth muscle and mucus glands, cartilage to keep tube open.

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56
Q

terminal bronchiole

A

no gas exchange

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57
Q

bronchus function

A

keep airways open, conditioning air, saturated with water and mucus for defence

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58
Q

Bronchiole vs bronchus

A

bronchus have cartilage, goblet cells and mucus glands whereas bronchiole has club cells and mainly uses smooth muscle to direct blood flow.

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58
Q

wall of bronchiole

A

club cells for watery secretion (antimicrobial properties) and not as sticky as mucus, ciliated cuboidal epithelium, smooth muscle to constrict and relax.

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59
Q

capillaries and alveolus

A

alveolar sacs greatly increase SA and capillaries are wrapped around to maximise gas exchange.

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60
Q

Cells in the alveolar wall

A

Red blood cells and capillaries, type I pneumocyte, alveolar macrophage and type II pneumocyte

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61
Q

type I pneumocyte

A

squamous cells that a flat and thin

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62
Q

what are the three types of cells found in the alveolus

A

macrophage for defence, type II squamous cells and type II cuboidal cells.

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63
Q

type II pneumocyte

A

secretes surfactant to break surface tension between air and liquid layer of alveolus. Keeping the air sac nice and open and stops alveoli from collapsing.

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64
Q

alveolar macrophage

A

ingests bacterial and particles if something is wrong/clean up

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65
Q

movement of ribcage and ventilation

A

responsible for 25% of the air movement into and out of the lungs.

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66
Q

The diffusion barrier

A

blood barrier, 0.5 um thick, the squamous pneumocyte, basement membranes are all fused as one.

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67
Q

exercise and intercostal muscles

A

active, externals for inspiration and internals for expiration.

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68
Q

ventilation division with diaphragm and ribs

A

ribs: 25%, diaphragm: 75%

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69
Q

How does expiration occur at rest? (deflation to remove Co2)

A

recoil force

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70
Q

the two forces required to deflate the lung are

A

elasticity and surface tension in the lungs

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71
Q

recoil force and elasticity of the lungs

A

allows lungs to return to resting position -> residual capacity following inhalation.

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72
Q

elasticity

A

the ability to recover original size and shape after deformation, we have collagen and elastin in our lungs. Inspiration dependent on the elasticity.

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73
Q

compliance

A

ability of the lungs and the chest wall to stretch and expand in response to changes in pressure, change in volume/change in pressure

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74
Q

surface tension

A

enhancement of the intermolecular attractive forces at the surface is called surface tension.

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74
Q

elasticity and compliance

A

elasticity decreases as compliance increases

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75
Q

Laplaces law

A

P = 2T(surface tension)/R(radius of alveolus). The smaller the alveolus, the higher the pressure required to keep it open. Surfactant reduces the surface tension, preventing small alveoli from collapsing and ensuring efficient lung function.

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76
Q

increased compliance

A

smoking caused, reduction in elastic fibers and much less pressure to inflate -> more compliant.

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77
Q

decreased compliance

A

fibrosis: lungs become fibrotic and stiff with increased effort (more pressure) to inflate lungs

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78
Q

COPD lung

A

increased compliance -> massively expanded lungs and flatted diaphragm with mid-sternal space reduced.

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79
Q

Fibrosis lung

A

deflated lungs, mid sternal space widened and fluffy areas of fibrotic tissue present

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80
Q

Where is the area of the highest resistance in the respiratory airway

A

in the trachea

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81
Q

high resistance airflow in trachea

A

is fast and turblent

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82
Q

alveoli air flow

A

slow and laminar which helps gas exchange and has the lowest resistance.

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82
Q

Control of airway diameter and resistance via autonomic control of airways in the bronchiole

A

it is full of smooth muscle that is affected by hormones which can dilate and constrict when needed to direct airflow

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83
Q

parasympathetic nerves and the autonomic nervous system control of airway smooth muscle

A

contained within vagus nerve and causes bronchoconstriction via the muscarinic receptor of acetylcholine.

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84
Q

sympathetic nerves and the autonomic nervous system control of airway smooth muscle

A

from the thoracic spinal segements that cause broncholdilation and via beta-adrencepetors for noradrenaline

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85
Q

sympathetic nerves that cause

A

bronchodilation via beta-adrenoceptors of noradrenaline

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86
Q

parasympathetic nerves cause the

A

bronchoconstriction via vagus nerves and muscarinic receptors of acetylcholine.

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87
Q

Hering-Breuer reflex

A

activated by sensory mechanical receptors and activated as lungs inflate -> triggers reflex response to increase sympathetic outflow. This reflex is especially important in maintaining normal tidal volume and avoiding potential damage from overinflation.

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88
Q

asthmatics meds

A

inhale directly into airway:salbutamol binds to beta receptors and immediately dilates bronchioles- B2- adrenoceptor agonist (stimulant)

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89
Q

asthma

A

bronchioles constrict

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90
Q

pulmonary circulation pressure

A

low pressures system as right ventricles only need to pump to one system and dont need to go against gravity.

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91
Q

pressure in pulmonary circuit

A

22/10 mmHg with a mean of 14 mmHg

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92
Q

sheet flow around alveoli

A

many capillaries on the sides of the walls merge to form a sheet flow around alveoli which helps increase contact between blood and alveoli and increase in gas exchange.

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92
Q

two circulations to the lungs

A

pulmonary circulation and bronchial circulation, as it has a venous drainage.

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93
Q

distension and recruitment

A

controls pressure to prevent oedema 0< prevent fluid forced outside vessel wall/ fluid accumulation.

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94
Q

Chemical control of pulmonary blood vessels - pulmonary hypoxic vasconstriction

A

low alveolar PO2 -> hypoxia, causes regional vasoconstriction to cause blood to go over to another alveoli with better O2.

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95
Q

uneven blood flow in lungs

A

due to gravity and structure of the lungs, blood flow is greater in the lower regions of the lungs and less in the upper regions. This can lead to ventilation-perfusion mismatches, influencing how efficiently oxygen is delivered to the blood and carbon dioxide is removed.

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96
Q

best perfusion is when

A

pulmonary arterial pressure > pulmonary vein pressure and gravity > pulmonary alveoli pressure

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97
Q

why is V/Q not one

A

it is 0.86 -> gravity not fully perfusing the lung as ventilation occurs more at the base of the lung than the top.

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98
Q

In exercise how may we increase perfusion? think abt the un even blood flow in lungs

A

in exercise, CO2 increases to generate pressure sufficient to force more blood into the top of the lung -> added capacity of the lung increases extraction of O2.

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99
Q

Ideal ventilation

A

is when the ventilation and perfusion ration = 1 A V/Q ratio of 1 indicates that the amount of oxygen entering the lungs and reaching the alveoli (ventilation) is equal to the blood flow available for gas exchange (perfusion).

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100
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A

hypoxia = vasoconstriction and can cause right heart failure as this strains the right ventricle.

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101
Q

Factors regulating movement of gas across respiratory surface

A

area, thickness, partial pressure differential across tissue, solubility of gas in blood and molecular weight of gas.

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101
Q

pulmonary oedema

A

left heart failure due to systemic hypoxia -> breathlessness (dyspnoea).

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102
Q

Area of alveoli

A

~300 alveoli in human lung -> 0.3 mm in diameter which increases and shrinks due to inflation and deflation.

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102
Q

Thickness of tissue

A

all alveoli lined with surfactant to help decrease surface tension. Only 0.5 um between air and blood which is prone to infection…

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103
Q

Partial pressure differential across tissue

A

O2 100mmHg and CO2 40 mm Hg, O2 has a big driving force (10x more)

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104
Q

Solubility of gas in blood and molecular weight of gas

A

solubility is more important than MWt of gas and CO2 is 25x more soluble in blood than O2, movement of both gases across alveolar membrane are balanced.

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105
Q

O2 transport

A

binds with haemoglobin and some in plasma, also dissolved in solution.

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106
Q

movement of O2 and Co2 across alveolar membrane

A

are balanced

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107
Q

oxygen dissociation curve

A

Percent of O2 saturation of hemoglobin -> lower affinity for O2 at lower PO2’’s encourages O2 release at tissues and a higher affinity for O2 at higher PO2’s to encourage O2 uptake in lungs.

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108
Q

oxygen dissociation curve

A

sigmoidal relationship, this is due to co-operative binding.

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109
Q

Hemoglobin changes affinity for O2

A

due to pH change -> there is less affinity when there are more protons.

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110
Q

In acidic environment the hb

A

has less affinity for O2, at tissues there is more CO2 which is lower pH so O2 is released

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111
Q

At lungs less CO2 -> higher pH

A

so O2 is taken up.

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112
Q

For a given PO2, more O2 taken up =

A

a higher binding affinity of Hb for O2.

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113
Q

Bohr shift

A

changes in pH and carbon dioxide (CO₂) concentration affect the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen (O₂). When tissues produce more CO₂ and H⁺, hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen decreases, making it easier to deliver oxygen to where it’s needed most.

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114
Q

Myoglobin affinity

A

high affinity at low PO2 and binds O2 in muscles (good for exercise)

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115
Q

Fetal haemoglobin

A

has a greater affinity for O2 for a given PO2 -> drags O2 across placenta.

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116
Q

Anaemia oxygen dissociation curve

A

reduced hb by 50% , pulse oximeter will be inacurate as it measures saturation not content.

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117
Q

CO2 transport in blood

A

dissolves in solution, chemical in form of HCO3- (mostly), combines to amine groups (plasma proteins) Co2 solubility is 20-25% times higher than O2.

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118
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors

A

located near major blood vessels -> connected to carotid sinus nerve then to medulla oblongata. CAROTID BODY senses blood gases and is at the highest blood flow and density of capillaries.

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119
Q

Most Co2 is transported by bicarbonate in plasma

A

70%

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119
Q

chloride shift

A

in red blood cells (RBCs) during the transport of carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the tissues to the lungs. It involves the exchange of chloride ions (Cl⁻) for bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) across the RBC membrane to maintain electrical neutrality during CO₂ transport.

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120
Q

central chemoreceptors

A

located within medulla oblongata, respond only to CO2, the chemosensitive regions on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata.

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121
Q

what stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors

A

reduced and increased PaO2 (hypoxia and hypercapnia), hemorrhage, acidosis and increased sympathetic activity

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122
Q

Ventilatory response to hypoxia - peripheral chemoreceptors only

A

ventilation inc to peak ventilatory response then falls -> gasping is the last attempt to stimulate breathing -> maximal inspiratory effort and auto resuscitation mechanism.

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122
Q

how fast are peripheral chemoreceptors

A

very fast -> within a breath

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123
Q

Charged ions

A
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123
Q

How fast are central chemoreceptors

A

slow ~3-seconds as there is a limited carbonic anhydrase in CSF -> takes a while for H ions to build up and not much carbonic anhydrase in CSF. (Charged ions cannot cross blood brain barrier so CA makes HCO3).

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124
Q

Ventilatory response to hypercapnia (TOO MUCH CO2) - peripheral and central chemoreceptors

A

response mediated by 80% central and 20% peripheral. Ventilation goes up with inc PaCO2 mm Hg.

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125
Q

Ondines curse -> congenital central hypoventilatory syndrome

A

no central chemoreceptors and you can die in the sleep

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126
Q

Renal capsule

A

thin outercasing of the kidney which protects the kidney against trauma and maintains the shape of the kidney.

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127
Q

adipose capsule

A

the second layer(middle layer) that acts as padding and maintains the position of the kidneys

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127
Q

what are medullary pyramids seperated by

A

renal columns

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128
Q

renal fascia

A

anchors the kidneys to surrounding structures and the outermost layer.

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128
Q
A
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129
Q

renal cortex

A

the layer under the renal capsule

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130
Q

blood vessels in the kidneys

A

found all throughout kidneys as blood is important substrate for the kidney to function

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130
Q

the large structures of the kidney

A

renal capsule, renal cortex, medullary pyramids which are separated by renal columns.

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131
Q

what is a lobe in the kidney

A

consists of a triangular like section of the medullary pyramid, the renal cortex and capsule etc.

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132
Q

What do we call the region between two kidney lobes

A

interlobar

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132
Q

how many lobes does an average human kidney have

A

~8-12 as we are considered to be multilobar

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133
Q

lobules

A

multiple subdivisions within each lobe which are lobules.

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134
Q

where are the papillary ducts located

A

in the papillar/papillary region, central kidney the with the white stuff.

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134
Q

structurally, where are the nephrons

A

cortex of the kidney

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135
Q

where is the collecting duct located (kidney)

A

they descend through the renal cortex and medullary region toward the papillary duct.

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136
Q

where does urine get collected into small cup-like structures

A

calyces - Calyx.

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137
Q

minor and major calyx

A

minor calyces go into major calyces

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138
Q

where does urine flow from the renal pelvis

A

to the ureter

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139
Q

renal pelvis

A

as the major calyces feed into this area called the renal pelvis -> basin

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139
Q

where does the ureter then pass urine

A

to the urinary bladder

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140
Q

what is the papillar/papillary region, where is it located?

A

the pointy bit of the medullary pyramid by the calyces.

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141
Q

blood vessels in between two lobes in the kidney are called

A

interlobar artery

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142
Q

juxtamedullary nephrones are responsible for

A

enabling us to make a concentrated urine.

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142
Q

Where is the juxta-medullary nephron

A

located lower in the cortex and deeper down near the medulla which is close to the cortical medullary junction.

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143
Q

the interlobar artery marks the boundary between what

A

one renal pyramid and its neighboring renal pyramid.

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144
Q

where does the interlobar artery arch around

A

as it comes up to the cortex at the cortical medullary junction, which make these arcuate arteries.

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145
Q

arcuate arteries in the kidney lobe.

A

arch when reaching cortical medullary junction

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146
Q

what does the arcuate arteries give rise to in kidney lobes

A

these supply blood to the lobules, each lobule has these which are called interlobular arteries

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147
Q

interlobular arteries

A

within each lobe that are subdivisions of arcuate arteries from interlobar arteries

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148
Q

afferent arteriole in the kidney

A

feeds toward the important filtration unit of the glomerulus (golmerular capillaries) from the interlobular artery

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149
Q

vasa recta (descending) purpose is to

A

feed the cells that make up the tubular parts of the nephron in the medulla, this blood is oxygen rich.

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150
Q

Efferent arteriole

A

the blood vessel moving from the glomerulus (glomerular capillaries) to either the descending vasa recta or stay in the cortex to feed the tubular cells in the cortex near the glomerulus via peritubular capillaries of the cortex

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151
Q

peritubular capillaries of the medulla

A

from the vasa recta (but these are horizontal)-> gas exchange occurs. O2 is absorbed by the cells of the nephron and CO2 is transported back into the blood. This is where the blood goes from arterial to venous.

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152
Q

where does the blood go from arterial -> venous in the kidney? (where gas exchange occurs) -> specifically in the medulla

A

peritubular capillaries of the medulla

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153
Q

Glomerulus

A

one part of the renal corpuscle -> the blood component containing a specialised network of capillaries. The input is the afferent arteriole and the output is the efferent arteriole.

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153
Q

where does the venous blood go from the peritubular capillaries in the cortex?

A

to the interlobular vein -> arcuate vein -> interlobar veins -> renal vein -> inferior vena cava and returns to the right side of the heart.

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153
Q

ascending vasa recta

A

ascending toward the cortex from the medulla which carries venous blood after gas exchange.

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154
Q

peritubular capillaries of the cortex

A

where gas exchange occurs between the blood in the capillaries and the cells that make up the convoluted tubules of the nephron in the cortex (arterial -> venous)

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155
Q

structure and location of the renal corpuscle

A

golf ball looking structures found in only the renal cortex of the kidney, where filtration begins. it contains two components.

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156
Q

the renal corpuscle has two components

A

a blood component (glomerulus) and an epithelial capsule component (Glomerular (bowman’s) capsule).

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157
Q

what will be expected to be found in the wall of efferent arterioles

A

endothelial cells as it is a blood vessel and lots of smooth muscle to modulate resistance and control blood pressure which is characteristic of blood pressure.

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158
Q

Glomerular (bowman’s) capsule

A

the second part of the renal corpuscle -> epithelium and consists of two layers. The visceral layer of podocytes (modified epithelium) tightly attached to glomerular capillaries and parietal layer that forms the outer wall of the capsule which are squamous epithelium

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159
Q

what are the cells of the parietal layer of the glomerular bowmans capsule

A

the parietal layer that surrounds the outer wall of the capsule and contains specialised epithelium which are simple squamous.

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160
Q

what are the cells of the visceral layer of the glomerular bowmans capsule

A

specialised podocytes that are modified epithelium that covers the innermost wall of the capsule (capillaries)

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161
Q

what do the podocytes of the visceral layer of the glomerular bowmans capsule do?

A

the interaction between the podocytes and the underlying glomerular capillaries that enable filtration to take place and allows the blood to be filtered -> forming the filtration barrier

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162
Q

the visceral epithelium is continuous with….

A

the parietal epithelium but the parietal epithelium is just filled with simple squamous cells that do not contribute to filtration membrane or barrier.

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163
Q

what is the space between the podocytes (visceral epithelium) and parietal squamous epithelium

A

the capsular/urinary space.

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164
Q

where does filtrate accumulate in the renal corpuscle

A

the urinary/capsular space

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165
Q

what does the urinary/capsular space do

A

between the parietal and visceral layers, collects filtrate and accumulates it until it flows out into the tubular portion.

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165
Q

The filtration membrane

A

consists of three membranes, the fenestration of the glomerular endothelial cell, the basal lamina of the glomerulus and the slit membrane between pedicels.

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166
Q

the cytoplasm of the endothelial cells of our glomerular capillaries

A

the endothelium here, are fenestrated (porous in the membrane). Small enough to stop red blood cells from exiting but large enough for components of blood plasma to pass through. The endothelial cells secrete a basement membrane.

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167
Q

Basal lamina of the glomerulus

A

is the basement membranes combined from the podocyte basement membrane and basement membrane of the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. The second layer of filtration membrane.

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168
Q

where is the slit membrane

A

forms the webbed structure between foot pedicels (interdigitating feet of the podocytes), making up the third layer of our filtration barrier.

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169
Q

slit membrane function

A

prevents filtration of medium sized proteins

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170
Q

basal lamina function

A

prevents filtration of larger proteins.

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171
Q

route of the filtrate from the urinary space

A

leave renal corpuscle -> proximal convoluted tubule -> thick descending loop of henle -> thin descending loop of henle -> thin ascending loop of henle -> thick ascending loop of henle -> distal convoluted tubule -> collecting duct.

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172
Q

proximal convoluted tubule

A

the start of the convoluted tubules of the nephron which is closest to the renal corpuscle. These have microvilli for transport.

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173
Q

distal convoluted tubule

A

in the cortex, of many nephrons combine and feed into a single collecting duct. Next to afferent and efferent arterioles. Monitors how things are going and provides feedback to influence the beginning of the process.

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174
Q

cells in the distal convoluted tubule can..

A

regulate filtration and tell the afferent arteriole to vasoconstrict when filtration occurs too fast and vice versa.

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175
Q

key function of the kidney

A

maintaining homeostasis: eg water and electrolyte balance, blood osmolarity, blood volume and pressure.

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176
Q

Osmolarity

A

measure of the osmotic pressure exerted by a solution across a perfect semi-permeable membrane compared to pure water
molarity x dissociation factor

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177
Q

unit of osmolarity

A

mOsm/L

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178
Q

NaCl osmolarity

A

fully dissociates: eg 150 milimolar (mM) + 1L water dissociates to give 150 mM/L Na+ and 150 mM/L Cl- = 300 mOsm/L

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179
Q

glucose and urea osmolarity

A

dont dissociate, 300 mM urea + 1L water -> 300 mOsm/L.

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180
Q

molarity x dissociation factor

A

osmolarity, eg. glucose doesnt (1), NaCl does (2)

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181
Q

hyperosmotic

A

a solution with a higher osmolarity than another (eg. 300 mM/L NaCl vs 300 mM/L urea).

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182
Q

iso-osmotic

A

two solutions with the same osmolarity being compared: 150 mM/L NaCl vs 300 mM/L Urea

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183
Q

tonicity

A

effective osmolarity -> takes into account the conc of a solute and ability of the particle to cross a semi-permable membrane

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183
Q

hyposmotic

A

a solution having a lower osmolarity than another eg: 150 mM/L urea vs 150 mM/L NaCl.

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184
Q

tonicity of NaCl

A

NaCl has a low permeability, eg in solution with a cell cytosol of ~300 mOsm, and 150 mM NaCl -> the cell does not shrink or enlarge -> isotonic

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185
Q

hypertonic

A

when a solution has a higher POsm than another -> water will leave the cell and cause cell shrinkage.

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185
Q

Urea tonicity.

A

Has high permeability into cell: its isosmotic but not isotonic. When putting cell cytosol into urea, the urea will move into the cell as there is little urea in the cell causing the cell to swell.

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186
Q

hypotonic solution

A

eg cell swells and rbc can eventually burst -> urea moving into cell. A solution with a lower POsm than another, water will move into the cell.

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187
Q

isotonic

A

two solutions with the same POsm -> no net water movement

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188
Q

dehydration

A

the loss of water via sweat or something, the extracellular fluid and cells lose water -> to maintain osmolarity the cells lose water to dilute conc of extracellular fluid to mantain isotonicity.

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189
Q

Hydration

A

gain of water -> decrease osmolarity in extracellular fluid and water will move into the cell which causes the cell to swell.

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190
Q

fluid distribution in the bodu (70kg male)

A

60% fluid = 42 L, 2/3 intracellular = 28 L, 1/3 = 14 L.
20% plasma = 2.8
80% interstitial: 11.2 L

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191
Q

water intake and output

A

average output of water is matched with average intake per day of about 2.5 L

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191
Q

How much of blood is plasma

A

55% = 2.8 L of plasma and 5L blood.

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192
Q

electrolyte distribution in the body

A

must keep up proton pump -> sodium and chloride is generally high outside of the cell (extracellular) and potassium is high inside the cell (intracellular)

192
Q

What sets up uneven ion distributions in the body

A

Na/K ATP synthase

192
Q

how much water comes from metabolism, food and beverages?

A

beverages: 1.6 L, food 0.7 L and metabolism 0.2

193
Q

overview of production of urine (excretion)

A

filtration from blood to nephron - reabsorption from tubular fluid into blood + secretion from blood to tubular fluid

193
Q

reabsorption of the kidneys

A

180L fluid filtered into nephron tubule per day and majority (~178 L) is reabsorbed back into extracellular fluid then removed via vasa recta

193
Q

The kidneys importance: receives how much of the cardiac output at rest?

A

1/4 (20-25%) of blood, much more than the brain and over a Litre per minute.

194
Q

how many times is the extracellular fluid filtered by the kidneys per day?

A

12x most of it is reabsorbed rather than filtered out

195
Q

the amount excreted in urine

A

is whats left of the fluid of whats being reabsorbed

196
Q

what forces oppose ultra filtration

A

bowmans space hydrostatic pressure and glomerullar capillary oncotic pressure

196
Q

glomerular filtration rate

A

~125 ml/min = 180 L/day

197
Q

what is glomerular filtration dependent on

A

pressure gradients, the major force pushing fluid and solutes out is the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure.

198
Q

what pushes blood out the capsule

A

bowmans space oncotic pressure and glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

199
Q

what is the major pressure gradient for glomerular filtration

A

the pressure inside the capillary itself

200
Q

what is the net filtration pressure in glomerular filtration

A

around 10 mmHg: GBHP (55mmHg - CHP (15mmHg) - BCOP (30 mmHg).

200
Q

net filtration pressure of glomerular filtration

A

NFP = GBHP - CHP - BCOP

200
Q

changing resistance in afferent and efferent arterioles can have a huge effect on…

A

glomerular pressure and filtration rate (glomerular capillary pressure).

201
Q

resistance increase in afferent arteriole

A

decreases pressure of glomerulus and decreases filtration

202
Q

increasing resistance in the efferent arteriole

A

increases pressure of glomerulus and increases filtration rate.

203
Q

regulation of glomerular filtration

A

can be through autoregulation, neural, hormonal or anything that alters glomerular hydrostatic blood pressure (pressure in afferent artery) or anything that alters SA.

204
Q

autoregulation in glomerular filtration

A

myogeneic autoregulation or tubulo glomerular feedback -> blood flow to kidney is tightly regulated and glomerular filtration rate is relatively constant.

205
Q

neural regulation in glomerular filtration

A

increased sympathetic nerve activity leads to vasoconstriction -> lower pressure glomerulus and lower filtration

206
Q

hormonal regulation in glomerular filtration

A

angiotension II via vasoconstriction of afferent and predominantly efferent arterioles. Atrial natriuetic peptide via relaxation of mesangial cells which increase SA for filtration.

207
Q

urine output and pressure

A

proportional to renal pressure -> higher renal pressure more urine output

208
Q

tubuloglomerular feedback

A

the distal tubule cells -> sense increase glomerular filtration from increased tubular flow rate -> increased tubular Na+ and Cl-, water content is sensed by macula densa cells and juxtaglomerular apparatus NO release dcreased to cause afferent arteriole vasoconstriction

209
Q

what senses the extra Na+ and Cl- in the distal tubule

A

macula densa cells

210
Q

ion movement in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Na is pumped into the interstital space by Na - K atpase on basal surface of epithelial cells which creates a conc gradient. The sodium movment into tubule cells occurs via symporters (eg Na/glucose symporter). Glucose and other solutes can then diffuse down their conc gradient. Na movement allows water movement via osmosis.

211
Q

juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

releases less NO to decrease glomerular filtration by causing the afferent arteriole to constrict

212
Q

juxtamedullary nephron vs cortical nephron

A

cortical nephrones are above more in the cortex and cannot make a concentrated urine whereas the juxtamedullary nephrons are in the medulla and important in the production of concentrated urine.

213
Q

where is the site with the largest amount of solute and water reabsorption from filtered fluid

A

the proximal convoluted tubule with 60% glomerular filtrate, 60% NaCl and water and 100% glucose

213
Q

what is the osmolarity of the proximal convoluted tubule

A

290 mOsmol/L

214
Q

how does Na travel into the tubule

A

symporters eg Na and glucose symporters.

215
Q

what happens at the descending loop of henle?

A

part of the nephrons, high permeability to water and low to ions and urea. This is due to interstitial fluid being high conc in medulla of kidney -> water moves out of tubule via osmosis -> therefore at the bottom the henle filtrate is very concentrated

216
Q

what is the concentration/osmolarity of the bottom of the henle loop

A

1200 mOsmol/L

217
Q

thick ascending henle

A

impermeable to water, setting up gradient of high salts. Salts and ions are actively reabsorbed and by the time it reaches the top it becomes very dilute

218
Q

what is the osmolarity of the thick ascending limb

A

100 mOsmol/L, very dilute as water is impermeable and cannot leave while ions can.

219
Q

Loop of henle gradient set up

A

movement of ions out of the thick ascending loop sets up the gradient for the water to move out the descending loop (osmosis)

220
Q

where is interstitial fluid the most concentrated

A

the tip of the medulla.

220
Q

vein and arteriole and the nephrons

A

vein is close to the descending loop and the arteriole is close to the ascending loop so blood flow is going the opposite current to the henle.

221
Q

where does glucose exit the tubule (nephron)

A

proximal convoluted tubule

221
Q

countercurrent with blood and henle

A

water goes into vasa recta and taken away while the ions go to the capillaries and reach the tip of the medulla.

221
Q

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct function without ADH

A

additional reabsorption of NaCl, impermeable to water (water doesnt move out while ions move out to capillaries). Urine is dilute.

221
Q

antidiuretic hormone

A

precursor to ADH and is made in the hypothalamus and stored in vesicles of posterior pituitary -> signal is sent to posterior pitutary from osmoreceptors and ADH is released in blood stream

221
Q

alcohol inhibits

A

ADH

222
Q

where does Na movement/ions move in the nephrons

A

everywhere but the descending loop of henle

222
Q

isotonic solution fluid dynamic in kidney

A

will remain in extracellular fluid and has no effect on plasma osmolarity

223
Q

water- fluid dynamics with the kidney

A

rapidly equilibrates throughout ICF and ECF, which also decreases osmolarity

224
Q

osmoreceptors

A

innervates hypothalamus sense increase in Na conc and increase in osmolarity. A single is sent to the posterior pit. and ADH released in blood stream

224
Q

a hypertonic solution in kidney

A

draw water out of cells -> plasma/ECF volume increases and intracellular cell volume decreases

225
Q

what does antidiuretic hormone do?

A

acts on the last part of the convoluted distal tubule and the collecting duct. Stimulates the insertion of aquaporin-2 containing vesicles into the apical membrane of principal cells

226
Q

plasma levels and osmolarity

A

plasma ADH (antidiuretic hormone) increases as osmolarity increases.

227
Q

What are osmoreceptors

A

stretch activated cation channels, when the cell shrinks the cell wall is stretched and the cation channels open. Na+ entering the cells and triggers action potentials.

228
Q

ADH facillitates the reabsorption of…

A

water out of the distal tubule and collecting duct which makes the urine concentrated and can be maximum of 1200 osmolarity.

228
Q

aquaporin-2

A

water channel that can move from the tubule to the cell when ADH is present.

229
Q

when ADH is present and stimulates aquaporin 2

A

aquaporin 2 moves from tubule to to cell and then the basolateral membrane which is always relatively permeable to water can now move via osmosis back into the blood.

229
Q

where does the passive movement of water occur in the tubules

A

everywhere apart from ascending henle

230
Q

a decrease i blood volume/pressure can also increase ADH release

A

baroreceptors also react to plasma volume increase or decrease -> secondary mechanism

230
Q

which hormone is good at maintaining water balance for the kidney

A

ADH -> maintains osmolarity.

231
Q

high plasma osmolarity results in

A

increase ADH and water absorption is increased -> concentrated urine -> normal plasma osmolarity

232
Q

when there is low plasma osmolarity

A

decreased ADH release, decreased water reabsorption -> water is lost as dilute urine -> normal plasma osmolarity.

232
Q

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system primary role

A

regulating sodium balance -> also important in blood pressure regulation

233
Q

what causes renin release

A

low sodium in distal tubule, decreased perfusion pressure and increased sympathetic activity (low BP, BV)

233
Q

Renin-angiotensin system

A

renin is released from JG cells (which is the rate limiting step) -> angiotensin I and then angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE in lungs) -> angiotensin II -> vasoconstriction and aldosterone release for Na retension.

233
Q

macula densa cells and sodium levels

A

respond to decrease in NaCl content in distal tubule by releasing prostaglandins, and juxtaglomerular cells release renin which is sensed by the macular densa.

234
Q

major way that angiotensin II acts to increase Na reabs

A

aldosterone, acts on distal tubule and collecting ducts to increase transcription of Na/K+ atpase pumps. Water reabs may also increase via osmosis if ADH is present.

234
Q

ang II and glomerular filtration

A

it is a potent vasoconstrictor but it constricts both the afferent and efferent arteriole which helps maintain the glomerular filtration rate.

234
Q

angiotensin and Na reabsorption in proximal tubule

A

acts directly on the proximal tubule to increase Na+ reabsorption

235
Q

key effects of angiotensin II

A
  • inc aldosterone release and thus Na reabs in the distal convoluted tubules
  • directly increase Na and water reabs in proximal tubule
  • vasoconstriction
  • act centrally to stimulate thirst and salt intake, release of ADH inc sympathetic activity.
235
Q

where is aldosterone released

A

released from the adrenal cortex in response to angiotensin II

236
Q

what happens during haemorrhage?

A

renin-angiotensin system and ADH. decrease in blood senced by juxtaglomerular cells and arterial baroreceptors -> inc sympathetic activity and ADH and renin/angiotensin II/adosterone.

237
Q

thirst mechanism for regulating water intake

A

central neural pathway triggered primarily by increased plasma osmolarity and dry mouth -> less sensitive than ADH

237
Q

Blood loss is (hypovolemic shock)

A

hpyovolemic/isotonic

238
Q

function of the skeletal system

A

support, protection, movement for muscles to attach, calcium and phosphorous reserve. Haemopoiesis and fat storage with yellow bone marrow.

238
Q

ANP atrial natriuretic peptide

A

response to atrial stretch and increase in blood volume -> reduces renin, ADH and aldosterone release to increase GFR to reduce Na and water reabs

239
Q

time scale of reactions regarding blood P, BV, blood cells and osmolarity

A
  1. blood pressure within seconds, 2. osmolarity within minutes, 3. restore blood volume and blood cells over days to fix.
240
Q

the two major skeletal regions

A

axial region and appendicular reigon

241
Q

haemopoiesis

A

making blood which is found in the bone marrow -> red bone marrow

242
Q

how many bones

A

206

243
Q

main function of the axial skeleton

A

support, protection and haemopoiesis (red bone marrow)

243
Q

main function of appendicular skeleton

A

movement and fat storage (yellow bone marrow) consists of long bones (humerus).

243
Q

how many bones in the axial skeleton

A

80, some are paired but mainly for stability and support

244
Q

how many bones in the appendicular skeleton

A

126 (paired) these are paired to enhance movement

244
Q

Where is the epiphysis

A

the top and bottom of a long bone

245
Q

The organisation of the long bone -> structure

A

consists of epiphysis (top and bottom), metaphysis (transition) and diaphysis (long section).

246
Q

where is the metaphysis

A

the transitory region between the epiphysis and the diaphysis in the long bone

247
Q

where is the diaphysis

A

the middle narrow section of a long bone

248
Q

what is unique to a long bone

A

the diaphysis-> containing a large medullary space.

248
Q

epiphysis structure

A

sponge like space for bone marrow in medullary cavities, contains articular cartilage and no periosteum due to cartilage, thinner compact bone region in comparison to diaphysis and a large portion of spongy bone containing trabeculae which is covered by endostem

249
Q

where do blood vessels in the epiphysis go

A

makes it way to the medullary space where the bone marrow is, this is. how haemopoietic tissue gets out of the bone.

249
Q

trabeculae

A

area in epiphysis covered in endostem and lines all internal surfaces of the bone.

250
Q

the compact bone region of the epiphysis and diaphysis

A

the compact bone of the epiphysis is thinner than the thicker diaphysis compact bone.

251
Q

the endosteum

A

thin, inner fibro-cellular layer lining medullary cavities which is thinner than the periosteum

252
Q

structure of diaphysis

A

Covered by periosteum on the outside of the bone, large compact bone forming outer shell, the endosteum which is a thin inner layer, the medullary cavity contains bone marrow.

253
Q

the periosteum

A

present as the outer fibro-cellular sheath surrounding the bone when cartilage is not present. Has perforating (sharpey’s) fibers to hold the periosteum to the bone.

254
Q

why does the diaphysis require less support compared to the epiphysis

A

the force exerted on the diaphysis that runs through is no long perpendicular to the bone whereas the force exerted on the epiphysis is perpendicular.

255
Q

perforating (sharpey’s fibers)

A

present where there is periosteum on the bone outer wall to hold the periosteum to the bone as collagen fibers leave periosteum to infuse with the bone tissue.

256
Q

water content in bone compared to the rest of the body

A

most tissues have 70-80% water, however bone is around 20-25% dehydrated

256
Q

what kind of tissue is the bone

A

highly specialised connective tissue

256
Q

bone structure (specialised connective tissue)

A

consists of extracellular matrix with collagen fibers and ground substance, water and fibers.

257
Q

the extracellular matrix compartment of the bone

A

consists of water and hydroxyapatite which is unique to the bone. Contains collagen fibers which gives the tissue its framework

258
Q

ground substance of the bone connective tissue

A

hydroxyapatite which is unique to bone.

259
Q

what fibers are in the bone tissue and what does it do

A

collagen fibers and it gives the bone its structure and framework, this resists TENSION (stretching and pulling)

260
Q

cells in the bone

A

osteocytes for the maintenance of the cell and secretes extracellular matrix. Can have osteogenic, osteoblasts, osteocytes and osteoclasts.

261
Q

tension on the bone

A

stretching and pulling which the collagen fibers resist

262
Q

compression in the bone is resisted by

A

compression is the squeezing and crushing of the bone which is resisted by the ground substance of the bone (hydroxyapatite)

263
Q

hydroxyapatite vs collagen fibers

A

collagen fibers are organic substances that resist tension while hydroxyapatite is inorganic and resist compression.

264
Q

tension and compression resistance

A

due to the fibers and the hydroxyapatite of the ground substance allows for the bone to resist torsion

265
Q

osteogenic cell

A

precursor is unspecialised stem cells, and on the surface of the periosteum and endosteum, usually dormant and the cellular component of the fibrio cellular layer. Can differentiate to osteoblast when activated.

266
Q

osteoblast

A

precursor: osteogenic cell, usually in a layer under periosteum or endosteum. This is active and wherever new bone is formed to allow synthesis, deposition and calcification of osteoid to make new bone.

267
Q

what does the osteoblast do

A

synthesis, deposition and calcification of osteoid to make new bone.

268
Q

osteoid

A

organic extracellular matrix is synthesised by the osteoblasts prior to mineral deposition, 70% collagen. This precursor matrix is eventually infiltrated with hydroxyapatite in calcification to make strong dense bones.

269
Q

osteocyte location and function

A

trapped within lacunae inside bone, can communicate to neighbouring cells via long cellular processes inside canaliculi. Maintains the bone by maintaining bone tissue, creating live lattice in bone, localised minor repair and rapid Ca exchange.

270
Q

where does osteocyte comes from

A

when osteoblasts bury themselves in osteoid to be calcified to become osteocytes

271
Q

osteoclast

A

own lineage, created from the fusion of monocyte progenitor cells to form syncytium, present at sites where bone resorption is occuring and secretes acid and enzymes to decalcify and dissolve the mineral and organic components of the bone.

272
Q

syncytium

A

fusion of monocytes

273
Q

anatomy of the osteoclast

A

contains ruffled border (convoluted cell membrane) and lots of nuclei and creates a secretive pit called howships lacunae..

274
Q

how does the bone grow

A

appositional growth, remodeling of the bone by growing outside and bone resorption in the inside layer.

275
Q

diaphysis cross section (cellular compartments)

A

blood vessels and nerves in the periosteum with resting osteogenic cells, underneath is the osteocytes in their lacunae to form a lattice. Osteocyte cellular prosseses are in canaliculi. Then the endosteum and resting osteocytes. Underneath is the medullary cavity with bone marrow and blood vessels.

276
Q

what are the two cell types that are not present when the bone is in a resting state

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts which are only there when the bone is being remodeled.

277
Q

appositional growth first step

A

periosteum becomes active and signals osteogenic cells to start dividing to osteoblasts to deposit osteoid to calcify. At the same time, monocyte precursor cells leave blood vessel underneath endosteum and start to fuse on the bone surface.

278
Q

appositional growth second step

A

osteoblasts become trapped in lacunae to eventually become osteocytes and some remain in the periosteum, at the bottom end the monocyte cells form syncytium -> osteoclasts start dissolving the bone

279
Q

appositional growth 3rd step

A

osteoblasts left in the periosteum are either converted back into osteogenic cells or die, the osteoid here is fully calcified. On the flipside, the osteoclasts eventually die via apoptosis and resorption stops.

279
Q

growth and resorption of both relationship

A

can occur at the same time but growth and resorption can occur at the same time.

280
Q

appositional growth end result

A

the periosteum and endosteum are back to a resting state, the blood vessels grow into a new space following the resorption of bone by osteoclasts (that provided the space.

281
Q

why cant the bone grow via interstitial growth

A

the bone is too rigid so they can only grow via appositional growth by adding new bone to an existing surface.

282
Q

two types of lamellar bone

A

consists of either spongy and compact bone

282
Q

how do long bones grow in length by

A

endochondrial ossification.

283
Q

what is lamellae in the bone

A

appositional growth lays down new bone in layers and sheets that alternate to cover all directions of tension

284
Q

immature bone/woven

A

collagen is loosely packed in bone and it is not as rigid.

285
Q

the width/length of spongy bone trabecula

A

0.4mm maximum, any bigger will mean that the osteocytes will run out of nutrients from the blood supply in the medullary cavity.

285
Q

where is spongy bone found and bone weight

A

less common bone type and 10% of bone weight, usually found in areas subject to compression.

286
Q

spongy bone structure

A

consists of layers of alternating lamellae with the oldest layer on the inside and the newest outside. Osteoclasts settle easy on the high SA of the bone which makes it subject to osteoporosis.

286
Q

osteon of compact bone

A

harversian system -> contains central/harversian canal -> the cylindrical, functional units of bone and allows nutrient exchange with the blood. Cannot be >0.4mm

287
Q

compact bone size. location.. etc

A

much larger than spongy bone, can be 1 cm thick.

287
Q

nutrient availability in the spongy trabeculae

A

nutrients from the blood vessels in the medullary cavity can pass via canniculi but as the bone is poorly hydrated the innermost/oldest lamallae can lose nutrients which constricts it to be 0.4 mm

288
Q

compact bone structure

A

circumferential lamellae and interstitial lamellae, concentric lamellae in an osteon, periosteal blood vessels forming the perforating/volkamann’s canal -> has a periosteum that forms the outer fibrous layer and inner osteogenic layer.

289
Q

osteon formation can occur in two different ways:

A

appositional growth forming primary osteon or osteoclast activity forming secondary osteon

290
Q

appositional growth forming primary osteon (1) start

A

formed around an existing blood vessel on the surface of the bone during bone growth. The area of periosteum behind the periosteal blood vessel slows down in growth while the sides grow faster.

291
Q

secondary osteon

A

created from existing bone via osteoclast activity.

292
Q

appositional growth -> primary osteon (2)

A

bone continues to grow, the areas on either side of the blood vessels continue to grow and the ridges come together and fuse to form a tunnel around the blood vessel . The tunnel is now lined with the endosteum.

293
Q

appositional growth of a primary osteon (3)

A

osteoblasts in the endosteum build concentric lamellae onto walls of the tunnel, the tunnel is slowly filled inward toward the center

294
Q

appositional growth of a primary osteon (4)

A

the bone continues to grow outwards as the osteoblasts in the periosteum build new circumferential lamellae. Osteon formation repeats as new periosteal ridges fold over another blood vessels.

295
Q

secondary osteoclast (1)

A

osteoclasts form and gather in an area that needs to be remodelled and start boring its way through existing bone -> called cutting cone. This creates a tunnel in existing bone.

296
Q

secondary osteoclast (2)

A

after the tunnel is created, the osteoblasts move in and line the tunnel wall. They form new active endosteum and start depositing osteoid onto the walls of the tunnel, the osteoid is then calcified to form new lamella. A blood vessel will grow into the newly formed tunnel

297
Q

secondary osteoclast (4)

A

eventually the tunnel is reduced to the size of a typical haversian canal -> remaining osteoblasts either die or become osteogenic cells to contribute to resting endosteum. This forms the new osteon.

298
Q

secondary osteoclast (3)

A

osteoblasts deposit layer upon layer of new concentric lamellae onto the walls of the tunnel and slowly filling it in. This active area behind the cutting cone is called the closing cone, some osteoblasts are trapped in the newly deposited lamellar bone and become osteocytes.

299
Q

difference between primary osteon and secondary

A

the primary osteon is created on the surface of a bone as it grows and the secondary uses existing bone.

300
Q

cement line

A

when a secondary osteon is formed and is the line seen at the junction of the outermost lamella of the new osteon and the preexisting older bone.

301
Q

spongy bone unit vs compact bone unit

A

spongy bone: trabecula, compact bone: osteon

301
Q

spongy bone vs compact bone formation

A

spongy bone grows outwards and compact bone grows inwards to form haversian canal.

301
Q

location of compact bone

A

outer shell of bones, diaphysis of long bones

302
Q

location of spongy bone

A

epiphysis of long bones and inside bones.

303
Q

function of compact bone

A

provide strong and dense shell of bone on the outside, thickening in areas that are exposed to large forces.

303
Q

where is the blood supply of the spongy bone

A

in medullary cavity

304
Q

where is the blood supply of the compact bone

A

the osteon -> haversian and volkmanns canals

305
Q

function of spongy bone

A

support outer cortex of compact bone where from tension occurs in all different directions, this reduces the weight of the bone and has rapid turnover of Ca and P

306
Q

joint definition

A

joint of articulation is any point at which two or more bones interconnect.

307
Q

functions of the joint

A

movement, force transmittion and growth (plates allow oestoplasts inside to grow the plates).

307
Q

three types of joints

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diathrosis

308
Q

synarthrosis

A

immovable joint, high stability and low movement as found usually in the axial skeleton for support

309
Q

amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable join with medium movement and stability

310
Q

diatrhrosis

A

low stability and high movement for the appendicular skeleton

311
Q

synovial joints

A

simple and freely movable as it is not restricted by the properties of a specific tissue or tissues which hold ends of bones tightly together. Apart from the articular capsule the ends of the articulating bones in a synovial joint are mostly free.

312
Q

what are the four common features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A
  1. articular cartilage, articular capsule, joint cavity which contains synovial fluid
312
Q

blood vessels and nerves in synovial joints

A

in the fibrous layer/synovial membrane which is important for joint health

313
Q

risks of synovial joints

A

wide range of motion but can introduce instability

313
Q

articular capsule

A

between the articular cartilage of the synovial joint that is the fibrous layer and contains synovial membrane.

313
Q

articular cartilage of the synovial joint

A

part of the synovial join that makes up the cartilage between two opposing bones,

314
Q

what is the part that limits the range of motion in the synovial joint

A

articular capsule -> synovial membrane

315
Q

synovial fluid

A

in the joint cavity of the synovial joint, ultrafiltrate of blood plasma that leaks out of the blood vessels in the synovial membrane to the joint space. Also has hyaluronic acid secreted by synoviocytes. Contains monocytes, lympocytes, macrophages and synoviocytes.

316
Q

joint cavity

A

the inner space left by the articular capsule and cartilage which contains synovial fluid

317
Q

articular cartilage

A

specialised type of HYALINE (common) cartilage, a type of connective tissue. Protects the ends of bones that come together to form a joint.

318
Q

thickness of articular cartilage

A

1-7mm thick, attached to the bone

319
Q

what does the articular cartilage do

A

absorbs shock, support heavy loads for long periods of time and provide a smooth, near frictionless surface when combined with synovial fluid.

320
Q

arthritis

A

degradation of the synovial joint articular cartilage.

321
Q

components of the articular cartilage

A

cells: chondrocytes ~5%, extracellular matrix of ground substance and fibers

322
Q

chondrocytes in the articular cartilage

A

build, repair and maintain cartilage but only makes up around 5%, lives in lacunae.

323
Q

extracellular matrix of the articular cartilage

A

ground substance of wwater, and glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans. Fibers are collagen fibers type II

324
Q

ground substance of the extracellular matrix of the articular cartilage

A

water, ions 75% wet weight and the fluid component that can move in and out of the tissue to keep chondrocytes alive. Also contains glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans

325
Q

fibers in the articular cartilage

A

mainly type II and 75% of dryweight, this is more flexible and provides structural integrity to the tissue, specific zonation patterns and also part of the solid component that is fixed inside the tissue.

325
Q

glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans

A

provides the swelling and hydrating mechanism for the proper function of cartilage, part of the solid component that is fixed inside the tissue.

326
Q

proteoglycan content in the articular cartilage

A

low from the surface zone and highest in the deep zone, this increases down the tissues.

327
Q

as we get older, what happens to the functional zones of the articular cartilage

A

the functional zones get smaller.

328
Q

the zones in order, of the articular cartilage

A

surface zone, middle zone, deep zone, tide mark (functional transitory zone), calcified cartilage, osteochondral junction and subchondral bone.

329
Q

does the cartilage contain blood vessels

A

no blood vessels, nerves or lymphatics, chondrocytes are nourished via diffusion only as this joint survives long periods under compression.

330
Q

osteochondral junction

A

second to last segment of the articular cartilage which is undulated to inc SA to make it harder for cartilage to get delaminated.

331
Q

calcified cartilage of the articular cartilage

A

has low proteoglycans but high in hydroxyapatite as it is calcified, chondrocytes sit inside lacunae and are still calcifying.

332
Q

Collagen fibers in the surface zone of the articular cartilage

A

parallel and cells are tightly packed

332
Q

collagen fibers and chondrocytes in middle zone

A

thicker fibers but not as densely packed in a oblique pattern, space for chondrocytes to be round lacunae.

333
Q

collagen fibers and chondrocytes i n the deep zone and beyond

A

perpendicular fibers in a line -> chondrocytes form stacks (nests) undergoing division as they occupy spaces between bundles of collagen fibers.

333
Q

oesteoporosis

A

bones have more pores, cartilage eroded to bone -> damaged bone underneath and bone appears to reapir itself.

334
Q

repeating disaccharide units

A

are glycoaminogylcan chains made up of chondroitin and keratin sulphate, each disaccharide has charges on them. These have ~125 chondroitin chains.

334
Q

proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid chain

A

proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid chains form a large proteoglycan complex which can attach to collagen fibers.

335
Q

glycosaminoglycans and protein core

A

glcoaminoglycans attach to a protein core become a proteogylcan (looks hairy), the negative charges repel each other to make the GAGs stand out like bristles which is useful for the tissue.

335
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (1)

A

start with recently unloaded cartilage, the collagen fibers are in fixed solid component.

336
Q

the loading cycle of the articular cartilage

A

helps flush the cartilage and allows for compression of the joint

337
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (2)

A

negative charges on the repeating units of diasaccarides attract positive ions into the the cartilage from the joint space, this increases the ion conc in the matrix

337
Q

mobile fluid component of the articular cartilage

A

part of the articular cartilage cycle consisting of Ca2+, K+, Na+ and water.

337
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (3)

A

increase in ion conc creates an osmotic pressure gradient which draws water into the matrix, the cartilage begins to swell with the influx of water.

337
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (4)

A

as the cartilage swells the collagen is placed under increasing tension, eventually the swelling force will equalise with the tensional forces.. causing the cartilage to stop swelling. This is known as the unloaded equilibrium.

337
Q

unloaded equilibrium

A

swelling force = tensional force of the articular cartilage cycle, the volume is the same and tension is on the collagen fibers.

337
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (5)

A

when a compressional load is introduced, the fluid component (water and pos ions) are squeezed out of the cartilage and back into the joint space and synovial fluid.

337
Q

loaded equilbrium

A

part of the articular cartilage cycle where the compressive load is supported by the solid component and the repulsion of the negative disaccharide charges. The cartilage will stop shrinking meaning it has reached loaded equilbrium

337
Q

what is the fourth phase on the articular cartilage loading cycle good for (unloaded equilibrium)

A

pre stressed state of the fluid volume all built up is good at resisting compressional forces.

337
Q

loading cycle of articular cartilage (6)

A

the loss of fluid reduces the volume of the cartilage (creep) and pushes solid negative parts together. Eventually the compressive load will be supported by the solid component and the repulsion of the negative charges. The cartilage will stop shrinking = loaded equilbrium

337
Q

how much ROM does the articular capsule limit

A

only extreme ROM

338
Q

all synovial joints are surrounded and enclosed by

A

a joint capsule which forms a sleeve around the joint but connecting the ends of contributing bones.

338
Q

what is the articular capsule composed of

A

an outer fibrous layer and an inner synovial membrane

338
Q

how is the articular capsule preforated

A

by vessels and nerves that may be reinforced by ligaments (dense regular connective tissue connecting bone-bone).

338
Q

subintima of the articular capsule

A

highly vascular and contain macrophages that clean up debris, contains fat cells (adipocytes) as packaging material and fibroblasts that help maintain and protect the articular capsule during normal movement.

338
Q

the fibrous membrane of the articular capsule

A

contains outerlayer of dense connective tissue (densly packed collagen)-(both regular and irregular) variable in thickness.

338
Q

what cells and components make up the fibrous part of the articular capsule

A

fibroblasts that put down and maintain collagen fibrils, nerves that monitor stretch and small amount/no blood vessels

338
Q

fibroblasts in the fibrous articular capusle

A

put down collagen fibrils in both the fibrous and synovial membrane layer -> more in fibrous layer

338
Q

which part of the articular capsule is poorly vascularized but richly innervated

A

fibrous capsule of the articular capsule

338
Q

fibrous layer structure in depth

A

parallel but interlacing bundles of white collage that is continuous with the periosteum of the bone, thicker sections -> capsular ligaments, these ligaments and rest of the capsule resist tensional forces. Poor vascularised and supports synovial membrane. Richly innervated.

338
Q

blood vessels subintima of the articular capsule

A

highly vascular to allow filtrate of blood plasma and fluid exchanges with the capillaries and intracapsular synovial fluid in the joint cavity.

338
Q

intima of the synovial membrane of the articular capsule

A

1-3 cells thick and has cells that are loosely called synoviocytes and secrete some of the components found in synovial fluid.

338
Q

synovial membrane of the articular capsule

A

inner layer of loose connective tissue of variable thickness and lines all the non-articular surfaces inside the joint cavity up to the edge of the articular cartilage. Divided up to the intima and subintima.

338
Q

joint cavity space

A

small area between articulating surfaces while peripheral margins of the joint cavity are filled by the collapsing and in-folding of synovial membrane (villi). This potential space contains a small amount of fluid called synovial fluid. <2mL.

338
Q

function of synovial fluid

A

joint lubrication, shock absorption, chondrocyte metabolism and overall joint maintenace.

338
Q

key function of the muscle

A

convert chemical energy (ATP) to mechanical energy.

338
Q

tissue of muscle

A

muscle is a specialized tissue designed for contraction. it is the motor that generates movement by pulling on the skeleton.

338
Q

functions of the muscle following contraction

A

movement of skeleton, stabilising joints and maintain posture by stopping unnecessary movement, communication of facial expression etc, control of body openings (sphincters) and passages and heat production.

338
Q

origin of muscle

A

attachment that moves the least during contraction (eg ilium for iliofibular muscle)

338
Q

heat production of muscle

A

produce as much as 85% of our body heat. This heat is used to maintain the body at 37*C for normal function.

338
Q

tendon

A

connects muscle to bone -> resistant to tension

338
Q

insertion

A

attachment that moves the most during muscle contraction, usually more distal attachment and lighter part of body as origin is close to axial skeleton.

338
Q

OTJ - osteotendinous junction

A

strong and connects tendon to bone.

338
Q

MTJ myotendinous junction

A

weaker and injury prone connecting tendon to muscle

338
Q

ligament

A

connects bone to bone

339
Q

muscle belly

A

the contractable part of the muscle/anatomy of skeletal muscle.

340
Q

organisation of skeletal muscle (layers of connective tissue)

A

Coming off the tendin is the muscle -> bundle of fascicles and has three layers of connective tissue being: epimysium, perimysium and fascicles.

340
Q

the area that connects the tendon and the muscle

A

deep fascia

341
Q

order of muscle layers

A

the skin -> deep fascia which is not part of the muscle -> muscle -> epimysium -> perimysium -> fasicle -> endomysium -> myocyte: sarcolemma, sarcoplasm and myofibril.

342
Q

endomysium

A

loose irregular connective tissue surrounding myocytes that contain nerves and capillaries to supply myocytes for aerobic respiration. This forms a fasicle

342
Q

perimysium

A

under the epimysium containing dense irregular connective tissue.

342
Q

epimysium

A

the dense irregular connective tissue surrounding perimysium and the entire muscle (outermost layer)

343
Q

fasicles

A

a bundle of myocytes and contains the endomysium to hold myocytes and blood + nerves. The myocytes contain many nuclei due to the fusion of cells -> syncytium.

344
Q

myocyte

A

muscle fibre/cell and a bundle of myofibrils (organelles). 10 um-100um, these are large and long. Contains myoglobin to bind to O2. Cell membrane -> sarcolemma and sarcoplasm as the cell cytoplasm.

345
Q

sarcolemma

A

the cell membrane of the myocyte which contains myofibrils, this is good for contraction and conducting action potential

346
Q

sarcoplasm

A

the myocyte cytoplasm that is between myofibrils in the myocyte

347
Q

myofibril

A

most common organelle and consist of many sarcomeres. These are small 1um. Defined by Z discs with A bands (dark) and I bad (light)

348
Q

sarcomere

A

segments of the myofibrils that are contractile units which shorten in contraction. Have Z discs to mark borders between sarcomeres

349
Q

each sarcomere has

A

a Z band and an I band. The Z band is the dark portion and the I band is the lighter portion which is shared among sarcomeres.

350
Q

deep fascia and periosteum

A

blends together (fuses)

351
Q

deep fascia and muscle compartments

A

deep structures of the body are usually covered in a wrapping of dense connective tissue (regular and irregular) called deep fascia. Underlies skin and subcutaneous tissue. Firm stocking covering muscle made of collagen

352
Q

why is the muscles in compartments

A

help get blood back

353
Q

muscle dorsiflexors

A

belong to dorsiflexors compartment to lift the leg

353
Q

superficial fascia or subcutaneous tissue

A

fatty layer that conjugates blood and nerves

354
Q

atrophy

A

when the muscle decreases in size due to the reduction of myofibrils in myocytes -> remodling due to lack of use.

354
Q

muscle planterflexors

A

antagonist to dorsiflexors and the planterflexors compartment

354
Q

intermuscular septa

A

part of the investing fascia where investing fascia comes into contact with bone and fuses with the periosteum

354
Q

hyperplasia

A

when a tissue or organ increases in size due to increase in cell number which muscles dont go through.

354
Q

anabolic steroids

A

are variants of testosterone that have been synthesised by phamaceutical companies. Increases protein synthesis through their interactions with specific target tissues that include skeletal muscle and bone.

354
Q

size and repair of a muscle fibre

A

hypertrophy

354
Q

interosseous membrane

A

a thick dense fibrous sheet of connective tissue that spans the space between two bones and part of investing fascia

354
Q

hypertrophy

A

the way the muscle increases in size due to increases in size of individual myocytes (myofibres) giving 10 um - 100 um difference.

354
Q

why cant skeletal muscle grow via hyperplasia

A

the myocytes are so big and long therefore hard to organise for mitosis

354
Q

Structural proteins of muscle myofibrils

A

The Z lines of adjacent sarcomeres within a myocyte are held together by a number of structural proteins, one is called Desmin. -> align myofibrils.

354
Q

hypoplasia

A

loss of myocytes -> muscle atrophy to a point where it dies, this is difficult to reverse.

354
Q

satellite cells (myoblasts)

A

myocytes are created by the fusion of many myoblasts during the embryonic stage of life -> divide via mitosis to form myocyte and some stick around till adult hood which can fuse to repair myocyte.

354
Q

why does atrophy occur

A

when muscles are not used or stimulated by motor neurons -> when a limb is immobilised or paralysed muscle. The normal loss of muscle mass occurs at 20 years, the rate is accelerated at 50. At 80, 40% will be lost.

354
Q

where are the satellite cells (myoblasts)

A

lie beside muscle fibres outside the sarcolemma but within the same basement membrane. Satellite cells are the only cells in the muscle that can divide and fuse with each other to repair myocytes. But healing ability is limited. (dead muscle fibres)

355
Q

function of the skeletal muscle connective tissue (epi-peri and endomysium)

A

continuous and blend with each other, they have four major functions:
provide organisation and scaffolding upon which muscle is constructed, provide medium for BV and nerves to access myocytes, prevent excessive stretching and therefore dmg to myocytes and distribute forces generated by muscle fibre contraciton

356
Q

Seqential sarcomeres in a myofibril share a Z line

A

therefore when sarcomeres in a myofibril are stimulated to contract.. all the Z-lines are pulled closer together by the filaments that make up the A and I bands and the whole myofibril will shorten.

357
Q

what would happen if myofibrils acted independently

A

damage to one sarcomere in the chain will render the entire fibril useless. However this is not the case, muscles cut in vivo can still exert a pulling force on the muscle tendons

358
Q

desmin

A

the protein that align the sarcomeres between myofibrils that allow sarcomeres to shorten together and pull in unison.

358
Q

Protein complex

A

at the surface of the myocyte the Z lines of the outermost myofibrils are attached to the sarcolemma and to the surrounding basement membrane and endomysium.

359
Q

protein complex (dystrophin) function

A

thought to contribute to the strengthening of the sarcolemma while transmitting contractile forces generated by sarcomeres

360
Q

muscle dystrophy

A

distrophin is an example of a protein that contributes to the protein complex, this disease is where dystrophin is not transcribed correctly/missing -> weaker sarcolemma that tear easily and can cause cell death of myocytes.

361
Q

A and I bands perfectly aligned due to

A

desmin -> therefore a tear in a fibril does not stop contraction.

361
Q

typical tooth structure

A

crown, neck and root

362
Q

enamel

A

crystalline rods or prisms of calcium phosphate and carbonate, inorganic but subject to bacterial acid secretion that can erode the enamel. NO NERVES

363
Q

dentin

A

the layer under the enamel which contain odontoblasts, occur nearby in the pulp instead of scattered through through the dentin. Hard material

364
Q

cementum

A

calcified connective tissue covering the root under the pulp, thin second to last innermost layer

364
Q

tongue

A

allows us to articulate sound and speech for berbal communication

364
Q

pulp

A

soft tissue containing blood vessles, nerves and lymphatics. Under the dentin layer.

364
Q

periodontal ligament

A

collagen fibers linking the bone of the socket (alveolar bone) to the cementum and has a high rapid turnover rate as it anchors to the bone of the jaw.

365
Q

Peridontal ligament and vitamin C

A

needs a lot of collagen synthesis to maintain therefore has a rapid turnover rate. This needs vitamin C, deficiency can result in impairment in the replacement of periodontal ligament

366
Q

tongue structure

A

consists of superior and inferior longitudinal muscles, vertical muscles and transverse muscles

367
Q

filiform papillae

A

pointy and flexible with no tastebuds

367
Q

superior and inferior longitudinal muscles in the tongue

A

upper and lower segments of the tongue and contracts to withdraw the tongue.

368
Q

vertical muscles of the tongue

A

causes flattening of the tongue upon contraction

368
Q

transverse muscles

A

circular, cylinder shaped muscles to cause the narrowing of the tongue

369
Q

vallate papillae

A

has a moat and primary site of tastebuds

369
Q

fungiform papillae

A

bumpy looking, has some tastebuds

369
Q

the papillae of the tongue

A

provides texture and exists as fungiform, filiform and vallate papillae

370
Q

does tongue papillae have zonation?

A

no, the papillae can be found anywhere

371
Q

salivary glands

A

three pairs of glands, the parotide (serous only), sublingual (mixed, mostly mucous) and submandibular (mixed.

372
Q

which salivary gland only has serous glands

A

parotid, the rest are mixed (sublingual and submandibular)

373
Q

what is in saliva

A

water, enzymes and mucus.

374
Q

what enzyme is in saliva

A

amylase to break down starch and carbs and lysozymes are also there for antibacterial effects.

375
Q

what does salivary glands do

A

secrete following parasympathetic stimulation induced by seeing, smelling. tasting or thinking about food. heavily influenced by the autonomic nervous system and has a huge impact on digestive function

376
Q

Organs of the digestive system

A

mouth, sublingual and submandibular gland, parotid gland and pancreas, gall bladder and liver

377
Q

digestion

A

chemical breakdown of ingested food and absorbable molecules which requires secretion.

378
Q

absorption

A

movement of nutrients, water and electrolytes through the epithelial lining of the gut into blood or lymph.

379
Q

secretions in the digestive system come from

A

salivary gland which has amylase and lysozyme for lubrications, mucus and protection.

380
Q

surface area strategies

A

convoluted tubules, luminal folds, longitudinal folds, evagination, invaginations

381
Q

convoluted tubes

A

for compact of intestines

382
Q

luminal folds

A

circular continuous folds in the small intestine that maximise surface area -> pilicae circularis

383
Q

pilicae circularis

A

luminal folds of the small intestine

384
Q

longitudinal folds

A

rugae in the stomach

385
Q

rugae

A

longitudinal folds in the stomach

386
Q

evaginations

A

finger like projections in the small intestine INTO the lumen, villi and microvilli to increase absorption

387
Q

invaginations

A

finger like projections away from the lumen into the connective tissue support -> in glands such as the stomach gastric glands and intestinal glands in the intestines

388
Q

gastric glands

A

invaginations in the stomach

389
Q

intestinal glands

A

invaginations into the connective tissue in the small and large intestines

389
Q

four tunics of the gut tube

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa and serosa. Making up the wall of the small intestine.

390
Q

mucosa

A

layer of the tunics of the gut tube, this is the most variable layer consisting of the epithelium specialised for protection/abs/secretion, lamina propria that carries nerves and blood capillaries (support network), muscularis mucosae (two thin layers of smooth muscle, inner circular and outer longitudinal) movement.

390
Q

submucosa

A

a thick bed of loose connective tissue carrying larger blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves (submucosa plexus) and connects mucosa to the external muscle coat.

391
Q

muscularis externa (external smooth muscle)

A

two layers to produce peristalsis, the inner layer is circular and outer is longitudinal. Myenteric nerve plexus occurs between the layers

392
Q

serosa

A

slippery outer covering for the gut tube, two layered with outer mesothelium sitting on a bed of connective tissue. The serosa is also known as the visceral peritoneum.

393
Q

muscularis mucosae

A

part of the mucosa of the gut tunics -> has two layers of smooth muscle, inner circular and outer longitudinal.

394
Q

myenteric nerve plexus

A

occurs between the layers of inner circular smooth muscle and outer longitudinal smooth muscle of the musclaris externa.

395
Q

outermost connective tissue

A

adventitia

396
Q

liver

A

outgrowth of gut epithelium which acts partly as an excretory organ -> partly as a nutrient storage and release organ and blood purifying organ.Needs access to a dual blood supply and bile drainage system

397
Q

four layers of gut tube

A

epithelium of mucous membrane, external muscle and serosa

398
Q

oesophagus

A

25 cm long muscular tube extending from pharynx to stomach. Transport (5 sec food 1 sec fluid due to peristalsis), protection adn no abs little secretion and no digestion.

399
Q

epithelium of the mucous membrane in gut

A

many thick squamous stratified with sacrifical outer layers for portection against abrasive fragments of food, cells replaced by division in basal layers and then slow migration outwards. Renewed every 7 days

400
Q

the stomach has four regions

A

fundus, cardia, body and pylorus

400
Q

what does the stomach have when empty

A

lined with longitudinal folds called rugae

401
Q

food + gastric juice = chyme

A
401
Q

function of the stomach

A

food storage since food is eaten more quickly than digested

402
Q

other features of the stomach

A

secretion of acid, enzymes, mucus, digestion of proteins by pepsin, abs of water and ions, protection and transport

402
Q
A
403
Q

fundus and body of the stomach

A

secrete acid, enzymes and mucus

404
Q

cardia of the stomach

A

the upper part near the tube contains mostly mucous glands like the pylorus

405
Q

pyloric sphincter

A

thickening in muscular externa, involuntary. It controls the flow of chyme to the duodenum from the stomach

406
Q
A
406
Q

every hepatocyte requires

A

nutrient laden blood from intestinal wall (deoxy), oxygenated blood from systemic circut and access to ducts which drain bile to gall blader

406
Q

what carries out the funciton of liver cells

A

by hepatocytes which are multi-talented cells. 500 metabolic functions. Glycogen and glucose storage and release, recycling of red blood cells, bile synthesis and secretion, synthesis of plasma proteins and removal of toxins from blood

406
Q

where does blood leave the liver lobules

A

via the central vein

406
Q
A
407
Q
A
407
Q
A
408
Q
A
409
Q
A