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Technical Flashcards

To improve your Technical and Systems Knowledge

1
Q

(RF) Indication is displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity:

A

When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B // and the aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

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2
Q

A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

A

The temperature mix valves to drive full cold

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3
Q

A fast realignment should be complete in:

A

30 seconds

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4
Q

A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:

A

take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation.

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5
Q

A Fuel CONFIG alert is when?

A
  • Centre tank > 726kg and Centre pumps OFF or LO PRESS
  • Goes away when Centre tank quantity less than 363kg
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6
Q

A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by:

A

left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light

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7
Q

A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease, to approximately:

A

0.72

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8
Q

A leak in the No 2 engine driven hydraulic pump or associated lines can result in a total loss of hydraulic system B pressure:

A

Yes, but it drains to top of standpipe (both pumps feed from standpipe. Volume still remains but only PTU operation is still available’

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9
Q

A Mach trim system provides speed stability at airspeeds above:

A

Mach .615

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10
Q

A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator on the PFD indicates:

A

Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected

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11
Q

A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow

and „-07v”. This means:

♦

A

The traffic is descending at minimum of 500fpm

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12
Q

A TCAS Resolution Advisory is generated when:

A

The conflicting aircraft is 25 seconds from point of closest approach

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13
Q

A valid FMC PERF INIT page Scratch Pad entry for actual FUEL is:

A

Actual fuel is displayed automatically and cannot be entered manually

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14
Q

A WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicates:

A

A leak in the bleed air system

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15
Q

Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:

A

8.35 psid

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16
Q

Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage. How do you activate the flow of oxygen?

A

Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.

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17
Q

After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?

A

15*, then

  • if 2 - V2
  • otherwise V2+20

After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain an airspeed of V2 + 20 knots until another pitch mode is engaged. V2 + 20 knots is the optimum climb speed with takeoff flaps. It results in the maximum altitude gain in the shortest distance from takeoff. Acceleration to higher speeds reduces the altitude gain

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18
Q

After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET IRS POS lines is missing. What is required?

A

Nothing, this is a normal indication once both IRSs have entered the NAV mode

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19
Q

After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HOLD until:

A

800 feet RA.

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20
Q

After normal engine start, what should be done if the DUAL BLEED light is illuminated:

A

Place the APU bleed switch to OFF

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21
Q

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?

A

Blank, requiring reloading

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22
Q

After the loss of all generators, full charged batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:

A

60 minutes

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23
Q

Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg of fuel in No 1 main tank and 3060 kg of fuel in the No 2 main tank. You will see:

A

An amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also turn amber.

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24
Q

All window heat is selected ON. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The likely reason is:

A

System is at correct temperature

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25
Q

When do you get an Amber Fuel IMBAL alert ?

A
  • Fuel Quantity btw Main 1 and 2 > 453kg
  • Goes away when IMBAL <91kg
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26
Q

When do you get an Amber Fuel LOW alert ?

A
  • Fuel Quantity in Main tank < 453kg
  • Goes away when > 567kg
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27
Q

An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:

A

The Captains and First Officers altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.

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28
Q

An amber AoA DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:

A

The Captains and First Officers AoA differ more than 10* for more than 10 seconds.

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29
Q

An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:

A

A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.

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30
Q

An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:

A

A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units.

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31
Q

An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:

A

The captains and first officer’s airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds.

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32
Q

An Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates:

A

Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.

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33
Q

An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:

A

The Captains and First Officers roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees.

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34
Q

An auto relight protection is provided by EEC activating both igniters when a flameout is detected and there is a rapid uncommanded decrease in:

A

N2, or N2 below idle.

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35
Q

An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ___ times the fluid volume of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

A

6 times

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36
Q

An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:

A

Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed

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37
Q

AN OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the ND. To view the TA or RA an appropiate action would be:

A

Increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel.

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38
Q

An overheat condition in the cooling cycle:

A

Causes the pack valve to close and the PACK light to illuminate

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39
Q

Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:

A

LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.

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40
Q

APU cooling air:

A

Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet

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41
Q

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what is the correct FMA annunciation?

(Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)

A

GA : : TO/GA

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42
Q

At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:

A

“PLUS HUNDRED”

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43
Q

At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual channel approach:

A

350 feet RA

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44
Q

At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?

A

14,000 feet

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45
Q

Autopilot trim and main stabiliser trim use:

A

Single electric trim motor

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46
Q

Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:

A

Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.

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47
Q

Can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?

A

BLEED TRIP OFF

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48
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:

A
  • DC bus 1 (Left side, loop A) and
  • DC bus 2 (Right side, loop B)
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49
Q

Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:

A

Centre tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps

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50
Q

Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:

A

Within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT

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51
Q

Cruising at FL370. The motorised Overboard Exhaust valve will open in flight if:

A

Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.

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52
Q

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle on the ground within:

A

7.4 M of the nose

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53
Q

Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:

A

Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.

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54
Q

Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats are anti-iced:

A

By switching ON the PROBE HEAT switches

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55
Q

Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?

A

The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.

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56
Q

During a dual channel A/P ILS approach, at which altitude (AGL) should the FLARE mode engage?

A

50 feet

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57
Q

During a normal engine start:

A

Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD

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58
Q

During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided:

A

Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.

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59
Q

During an autopilot ILS approach:

A

At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other

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60
Q

During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:

A

The aircraft has descended below the Captain’s selected minimum altitude (DA)

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61
Q

During an impending hot start the flashing white box surrounding EGT digital read out, resets:

A

When the start lever is moved to CUT OFF or Engine reaches idle N2.

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62
Q

During AUTO LAND at which radio altitude should the FLARE mode be engaged?

A

50 feet.

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63
Q

During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?

A

15% N2

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64
Q

During cruise you note both centre tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. There is still 460 kg (// 320 kg) in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:

A

There will be no indication on CDS

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65
Q

During cruise the FMC Alerting Message ‘VERIFY POSITION’ indicates:

A

Position information is contradictory

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66
Q

During descent from altitude you need to decrease your airspeed by using your speed brakes. What is the limit of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER position?

A

FLIGHT DETENT

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67
Q

During descent, the pressurization descent mode is activated when:

A

Activated when the airplane descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT

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68
Q

During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting:

A

High pressure bleed air from the 5th stage is adequate and the high stage valve remains closed // the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure from the 9th stage.

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69
Q

During engine start the maximum time allowance for EGT indication after start lever is moved to idle is:

A

15 seconds

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70
Q

During engine start, the EGT exceeds the starting limit, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?

A

On the ground only

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71
Q

During flight with hydraulic system B inoperative (no fluid in system B):

A

The standby hydraulic system operates the leading edge slats and leading edge flaps to fully extended position only

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72
Q

During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:

A

Both loop A and B is sensing a FIRE or OVHT

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73
Q

During normal operations, hydraulic quantity indications vary when:

A

Raising or lowering the landing gear or leading edge devices

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74
Q

During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is selected ON for airconditioning. What is the correct consequence?

A

With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.

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75
Q

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

A

Switch to OFF, wait for Align light to extinguish then initiate a full aligment (turn to NAV).

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76
Q

During primary charge cycle operation, battery voltage can be as high as:

A

30 Volts

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77
Q

During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?

A

Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains illuminated

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78
Q

During the ILS approach on the radio altimeter remaining perimeter and pointer turns amber and flashes for 3 seconds. This means:

A

The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude

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79
Q

During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are normally positioned to:

A

NAV

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80
Q

During V NAV PATH DESCENT and below the speed restriction altitude, the FMC alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:

A

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC speed restriction by more than 15 knots

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81
Q

During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:

A

The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate // Position information is contradictory

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82
Q

Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

A

The No 1 transfer bus if available if AC power is not available, battery power is used.

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83
Q

Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:

A

Airspeed and stabiliser position

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84
Q

Emergency exit light can be activated from:

A

Flight deck and aft cabin attendant station

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85
Q

Engine bleed air is obtained from:

A

5th and 9th stage of the compressor section

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86
Q

Engine Fuel Flow is measured:

A

After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve

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87
Q

Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at take-off thrust. Which of the following is true?

A

Do not take-off

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88
Q

Engine starter cut-out speed is:

A

Approximately 56% N2

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89
Q

Equipment cooling system comprises

A

4 fans

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90
Q

Equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working

A

TXPDR with MODE C and ALT ON

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91
Q

Extending the airstairs using the exterior system:

A

Bypasses the door open requirement

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92
Q

Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY system:

A

Bypasses the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits

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93
Q

Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:

A

Only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires

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94
Q

Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?

A

At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation

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95
Q

For ground service, a ground service switch is placed:

A

On forward attendants panel

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96
Q

For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?

A

453 Kgs.

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97
Q

For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/Os on the ground is?

A

50 feet

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98
Q

From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?

A

From the ADIRUs.

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99
Q

Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:

A

Left side of the fuel manifold. (‘No 1 main tank’)

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100
Q

Galley busses are powered from:

A

The AC transfer busses

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101
Q

How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?

A

They are DC activated and pneumatically operated

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102
Q

How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?

A

Slow the aircraft speed to below Vmo/Mmo

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103
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there totally for engine and APU fires?

A

3

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104
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

A

16 (6 in each wing and 4 in the centre tank)

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105
Q

How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the Autopilot Director System (AFDS)?

A

2

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106
Q

Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:

A

After failure of the No 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up

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107
Q

If ‘ON DC’ on left IRS Mode Selector Unit comes ON steady it means:

A

The related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus

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108
Q

If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:

A

The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue

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109
Q

If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X-BLEED START indication will be displayed:

A

Above the N2 dial

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110
Q

If a landing is made with RTO selected:

A

AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown

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111
Q

If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine:

A

15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts

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112
Q

If all TEMPERATURE ZONE SELECTORS are positioned to OFF:

A

Left Pack maintains a fix temperature of 24C (75F) and Right PACK will maintain 18C (65F)

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113
Q

If an engine fails in flight:

A

The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.

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114
Q

If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:

A

On the inboard display unit

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115
Q

If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset. (not A/C YE003):

A

A single GPS sensor unit has failed

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116
Q

If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be:

A

Box prompts

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117
Q

If one cargo fire detector loop loses power

A

The system automatically converts to a single loop detection system

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118
Q

If one of the two fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?

A

It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test

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119
Q

If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:

A

Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.

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120
Q

If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:

A

The FAULT light illuminates

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121
Q

If the APU is the only source of electrical power:

A

In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed

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122
Q

If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?

A

The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 feet of selected altitude.

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123
Q

If the FAULT Light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:

A

A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected

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124
Q

If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:

A

System A HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched off.

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125
Q

If the required signals are not available, the EEC will automatically change to:

A

Soft alternate mode.

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126
Q

If the spoilers become jammed:

A

The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons

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127
Q

If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:

A

After 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate

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128
Q

If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake ARMED the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:

A

When the air/ground systems senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)

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129
Q

Illumination of amber AUTO SLAT FAIL light that can be reset, during recall indicates:

A

Failure of a single stall management yaw damper (SMYD) computer.

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130
Q

Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:

A

Both detector loops for an engine have failed.

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131
Q

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:

A

An over pressure condition.

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132
Q

Illumination of ELEC amber light in flight indicates:

A

None of the above, this light is inhibited in flight.

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133
Q

Illumination of the ‘APU DET INOP’ Light will cause following lights to illuminate:

A

Both ‘MASTER CAUTION’ and ‘OVHT/DET’

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134
Q

Illumination of the ‘GEN OFF BUS’ light indicates:

A

The IDG is not supplying power to it’s associated transfer bus

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135
Q

Illumination of the ‘GND POWER AVAILABLE’ light indicates:

A

Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards

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136
Q

Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?

A

Engine Bleed Air valve

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137
Q

Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:

A

Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.

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138
Q

Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:

A

Possible back pressure of the APU due positions of APU and engine bleed air valve and isolation valve.

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139
Q

Illumination of the PSEU fault light on the aft overhead panel will indicate:

A

An overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage on the ground

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140
Q

Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF lights indicates

A

AC standby bus unpowered

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141
Q

Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:

A

Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.

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142
Q

In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic System through the…

A

Standby Rudder PCU

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143
Q

In case of an engine overheat:

A

Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.

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144
Q

In case of cargo compartment fire

A

Select the FWD ARMED of AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button

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145
Q

In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?

A

All stations will use VHF 1. // Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1.

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146
Q

In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:

A

All galley busses are automatically shed

//

First Galley bus 2 and main bus 2 are shed, then galley and main bus 1. If still overload; IFE busses are shed.

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147
Q

In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:

A

Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft

Automatically below 1200 feet RA

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148
Q

In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:

A

None of RECIRC fans will operate.

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149
Q

In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn lights, silence the fire waring bell, and …

A

Resets the system for additional warnings

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150
Q

In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?

A

A motor supplied from DC standby bus

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151
Q

In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows:

A

The control columns to be physically separated.

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152
Q

In the PACK TRIP OFF or PACK FAIL non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:

A

Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack

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153
Q

In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?

A

The fuel will be suction feed only, and at high altitudes fuel vapour might release and obstruct the suction feed line

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154
Q

In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?

A

In MAP, centre MAP, VOR or APP modes

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155
Q

In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?

A

Both main tanks

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156
Q

In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No 1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No 1 engine?

A

It receives fuel from the No 1 tank through the fuel tank bypass valve

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157
Q

Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:

A

Prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed

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158
Q

LNAV will automatically disengage:

A

Reaching a route discontinuity.

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159
Q

Logo lights are installed on:

A

Top of both horizontal stabilizers

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160
Q

Manual IRS entries of present position or magnetic heading are normally accomplished on the:

A

POS INIT page or the ISDU

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161
Q

What are the Fuel Temperature Limits?

A
  • MIN: 3 degrees above the fuel freezing point (Jet A1 -47*C) or -43*C, whichever is higher (approx -44*C)
  • MAX: +49* C
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162
Q

Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU:

A

On the ground or in the air

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163
Q

Normally, N1 limits and targets N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:

A

Flight Management Computer (FMC)

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164
Q

Number 1 DRIVE light illuminates amber. This is directly caused by:

A

Low oil pressure in the IDG

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165
Q

Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?

A

MAINT

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166
Q

On new aircraft (EI- DPY, DPZ) there are new annunciators installed. Which?

A

OVERWING?

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167
Q

On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?

A

Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition

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168
Q

On the Audio Control Panel (ACP) the Cabin Call lights comes ON. It will illuminate until:

A

Remains illuminated for 40 seconds

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169
Q

On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates:

A

The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position.

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170
Q

On the ground, for primary ATC communication:

A

Always use no. 1 VHF radio

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171
Q

On the ground, with both pack switches set to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to AUTO:

A

The left recirculation fan will shut down

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172
Q

On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the Switched Hot Battery Bus is:

A

Not powered

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173
Q

On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?

A

POS REF page 2

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174
Q

Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply:

A

Flows for approximately 12 minutes

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175
Q

Once activated, the APU DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:

A

An AC fuel pump pressurises the manifold

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176
Q

Once the thrust reverse auto-stow circuit is activated:

A

The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position

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177
Q

One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:

A

There is no paralleling of the AC power sources (one source at a time)

or; when connecting a new source, the excisting one is automatically disconnected.

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178
Q

One of the purposes of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

A

Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route with a radial or distance from a known fix.

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179
Q

Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:

A

Does not require the BAT switch to be ON

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180
Q

Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:

A

Discharges the total contents of the Cargo Compartment Fire Bottle into the FWD or AFT cargo hold

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181
Q

Operating the EXT TEST Switch:

A

To position 1 or 2 test bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles

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182
Q

Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:

A

Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door status, DC power

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183
Q

Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:

A

Tests

  • overheat and fire detection loops on both engines ,
  • fire detection on theAPU,
  • and wheel well fire detector (latter only if AC power connected)
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184
Q

Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:

A

The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.

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185
Q

Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:

A

Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON unless WAI has been used. Does not update the Vref speeds in the FMC.

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186
Q

Positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF:

A

Closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves

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187
Q

Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:

A

Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on air speed tape and remains set for the remainder of the flight.

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188
Q

Predictive windshear alerts are issued when:

A

Below 1200ft RA

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189
Q

Prior to returning to the oil tank, engine oil passes through:

A

The scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler

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190
Q

PROBE HEAT switches are ON. What does this indicate?

A

They are Heated. No lights should be visible

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191
Q

Pulling an engine FIRE WARNING switch up:

A
  1. Arms 1 squib on each bottle
  2. Closes fuel valves
  3. Closes HYD valvle
  4. Deactivates LOW PRESSURE light
  5. Closes bleed air valve
  6. Trips Generator Relay and GCB
  7. Disables Thrust Reverser
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192
Q

Pulling the No 2 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:

A

Engine driven pump in system B

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193
Q

Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:

A
  1. Trips the generator control relay and breaker,
  2. Arms the associated extinguisher
  3. Closes the bleed air valve,
  4. Closes the fuel shutoff valve,
  5. Closes the APU inlet door.
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194
Q

Pushing cargo fire TEST switch:

A

Test the fwd and aft cargo fire loops only and continuity of the extinguisher bottle squib circuit

195
Q

Pushing the ATTEND call switch in the flight deck:

A

Sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights

196
Q

Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:

A

Removes Auto Squelch; improves reception of weak signals

197
Q

Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude FL290, the cabin altitude should read:

A

Approximately 6000 feet

198
Q

Refer to the thermal anti-ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI is shown above each N1 indicator:

A

If green, the cowl anti- ice valve is open and the related engine anti- ice switch is ON

199
Q

Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?

A

Idle thrust position

200
Q

Select the correct statement:

A

The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest

201
Q

Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are: MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights, ENG OVERHEAT light, Master FIRE WARN lights and the red fire switch light. There is one more indication?

A

The fire warning bell rings

202
Q

Spoilers will deploy automatically:

A

Flight Spoilers:

Aircraft’s radio altitude is lesser than 10ft,

Thrust levers are in the IDLE position,

Landing gear strut is compressed,

Main landing gear wheels spin faster than 60 knots.

Ground Spoilers: The right main landing gear strut is compressed.

203
Q

Stabiliser trim override switch:

A

Bypasses the main electric and auto pilot cut out switches on the centre pedestal

Bypasses the control column activated stab trim cut out switches to restore power to stab trim switches.

204
Q

Switching the CAB/UTIL switch OFF removes all 115v AC from the galley busses and:

A

Left and right recirculation fans

205
Q

TCAS TA Only mode is enabled automatically:

A

Below 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected

206
Q

The 737-600/700/800 is powered by two:

A

CFM 56-7 engines

207
Q

The AC Standby Bus is powered by:

A

The AC Transfer Bus No 1 under normal conditions

208
Q

The accessories gearbox receives drive from:

A

The N2 rotor

209
Q

The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:

A

Position, attitude, altitude and speed

210
Q

The air/ground system receives logic signals from:

A

Six sensors, two on each landing gear

211
Q

The aircraft is not certified for operations:

A

Above 82N or below 82S

212
Q

The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:

A

The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and with engine is operating.

213
Q

The airspeed range for speed trim operation is:

A

100 KIAS - Mach 0.6 (Fadeout until 0.68 to 0)

214
Q

The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, auto pilot, auto slats and are anti-iced:

A

By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches

215
Q

The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch selected to ARM:

A

Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the Trailing Edge Flaps bypass valve.

216
Q

The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?

A

Nothing, this is normal condition before engine start

217
Q

The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:

A

Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected between hydraulic system A and B or if one of the elevator pitot systems fails.

218
Q

The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light:

A

Is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight

219
Q

The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for System B Electric Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What are the other indications?

A

MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights illuminate

220
Q

The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What should you do?

A

Position the pump switch to OFF

221
Q

The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT Light illuminates. What does this indicate?

A

The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the flight altitude window.

222
Q

The amber Standby Hydraulic System LOW PRESSURE Light is armed:

A

Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated

223
Q

The APU can supply both transfer busses:

A

On the ground or in the air

224
Q

The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:

A

On the ground only

225
Q

The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:

A

17,000 feet

226
Q

The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:

A

10,000 feet

227
Q

The APU starter cycle may take up to:

A

120 seconds

228
Q

The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:

A

41,000 feet

229
Q

The APU switch to OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:

A

60 seconds

230
Q

The aural alert for excessive bank angle is:

A

BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE

231
Q

The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.

A

This indicates a dual controller failure.

232
Q

The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch:

A

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

233
Q

The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of:

A

The Autopilot, Flight Directors (AFDS) and the Autothrottles (A/T)

234
Q

The Autoslat system:

A

Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approached a stall’ and ‘Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B

235
Q

The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers:

A

May indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation

236
Q

The BLEED TRIP OFF light:

A

Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature

237
Q

The blue ‘APU GEN OFF BUS’ light will illuminate:

A

When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus

238
Q

The blue APU MAINT light means that:

A

APU may be operated

239
Q

The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:

A

Parking brake system

240
Q

The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings:

A

Both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated

241
Q

The cabin begins to pressurize:

A

On the ground at high power settings

242
Q

The Cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation

A

Both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert

243
Q

The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:

A

The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full

244
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:

A

Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON

245
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for a maximum of:

A

120 minutes

246
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorders in AUTO:

A

Always power the cockpit voice recorder from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown

247
Q

The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft:

A

While taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open.

248
Q

The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:

A

To indicate excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip

249
Q

The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:

A

The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.

250
Q

The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:

A

Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.

251
Q

The cross bus tierelay:

A

Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF

252
Q

The Crossfeed valve must be:

A

Closed for Takeoff and Landing

253
Q

The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments, it represents, with range greater than 20 NM?

A

Predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals

254
Q

The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:

A

Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel

255
Q

The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window.

A

Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete

256
Q

The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:

A

Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine

257
Q

The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:

A

N1 and N2 in both the normal and alternate modes

258
Q

The EGT display, both box and dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine if:

A

The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground start.

259
Q

The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if:

A

A fault exists in the DC or standby system

The ELEC light only operates on the ground

260
Q

The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position:

A

Illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off

261
Q

The End of Descent altitude on the PATH DES page is:

A

The altitude restriction for the end of descent waypoint

262
Q

The ENG FAIL Alert on the EGT display remains until:-

A

Engine fire warning switch pulled

263
Q

The engine bleed air valve acts as:

A

A pressure regulator and shutoff valve

264
Q

The engine fuel shutoff valve:

A

And the spar fuel shutoff valve close when the respective Engine Start Lever is placed to CUTOFF

265
Q

The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

A

The Captain’s and First Officer’s pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more

266
Q

The flap load relief system is operational at:

A

Flaps 30 and 40

267
Q

The flap/slat electronics unit (PSEU) provides:

A

Protection for LE devices and TE flaps if two or more LE flaps or LE slats moves from commanded position

268
Q

The Flight crew oxygen pressure may be as high as

A

1850psi

269
Q

The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude

270
Q

The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks / regulators with pressure breathing starting at:

A

27,000 feet

271
Q

The flight spoilers will start to extend on the down going wing with a control wheel deflection at approximately:

A

10 degrees

272
Q

The FMC Advisor Message DRAG REQUIRED indicates the aircraft is:

A

10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/Vmmo

273
Q

The FMC advisory message “BUFFET ALERT” indicates:

A

Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than required.

274
Q

The FMC alerting message ‘RESET MCP ALT’ means:

A

Aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP

275
Q

The FMC Alerting Message INSUFFICIENT FUEL means:

A

You will have less than 907kg (2000lbs) of fuel at the destination

276
Q

The forward cabin temperature control fails:

A

FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally and cabin temperature maintained at average of FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings.

277
Q

The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is:

A

Total fuel on board, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system.

278
Q

The FWD CAB ZONETEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat.

A

The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch

279
Q

The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:

A

The AC ground power cart has been disconnected

280
Q

The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:

A

Can be performed only on the ground

281
Q

The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and:

A

Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi

282
Q

The isolation valve switch is in AUTO, both engine bleeds are ON and both pack switches in AUTO. The isolation valve:

A

Is fully closed

283
Q

The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:

A

With the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)

284
Q

The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red when:

A

All landing gear are DN, and the gear handle in OFF position

285
Q

The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft’s condition?

A

On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting flap 30 with any gear not down and locked

286
Q

The left IRS is electrically powered from:

A

Normally AC Standby bus and in emergency from Switched Hot Battery Bus

287
Q

The LOCKOUT PIN is installed in the steering depressurisation valve. What does this do?

A

Allows aircraft pushback or towing without depressurising the hydraulic systems

288
Q

The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:

A

Within 2000 feet barometric altitude

289
Q

The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC’s alternate mode. What is correct?

A

The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters

290
Q

The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:

A

Yes

291
Q

The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning:

A

A clacker

292
Q

The maximum differential pressure is:

A

9.10 psi

293
Q

The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:

A

Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots

294
Q

The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are:

A

4

295
Q

The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:

A

2

296
Q

The number of LE slats located on each wing are:

A

4

297
Q

The operation of the over-wing emergency exits depends on:

A

Engine speed, thrust position, air/ground sensors, door status, DC power

298
Q

The outflow valve position idicator indicates the position of the outflow valve

A

In all modes

299
Q

The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?

A

Passenger oxygen system is activated

300
Q

The power source for Fire Extinguisher is:

A

The Hot Battery Bus

301
Q

The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:

A

Autoslats

302
Q

The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat System if:

A

A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed

303
Q

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors:

A

Takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors

304
Q

The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:

A

Automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No 1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up.

305
Q

The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and PROBE HEAT switches are ON. What does this indicate?

A

The right elevator pitot is not heated

306
Q

The RA aural alert “CLIMB-CLIMB NOW” means:

A

Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA

307
Q

The ram air system deflector doors:

A

Extend on the ground only

308
Q

The Recirculation Fan:

A

Reduces air conditioning pack load

309
Q

The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?

A

Related leg neither DOWN nor LOCKED; OR Lever disagrees with the actual position

310
Q

The right IRS is electrically powered from:

A

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

311
Q

The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:

A

Is controlled by the left pack standby control

312
Q

The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated - what area is affected?

A

Right engine strut

313
Q

The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:

A

When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually.

314
Q

The SMYD computers receive inputs from:

A

Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs

315
Q

The standby hydraulic system powers the:

A

Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.

316
Q

The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for:

A

40 navaids and 6 airports

317
Q

The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:

A

Stabilizer trim is not in the green band

(among others)

318
Q

The TCAS symbol for proximity traffic is:

A

A white solid diamond

319
Q

The terrain displayed in the Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from

A

EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position

320
Q

The thrust reverser may be deployed:

A

When the air/ground sensor is in the ground mode

321
Q

The thrust reverser on engine No1 is operated with hydraulic power from:

A

System A

322
Q

The TR UNIT amber light illuminates if:

A

GND - Any TR has failed.

AIR - TR1 OR (TR2 and TR3) failed.

323
Q

The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:

A

All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated

324
Q

The TRs (Transformer rectifier) converts:

A

115 volts AC to 28 volts DC

325
Q

The window heat PWR TEST:

A

Provides a confidence test

326
Q

The wing anti-ice system provides protection for:

A

The three inboard leading edge slats

327
Q

The wing ANTI-ICE:

A

Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.

328
Q

The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?

A

AIR COND

329
Q

The wing-span of the 737-800 is:

A

35.79m

330
Q

There are CDS fuel alerts indications for:

A

Fuel quantity low in main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.

331
Q

There is a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These lights:

A

Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights

332
Q

To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on page?

A

CLB

333
Q

To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio:

A

Set the Filter Switch to BOTH

334
Q

To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:

A

POS REF page 2/3

335
Q

To silence the fire bell you can press one of two buttons. One is the fire warning bell cutout on the glareshield; where is the second one located?

A

On the fire protection panel

336
Q

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With one radio altimeter inoperative:

A

The autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and GS capture

337
Q

Underspeed limiting (flashing “A”) appears:

A

The highest of:

  • 1.3*Vs
  • FMC speed
  • Selected speed
338
Q

VNAV is terminated by:

A

Selecting a different pitch mode

339
Q

Warm air from the E & E bay is:

A

Diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures

340
Q

What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?

A

Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.

341
Q

What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?

A

The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes

342
Q

What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP Light to illuminate?

A

A fault in the parking brake system

343
Q

What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Light indicate?

A

Low fuel pump output pressure

344
Q

What does LRC on the FMC CRZ page mean?

A

Long Range Cruise

345
Q

What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET switch?

A

ZONE TEMP (-700 DUCT OVERHEAT), PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF

346
Q

What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?

A

Max braking occurs when thrust levers are retarded to idle.

347
Q

What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?

A

Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle

348
Q

What happens to the digital readout of the radio alt when descending below minimums?

A

The dial and pointer of the radio altimeter flash amber for 3 seconds

349
Q

What happens when the WING- BODY OVHT TEST Switch is pressed?

A

The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights illuminate

350
Q

What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation:

A

IAS/MACH displays opens up and show FMC target speed

351
Q

What happens with the NO SMOKING Switch in AUTO // When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?

A

The NO SMOKING Signs illuminate when the landing gear is extended’ (-700)

The NO SMOKING Signs are always illuminated, the switch is INOP (-800)

352
Q

What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?

A

Only attitude and heading information

353
Q

What is correct about the colour on the terrain display?

A

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is active

354
Q

What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?

A

Decrease in System B quantity

355
Q

What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

A

Illuminated bright blue

356
Q

What is the maximum airspeed limit according MEL, when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative for window nr 4?

A

250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL

357
Q

What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating?

A

25%

358
Q

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

A

20,000 feet

359
Q

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot execute an ILS dual channel A/P approach?

A

800 feet

360
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main tanks for ground operation of the electric hydraulic pumps?

A

760Kgs in related main tank.

361
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

24.1m (24.3)

362
Q

What is the position of the Engine Bleed Air Switches during the secure scan flow on the parking checklist:

A

ON

363
Q

What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE Switch is in AUTO?

A

Open when any Engine Bleed Air Switch or Air Conditioning Pack Switch is positioned OFF

364
Q

What is the primary source of conditioned air from the cockpit?

A

The left pack

365
Q

What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

A

To decrease the airconditioning system pack load

366
Q

What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?

A

The Battery Bus

367
Q

What is the wingtip height of blended wing aricraft

A

6.4 m

368
Q

What operates the spar shut off valve?

A

DC from Hot Battery Bus

369
Q

What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?

A

‘MCP SPD’

370
Q

What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?

A

System A

371
Q

What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

A

Engine starting, air conditioning/Pressurisation, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurisation and TAT probe.

372
Q

What will occur if the aircraft pitch altitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) on the PFD during slow speed manoeuvring?

A

The stick shaker warning activates

373
Q

When a lavatory fire is detected:

A

The fire extinguisher operates automatically

374
Q

When an active database expires in flight:

A

The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing.

375
Q

When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:

A

Illuminate when flap or gear are extended

376
Q

When below radio altitude minimums the RAD ALT display on the PFD

A

Turns amber

377
Q

When can you expect the EGPWS ‘five hundred’ call?

A

When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ

378
Q

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:

A

6 degrees or less

379
Q

When do the ram air inlet doors move to the full open position?

A

On the ground or during slow flight with flap not fully retracted

380
Q

When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate

A

When the APU bleed valve is open and the No 1 engine bleed switch is on

381
Q

When does the RAD ALT display a digital readout?

A

Between 2500ft AGL and 1000ft AGL

382
Q

When is a resolution advisory generated?

A

When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closes approach

383
Q

When is the ENGINE ANTI-ICE turned on if icing condition exists on the ground?

A

As part of the after start checks.

384
Q

When operating on standby power only:

A

The Captain’s PFD and ND will operate

385
Q

When operating on standby power:

A

Only the captains pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure

386
Q

When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?

A

Indicates a failure of the Flight Deck Primary or Standby temperature control.

387
Q

When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:

A

The Captains inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged

388
Q

When the ALT –Norm switch on the audio control panel (ACP) is set to ALT:

A

The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio

389
Q

When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode:

A

Captain can only transmit and receive on VHF 1

//First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2

390
Q

When the EEC is not powered, following engine indications are displayed directly from the engine sensors:

A

Oil quantity and engine vibration

391
Q

When the landing gear Manual Extension Access door is open:

A

Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.

392
Q

When the REV indication turns to green:

A

The thrust reverser is deployed

393
Q

When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly:-

A

There will be a GPWS ‘minimums’ callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector

394
Q

When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF:

A

The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated

395
Q

When using halon fire extinguishing in the flight deck:

A

Both crew must don oxygen masks and set EMER

396
Q

When will the low fuel warning be activated?

A

When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs in related main tank

397
Q

Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

A

Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.

398
Q

Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck?

A

On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel

399
Q

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

A

THR HLD and ARM.

400
Q

Which bus is always connected to the main battery?

A

Hot Battery Bus

401
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger:

A

AC ground service bus 1

402
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger:

A

AC ground service bus 2

403
Q

Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?

A

The steering wheel and the rudder pedals (on the ground)

404
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?

A

System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2

405
Q

Which is the correct mode on the FMA? Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged, before flaps up.

(Thrust Mode: Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)

A

N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD

406
Q

Which is the correct mode on the FMA?

Condition: During NAPD2, A/P engaged, before flaps up.

(Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)

A

N1: LNAV: MCP SPD

407
Q

Which is the ND Symbol for traffic advisory?

A

Solid amber circle

408
Q

Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach?

A

APP

409
Q

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

A

Airplane on the ground.

Antiskid and auto brake operation.

Autobrake select switch to RTO

Wheel speed less than 60kts

Thrust levers idle

410
Q

Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed once below 2000 feet radio altitude for an automatic go-around from an ILS dual channel A/P approach and FLARE armed?

A

The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1

411
Q

Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning system?

A

Spoilers partially extended

412
Q

Which of these pressures can be indicated by the hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

A

Maximum pressure 3500 psi.

413
Q

Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?

A

Static ports

414
Q

Which statement is true about Rudder Steering Weight Off Wheels operation?

A

Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends

415
Q

Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?

A

If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.

416
Q

Which statement about rudder pedal steering is true?

A

Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends

417
Q

Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT switch ON?

A

L1 only

418
Q

While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert:

A

Press either pilots BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT Light, (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 ft RA)

or correct the flight path back to the glide slope

419
Q

While making a no engine bleed air takeoff and an engine failure occurs, when should the bleed air switches be positioned to ON?

A

Reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached.

420
Q

While performing the APPROACH checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates:

A

A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight

421
Q

Whilst on the ground with wing anti ice selected ON, advancing the thrust levers for take off will cause:

A

Both wing anti ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches remain set at ON

422
Q

Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit?

A

To prevent inadvertent flap lever movement beyond F1 and F15 during G/A

423
Q

With ENGINE START switch in OFF, automatic ignition will occur:

A

If N2 is between 57 % and 50 %

424
Q

With fuel in the center and main tanks, both engines operating and all fuel pump switches ON, fuel from which tank(s) is used first?

A

Center tank

425
Q

With loss of hydraulic B system (system A operating normally):

A

Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.

426
Q

With no wheel spin up on landing and speed brake armed, the flight spoiler will deploy automatically:

A

When the AIR/GROUND system senses ground

427
Q

With normal power source on the buses, placing the battery switch to OFF will remove power from:

A

The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

428
Q

With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow:

A

Only when the aircraft is in flight with flaps up

429
Q

With TCAS, proximate traffic:

A

is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically

430
Q

With the ‘STANDBY POWER’ switch in the AUTO position, loss of both engine driven generators and APU generator will result in that AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter and DC standby bus is powered by battery:

A

Either in flight or on the ground

431
Q

With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobraking is initiated when:

A

Wheel speed 90 knots or more and thrust levers at IDLE

432
Q

With the Captains ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:

A

Altitude alert, GPWS and Windshear audio warnings are not heard.

433
Q

With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2 position:

A

The First Officers EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captains and First Captains displays

434
Q

With the Multifunction Display Switch ( MFD ) in SYS in lower DU shows:

A

Hydraulic pressure and quantity only

435
Q

With VNAV engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the:

A

FMC

436
Q

Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:

A

By either trim or rudder pedals inputs

437
Q

ZONE TEMP amber light illumination and CONT CAB on RECALL indicates:

A

Illuminated constantly - indicates a duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control

During RECALL - indicates failure of the flight deck primary or standbytemperature control

438
Q

What is the usable Fuel Tanks Quantity

A
  1. Main Tanks 1 & 2 - 3 915kg each (7 830) in wings
  2. Center Tank (13 066kg)
  3. Total 20 896 kg
439
Q

What systems does the SBY Hydraulic System power?

A
  1. No1+No2 Reversers
  2. SBY Yaw Damper
  3. SBY Rudder
  4. AutoSlats + LE Flaps and LE Slats
440
Q

What systems does Hydraulic System B power?

A
  1. Autopilot B
  2. Normal Brakes
  3. No2Reverser
  4. Flight Spoilers (3,5,8,10)
  5. Altn NWS
  6. Yaw Damper
  7. Rudder
  8. Aileron
  9. Elevator
  10. TE Flaps
  11. AutoSlat + LE Flaps and LE Slats
441
Q

What systems does Hydraulic System A power?

A
  1. Autopilot A
  2. Alternate Brakes
  3. No1 Reverser
  4. Flight Spoilers (2,4,9,11)
  5. NWS
  6. GND Spoilers
  7. Rudder
  8. Aileron
  9. Elevator and ELEV FEEL
  10. L/G
442
Q

What are the 737-800 maximum masses?

A
  • MZFM: 61 688 kg
  • MTOM: 70 535 -78 244 kg
  • MTaxiM: 70 762 -78 442 kg (delta 227kg)
  • MLM: 65 317 kg
443
Q

What are the 737-800 dimensions

A
  • 35.8m wide
  • 39.5m long
  • 12.5m high
444
Q

What do the different Start switch modes do in relation to arming the igniters?

A
  • GND (GND-selected, FLT-Both)
  • CONT (selected)
  • FLT (Both)
445
Q

What are the electrical system limits?

A
  • indication: AC: 115V (+/- 5V) 400Hz (+/- 10) 3 phase
  • indication: DC 26 (+/-4V)
  • Battery: 24V NiCd
446
Q

SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM

what are the implications

A

Speedbrakes INOP, extend manually

447
Q

MACH TRIM FAIL

what are the implications?

A

dual channel failure,

Max speed 280 KCAS / M.82

448
Q

When does the Flap Load relief act? What is it driven by?

A

FSEU, operates when

  • F40 (to F30) when >163 ( back when <158)
  • F30 (to F25) when >176 ( back when <171)
449
Q

BLEED TRIP OFF, what does it mean, what do you do?

A

Over T or P , ENG Bleed Air Valve Closes

  1. Trip RESET
  2. If Still get light - PACK OFF
450
Q

ZONE TEMP

A

Trim air valve closes

  1. Rotate to Cold
  2. TRIP RESET
  3. Check Supply duct t* (if rising steeply)
  4. PACK OFF
451
Q

PACK light

A

t* is high -> pack valve OFF automatically

  1. Select Warmer t*

OR PRI + SEC pack controllers fail

  1. Pack OFF (?)

TRIP reset INOP

452
Q

COWL ANTI ICE light

A

Overpressure - reduce thrust

453
Q

What are the different DEU display lights on the PFD?

A
  • CDS fault (amber) - DEU Failed on GND. No dispatch
  • CDS MAINT (white) - DEU hiccup. Dispatch allowed
  • DSPLAY SRCE (amber) - DEU Failed inflight
454
Q

What does the INSTR Switch light (amber) indicate?

A

1 IRS Supplies all data

455
Q

What does the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL light on the PFD (amber) indicate?

A

Failure of respective EFIS control panel

456
Q

STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light. What is it, what do you do?

A

+ A/P P/RST (red) if <800’ RA on 2CH ILS

AP is not trimming correctly

  1. DISCO AP+AT
  2. Trim Manually

On 2CH G/A Might not Level Off Correctly - ALT ACQ INHIBIT

457
Q

What FMC messages might you get on an FMC PTH descent?

A
  • DRAG REQUIRED : +10kts or more
  • OVERSPEED DISCONNECT : (V restr + 15kts)
  • FMA FMC SPD if V < V-10kts
458
Q

What is the obstacle free area on an RNP route?

A

4*RNP Value

459
Q

When can you not use an RNP approach procedure ?

A

When RAIM outage > 5 min predicted +/-15min of ETA

460
Q

Give the levels of protection and CPA for TA, RA and Proximate and Other Traffic

A
  • RA: CPA: 25s
  • TA: CPA: 40s
  • Proximate Traffic: <6nm and <1200’ or NO ALT
  • Other Traffic: >6nm, >1200’
461
Q

Give the TCAS Inhibits by Level

A
  • <1500 RA: “Increase Descent” RA Inhibit
  • <1100’ RA “Descent” RA Inhibit
  • <1000’ RA, all RA Inhibits
  • <500’ RA, all TCAS Voice Inhibits
462
Q

What are the 5 conditions for aborted engine start on GND?

A
  1. No N1 Rotation - ST SW OFF
  2. No EGT increase within 10s of moving st lever to IDLE - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
  3. Little or no N1 or N2 increase after EGT increase - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
  4. EGT quickly approaches or exceeds limit line - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
  5. No oil pressure indication by engine idle - ST SW C/O, When N2<20% ST SW GND, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
463
Q

You are in Take-Off and Engines Stable at 40% What FMAs will you see?

A

ARM | LNAV | —-

464
Q

You are in Take-Off and TO/GA What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | LNAV | TO/GA

465
Q

You are in Take-Off and 84kts What FMAs will you see?

A

THR HLD | LNAV | TO/GA

466
Q

You are in Take-Off and 800’ AGL What FMAs will you see?

A

ARM | LNAV | TO/GA

467
Q

You are in Take-Off and Thrust Reduction What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | LNAV | TO/GA

468
Q

You are in Take-Off and A/P ON What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD

469
Q

You are in Climb and VNAV Climb What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | LNAV | VNAV SPD

470
Q

You are in Climb and LVL CHG What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD

471
Q

You are in Climb and V/S Climb * What FMAs will you see?

A

MCP SPD | LNAV | V/S

472
Q

You are in Cruise and VNAV What FMAs will you see?

A

FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

473
Q

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and LVL CHG What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 / RETARD | LNAV | MCP SPD

474
Q

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and V/S * What FMAs will you see?

A

MCP SPD | LNAV | ALT HLD

475
Q

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and ALT INTV CLB/DES What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 / FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV SPD / VNAV PTH

476
Q

You are in Descent and VNAV PTH DES What FMAs will you see?

A

RETARD / ARM / FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

477
Q

You are in Descent and VNAV PTH DES NOW What FMAs will you see?

A

FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

478
Q

You are in Descent and VNAV SPD DES What FMAs will you see?

A

RETARD / ARM | LNAV | VNAV SPD

479
Q

You are in Descent and LVL CHG What FMAs will you see?

A

RETARD / ARM | LNAV | MCP SPD

480
Q

You are in Descent and V/S DES * What FMAs will you see?

A

MCP SPD | LNAV | V/S

481
Q

You are in G/A and GA REDUCED What FMAs will you see?

A

GA | —- | TO/GA

482
Q

You are in G/A and GA FULL What FMAs will you see?

A

N1 | —- | TO/GA

483
Q

You are in G/A and 400’ What FMAs will you see?

A

GA | HDG SEL | TO/GA

484
Q

You are in G/A and BUG UP What FMAs will you see?

A

MCP SPD | HDG SEL | ALT ACQ

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