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Clinical Pathology II > Test 1 study guides > Flashcards

Test 1 study guides Flashcards

1
Q

left shift is the presence of increased immature neutrophils in the _______ _______

A

peripheral bloodstream

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2
Q

regenerative left shift is shown by an increased number of _______ cells rather than ________ cells

A

mature, immature

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3
Q

what are 2 examples of reactive lymphocytes?

A

plasma cells and mott cells

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4
Q

how many days does it take for bone marrow to generate neutrophils?

A

4-6 days

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5
Q

RBC maturation order

A

rubriblast —> prorubricyte —> rubricyte —> metarubricyte —> polychromatophil —> erthyrocyte

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6
Q

what is the largest form of red blood cells?

A

rubriblast

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7
Q

which red blood cell phase needs to be identified and counted?

A

reticulocyte

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8
Q

how many reticulocytes does there need to be to initiate a manual count?

A

> 5 nRBcs

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9
Q

what is the lifespan of an RBC?

A

50-150 days

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10
Q

what unit is PCV measured in?

A

percent

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11
Q

which blood tubes can be used to obtain a PCV?

A

EDTA or heparin

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12
Q

what is the normal PCV for a canine?

A

37-55%

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13
Q

what would cause a false elevation in PCV in a sick animal?

A

dehydration

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14
Q

what location would be used to read an accurate PCV?

A

where the blood and serum meet around halfway up the tube

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15
Q

babesia gibsoni

A

small form

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16
Q

babesia canis

A

large form

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17
Q

cytauxzoon felis

A

fatal

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18
Q

leucocytozoon common name

A

“loco”

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19
Q

plasmodium looks like

A

“pushy sausage”

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20
Q

which protozoan has a pear-shaped doublet and is the large form of that parasite?

A

babesia canis

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21
Q

which parasite is known to be zoonotic causing heart failure and transmitted through kissing bugs?

A

trypanasomes

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22
Q

Plasmodium ______ the RBC nucleus

A

displaces

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23
Q

Anaplasma is most commonly found globally in ______ due to tickborne disease

A

cattle

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24
Q

which parasite doesn’t affect dogs unless they have a splenectomy?

A

hemotrophic mycoplasma

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25
Q

piroplasmosis usually occurs in all the following animals except:
a. horses
b. donkeys
c. zebras
d. birds

A

birds

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26
Q

the hemoproteus parasite “hugs” the (WBC/RBC) nucleus
pick one

A

RBC

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27
Q

the (WBC/RBC) is affected by the hepatozoon parasite

A

RBC

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28
Q

rickettsial hemoparasites classify as

A

between bacteria and viral

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29
Q

where can microfilaria be viewed on a blood smear?

A

feathered edge and monolayer

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30
Q

which protozoan is commonly seen following fighting/racing dogs?

A

babesia gibsoni

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31
Q

plasmodium is commonly referred to as

A

avian malaria

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32
Q

which WBC is commonly present with internal parasites?

A

eosinophils

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33
Q

when reading the sediment the urine should be

A

spun

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34
Q

which of the following are not a change observed by urine sitting out for too long?
a. bacteria growth
b. change in pH
c. color change
d. disintegration of casts, crystals, and other findings

A

color change

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35
Q

term for frequent urine dribbling

A

incontinence

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36
Q

what is the correct order of events for a complete UA?

A

gross exam, dipstick, SG, sediment

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37
Q

which crystal is most likely to be seen in urine with an acidic pH?

A

amorphous urate

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38
Q

when looking at the refractometer for urine SG, it is read in g/dL

A

false

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39
Q

what results on urine dipstick are not reliable in vet med?

A

leukocytes, nitrite, and urobilinogen

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40
Q

free catch voided

A

non-invasive, can use anything to catch, “midstream”

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41
Q

catheriterization urine collection

A

sterile, culture, potential for trauma and infections

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42
Q

cystocentesis

A

+/- ultrasound, removal of urine from bladder via syringe

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43
Q

bladder compression “free catch”

A

don’t have to wait for voided, apply slight pressure to bladder, don’t try on a blocked patient

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44
Q

which cell would we see when the body has regenerative anemia?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies and anisocytosis

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45
Q

heinz bodies are most commonly seen in which animal?

A

cats

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46
Q

which procedure is associated with high numbers of Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

splenectomy

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47
Q

which two diseases are associated with high numbers of Heinz bodies?

A

diabetes mellitus and hyperthyroidism

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48
Q

in which white blood cell are Barr bodies found in normal female animals?

A

neutrophil

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49
Q

what is the plasma layer made up of in the hematocrit tube?

A

water and proteins

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50
Q

what is packed cell volume actually measuring?

A

represents the volume of red blood cells compared to whole blood

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51
Q

what is a normal range for a canine PCV?

A

35-57%

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52
Q

is PCV manual or machine read?

A

manually

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53
Q

is HCT manual or machine read?

A

machine

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54
Q

what makes up the buffy coat?

A

white blood cells and platelets

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55
Q

how should a PCV be read?

A

read with the top of the clay layer at 0 and the top of the plasma layer at 100

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56
Q

true or false:
a polychromatophil is only called a reticulocyte when stained with New Methylene Blue

A

true

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57
Q

what are reticulocytes used to quantify?

A

anemia

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58
Q

what is another name of an nRBC?

A

metarubricyte

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59
Q

where is eyrthropoietin produced?

A

kidney

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60
Q

which is not true regarding RBC maturation?
a. nucleus size increases
b. cell size decreases
c. RNA amount declines
d. hemoglobin increases

A

nucleus size increases

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61
Q

RBCs are present in circulation for approximately _____ to ______ days

A

50, 100

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62
Q

a mature reticulocyte with small RNA granules are described as ______

A

punctate

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63
Q

when counting reticulocytes in a feline, only count ______ forms

A

aggregate

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64
Q

what description best fits a band neutrophil?

A

cell with a horseshoe shaped nucleus

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65
Q

what is the difference between a right and left shift?

A

left shift = band neutrophils present
right shift= hypersegmented neutrophils

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66
Q

what cell holds immature platelets?

A

megakaryocyte

67
Q

can neutrophils be reactive?

A

no

68
Q

can lymphocytes be reactive?

A

yes

69
Q

can basophils be reactive?

A

no

70
Q

can eosinophils be reactive?

A

no

71
Q

can monocytes be reactive?

A

yes

72
Q

what is the correct explanation of how a reactive lymphocyte may appear?

A

basophilic cytoplasm, increase in cell size, cytoplasmic granules seen

73
Q

what makes a lymphocyte reactive?

A

immune stimulation and response to inflammation

74
Q

what is the appearance of a reactive monocyte’s chromatin?

A

granular to lacy

75
Q

monocytes appear with _______ ________ when they are reactive

A

cytoplasmic vacuolization

76
Q

what is an overall decrease in circulating leukocytes?

A

leukopenia

77
Q

what kind of shift is extremely high leukocyte count?

A

leukemoid reaction

78
Q

what is an example of a toxicity change?

A

Dohle body

79
Q

neutrophilia

A

increased neutrophils

80
Q

monocytosis

A

increased monocytes

81
Q

lymphopenia

A

decreased lymphocytes

82
Q

neutropenia

A

decreased neutrophils

83
Q

which shift includes the presence of increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the peripheral blood?

A

left shift

84
Q

what are the signs of excitement seen on a leukogram?

A

increased WBC, increased neutrophils, increased lymphs in cats

85
Q

eosinopenia is a sign of what type of leukogram?

A

stress/excitement

86
Q

what is the biggest sign of tissue necrosis on a leukogram?

A

monocytes

87
Q

what part of a leukogram would be increased for overwhelming inflammation?

A

bands

88
Q

what is the transit time for bone marrow generation of chronic inflammation?

A

4-6 days

89
Q

what is the correct order of a WBC maturation series from start to finish?

A
  1. myeloblast
  2. promyelocyte
  3. myelocyte
  4. metamyelocyte
  5. band
  6. neutrophil
90
Q

what are bands made up of?

A

immature neutrophils

91
Q

how is a band identified?

A

often C-shaped

92
Q

what is the 5th stage of the maturation cycle for a WBC?

A

metamyelocyte

93
Q

how do you classify a hypersegmented neutrophil?

A

6 distinct lobes

94
Q

which cell are toxic changes observed in?

A

neutrophils

95
Q

which of the following is not observed in toxic change?
a. Dohle bodies
b. basophilic stippling
c. Howell-Jolly bodies
d. cytoplasmic vacuolization

A

basophilic stippling

96
Q

how do you write the severity of toxic change?

A

1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

97
Q

what are morphologic changes to the cell caused by interruptions to maturation due to?

A

toxic change

98
Q

true or false:
we can observe toxic change in RBCs

A

false

99
Q

reactive lymphocytes can be a result of?

A

infection

100
Q

how would you describe a leukemoid reaction?

A

extremely high leukocyte count

101
Q

which reactive change is the most reliable indicator of stress?

A

lymphopenia

102
Q

what is another name for target cells?

A

codocytes

103
Q

how are acanthocytes shaped?

A

irregular, blunt, uneven projections

104
Q

what is a condition associated with keratocytes?

A

liver disease

105
Q

when would you see spherocytes in a blood smear?

A

pets with IMHA

106
Q

RBC morphology associated with snake bites

A

echinocytes

107
Q

polycythemia

A

increase in RBCs

108
Q

what is a sign of regenerative anemia?

A

HJ bodies and metarubricytes

109
Q

what are the normal levels of RBCs in dogs?

A

5.5 - 8.5 x 10^6 /uL

110
Q

in a corrected retic count what shows regenerative anemia in a feline?

A

> 0.4%

111
Q

what are the clinical signs of polycythemia vera?

A

lethargy

112
Q

what is the normal total protein reading for cats?

A

6.0-8.0 g/dL

113
Q

what is the normal total protein reading for dogs?

A

6.0-8.0 g/dL

114
Q

what can cause a high TP reading?

A

dehydration

115
Q

what can cause a decrease in TP?

A

liver or kidney disease

116
Q

what tool do you use to measure TP?

A

refractometer

117
Q

what is the most common cause of polycythemia?

A

dehydration

118
Q

what values are also elevated along with red blood cell count when a patient has dehydration polycythemia?

A

total protein and hematocrit

119
Q

when a patient is suspected of having anemia which mechanisms are affected?

A

MCV, MCHC, and Hg

120
Q

what hemostasis defect can cause anemia in a patient?

A

rodenticide

121
Q

what causes primary polycethemia?

A

polycythemia vera

122
Q

what causes secondary polycethemia?

A

heart disease and pneumonia

123
Q

what causes an inappropriate response polycythemia?

A

renal disease

124
Q

a dehydrated cat comes in and you run a TP, what might you expect to see as a result?

A

10 g/dL

125
Q

what unit is TP measured?

A

g/dL

126
Q

what sample can be used to determine TP?

A

serum and plasma

127
Q

which of the following possesses a nucleus that could be described as pyknotic and what does that mean?

A

Barr bodies, inactive remains of one of the two chromosomes

128
Q

what percent of heinz bodies are seen in healthy cats but may indicate anemia in dogs?

A

5%

129
Q

what sex experiences a low number of Barr bodies in healthy animals?

A

female

130
Q

what inclusion is increased via the surgical removal of an organ and what is that organ?

A

Howell Jolly bodies, spleen

131
Q

what inclusion when increased in a feline patient is referred to as “old cat disease”?

A

heinz bodies

132
Q

red blood cells that appear clumped together and don’t separate after performing a saline test can be associated with which condition?

A

IMHA

133
Q

a blood smear is made with blood that has been stored in the fridge for a few days. When looking under the microscope, symmetrical spiky projections are seen. Which RBC morphology is this most likely to be?

A

echinocytes

134
Q

what is another name for a metarubricyte?

A

nRBC

135
Q

what are the nuclear remnants in RBCs called?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

136
Q

target cell

A

codocyte

137
Q

fragmented cell

A

schistocyte

138
Q

slitted or mouth shaped cell

A

stomatocyte

139
Q

teardrop cell

A

dacrocyte

140
Q

which one of the following lab abnormalities is frequently seen with acetaminophen toxicity in cats?

A

methmemoglobinuria

140
Q

what kind of problem may result in cellular cast containing WBCs in the urine sediment of a dog?

A

pyelonephritis (kidney infection)

140
Q

a red colored urine sample could be due to hematuria, hemoglobinuria, or myoglobinuria. Which one of the following is the easiest way to determine the difference between hematuria and myoglobinuria?

A

spin down urine sample

140
Q

which animal normally has cloudy urine and why?

A

horses, calcium carbonate crystals

141
Q

what lab result would you expect in a cat with diabetes mellitus?

A

increased urine glucose, increased blood glucose

142
Q

when drawing blood from a cat who is stressed how can it alter blood results?

A

lymphopenia
it is the most probable indicator of stress

143
Q

true or false:
regenerative left shift is when the neutrophils are lower than the immature cells

A

false

144
Q

inflammation can be indicated by neutrophilic left shift, persistent eosinophilia, and monocytosis, but what else can indicate inflammation?

A

physiologic leukocytes and stress leukogram

145
Q

what does a Pelger-huet anomaly indicate?

A

Pelger-huet anomaly is the impression of degenerative left shift without the toxicity

146
Q

true or false:
a glucocorticoid would indicate increased eosinophils

A

false

147
Q

which of the following describes the general leukocyte response to acute inflammation?

A

leukocytosis, neutrophilia, a left shift, lymphopenia, and varying monocyte/eosinophil amounts

148
Q

what are the best indicators of inflammation?

A

neutrophilic left shift, persistent eosinophilia, monocytosis

149
Q

in which animal do Dohle bodies indicate serious toxemia?

A

dogs

150
Q

what is epinephrine associated with?

A

acute stress and adrenaline

151
Q

what is the most reliable indicator of stress?

A

lymphopenia

152
Q

what are some common diseases associated with severe toxemia?

A

feline pyothorax, pyometra, canine prostatitis

153
Q

what are some non-infectious conditions associated with severe toxemia?

A

tissue necrosis, heavy metal toxicosis, cytotoxic drug therapy

154
Q

left shift is characterized by an increase in the number of _______ neutrophils in the peripheral blood

A

immature

155
Q

true or false:
a degenerative left shift is a more favorable prognosis than a regenerative left shift

A

false

156
Q

true or false:
low numbers of Dohle bodies may be found in healthy cats

A

true

157
Q

which type of WBC is most associated with tissue necrosis?

A

monocytes

158
Q

which WBC can help differentiate between acute and chronic inflammation?

A

monocytes

159
Q

your patient presents with inflammation but the overall WBC count is decreased. what type of inflammation is your patient experiencing?

A

overwhelming

160
Q

lymphocytopenia is associated with ______ stress

A

chronic

161
Q

______ left shift is associated with more mature than immature cells

A

non-regenerative

Clinical Pathology II (15 decks)

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