SOPs Flashcards
To know your SOPs by heart!
1
Q
During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the flaps are not in landing configuration. What is the call at 500ft AAL?
A
“500 Go Around”
2
Q
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or non active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase call’ (inter cockpit). The first phase of the ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that they are cleared to cross/enter the runway, the second phase requires the RHS pilot to respond:
A
“Affirm cleared to enter” or “Affirm, cleared to cross”
3
Q
What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operation?
A
“After Takeoff checklist”
4
Q
The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?
A
“ALT HOLD”, reset MCP altitude, engage “LVL CHG”
5
Q
Prior to taxi the F/O should call?
A
“Clear right”
6
Q
A runway covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a:
A
“Contaminated Runway”
7
Q
What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after rapid decompression?
A
“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button
8
Q
The standard callout by PF when cleared to an altitude during descent is:
A
“QNH___SET, PASSING___, DESCENDING___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STAND BY ALTIMETER SET”
9
Q
The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is:
A
“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits””. This call is to be repeated once
10
Q
PF response to RAAS “On Runway” (cleared for take-off) is:
A
“Timing”
11
Q
The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?
A
“V1”
12
Q
The standard callout, from the PM, at 500 feet AAL on an ILS CATI approach is:
A
“500 continue” or “500 go-around”
13
Q
When setting minima on the PFD for an RNAV Approach to LNAV minima, what adition is made to the MDA?
A
+40 ft
14
Q
During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is: Select one
A
1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)
15
Q
When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP altitude may be selected no lower than: Select one
A
1,000 feet AFE
16
Q
A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:
A
1,000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC
17
Q
The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?
A
1,000ft
For RNP:
- <> .15 XTK
- ^v +/- 75’
- Vref-Vref+20
- Land CONFIG
- Land CX to lights
- RoD as Req (NB! 1000fpm)
18
Q
What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?
A
1,000 ft AAL
19
Q
When should the PF “Bug Up” on a standard departure using NADP2?
A
1,000ft AAL
20
Q
When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?
A
1,000ft AAL (Top of the white band)
21
Q
After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed? Select one:
A
10 knots
22
Q
The maximum headwind, crosswind and tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?
A
Max headwind: 25 kts Max cross wind: 20 kts Max tailwind: 10 kts
23
Q
What is the latest point to select flap 1 on any approach?
A
10 nm from touchdown // 10 nm from RW xx point
24
Q
Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is: Select one
A
12 Litres
25
What is the latest point can the autopilot be used during a single channel approach?
158ft AGL
26
The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:
15 knots
27
To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?
15 knots
28
The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:
15 knots
29
Second officer (2 stripes) shall not conduct the landing when the crosswind is in excess of?
15kts during normal operations
30
How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed source?
2 min
31
The minimum brake accumulator pressure with the hydraulics pressurised should be?
2,800 PSI
32
If the ambient temperature is below -35°C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?
2 minutes
33
When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”?
2nm before the nominated descent point
34
What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?
30 & 40
35
When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what is the default weight? Select one
32,000 kgs
36
The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:
33 knots
37
If the LNAV/VNAV minima published on the chart is 350ft, what minima is to be set on the PFD (assuming no cold temperature corrections needed)?
350ft (no addition required)
38
When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:
* 427 nm (B737-800) and
* 416 nm (B737-700).\*
@ M.79/330 Kts.
39
What range ring must be entered for the landing runway in the fix page on the RWxx point when planning a circle to land?
4.2 nm
40
During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…
4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway
41
The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is at...
400ft
42
What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplaneswithout an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800?
427 nm
43
What is the recommended taxi speed when engaging a RET (Rapid Exit Taxiway) after landing? Select one
45 KIAS
44
For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no later than: Select one
4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point
45
Standard callout from the PM at 500ft AAL on an ILS CAT I approach is:
500 continue / 500 go around
"Five hundred continue/go-around" (PM), "Check" (PF)
46
The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at:
500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO Glideslope
47
During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the Flaps are not in landing config. What is the call at 500ft?
500 Go Around
48
Maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway is:
5 knots
49
You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?
5nm
50
The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?
5nm prior to RWxx
51
Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in approximately how many seconds?
5 seconds
52
In the event of an engine failure at V1 where an Emergency Turn (ETP Type 1) is required, what are the parameters that must be flown?
Accelerate and maintain V2 (magenta bug) and limit bank angle to 15° during the turn
53
During flap retraction, the speed must not only be at the manoeuvring speed for the existing flap setting, but also showing an...?
Accelerating speed trend vector
54
When using the ‘Rx’ point for a visual approach...
A distance of 4nm or greater shall be selected
55
Which statement is true regarding takeoff flap settings?
A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain
56
During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required? Select one
After calling "SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP"
57
The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:
After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.
58
During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?
After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.
59
When is the transponder mode selector set 2000, then STBY, during the taxi in procedure? Select one
After the airplane has come to a complete stop.
60
Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number\_\_’
After the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls, "Starter cut-out"
61
When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button during the before takeoff checks? Select one
After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.
62
Which of the following is correct regarding the Emergency Turn (ET) procedure – ETP1?
After the turn is completed and at or above the MFRA, the PF calls "Bug up"accelerates, retracts flaps, then selects level change and MCT
63
Regarding IRS alignment:
A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period
64
An ASR must be filed if:
A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL
65
Continuous Descent Approaches (2 engines) are standard on?
All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA"s
66
A double briefing has to contain the following:
QTSAVNG
* **Q**NH+minima
* **T**emp Corr
* **S**equence (flaps,configure)
* **A**FDS + A/T
* **V**isual - actions if visual
* **N**ot visual - actions if not
* **G**ate - landing gate
67
CDA – Continuous Descent Approaches are: (OPS A)
Allowed for **ILS**
Not Allowed for **SRA** and **V/S NPA**
68
When you are planning to travel on the jumpseat you must:
* Make yourself known to the handling agent, flight crew and get the Captains approval
* Be travelling in uniform since you are travelling as passive crew
* Be in possession of a valid Ryanair ID, have a valid licence and passport
69
Items to be reviewed with the takeoff briefing, as part of the before takeoff checks are:
* Bleeds position
* Speeds
* SID initial turn requirement and stop altitude
70
Entering the runway, which lights do you turn ON?
Fixed Landing lights
Retractable Landing lights
Strobes
71
When using LNAV/VNAV minima, cold temperature altitude corrections are NOT applied to:
Altitudes from the FAF to the MAPT.
72
Before obtaining engine start clearance the transponder should be positioned to?
ALT OFF
73
Wing anti-ice shall be used:
Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid
74
If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:
An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON
75
When starting the engines, the first step is:
Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption
76
The taxi briefing on departure must always include:
A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure
77
What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with flaps extended on departure? Select one
A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged above MFRA.
78
When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?
As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF
79
When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power:
As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4
80
There is a cross wind in excess of 10kts, is assumed thrust reduction allowed?
Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed
81
During an NADP 2 departure, when would you put in the respective autopilot?
At 1,000ft AAL
82
During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative, when does the PF call "BUG UP" Select one
At 1,000ft AAL
83
Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1 departure. Select one
At 1,000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call "COMMAND A or B" when annunciated on the FMA.
84
What is the earliest point at which the AP may be engaged (RYR Procs) on departure?
At 1,000ft AGL
85
What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?
At 158ft or E/D
86
On an ILS approach in VMC, PF should call Gear down, Flaps 15: Select one
At 4nm, but not later than 3.5nm
87
When is the gear down and flaps 15 selected during a NPA using VNAV?
At 4 or 5 nm (VMC/IMC) to the Runway.
88
Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:
At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits
89
During an NADP 1 departure a SID requires a 3000ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate and retract flaps?
At ALT ACQ
90
Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA?
At EGPWS call "minimums" with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory
91
Cruise altitude speed must be:
At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV
92
When should the LOGO lights be ON?
At night below FL100
93
An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown
At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP
94
The V1 aural call on take-off must
Be complete by V1
95
When should the wing and engine anti-ice switches be turned off after landing in freezing/icing conditions?
Before entering the parking area.
96
When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections?
Below corrected MSA when the surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.
97
The PF during the Preflight Procedure places the pack switches to?
Both AUTO or HIGH
98
Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for departure.
Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable
99
What should the packs switch position be before connecting the ground conditioned air cart? Select one
Both OFF. Packs can be damaged if they are operated while ground condition air isconnected.
100
During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad message: Select one
Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is cleared
101
Which statement is correct regarding the circling procedure? Select one
Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.
102
Which statement is correct regarding the recirculation fan switches during the preflight procedures:
Both should be left in the AUTO position
103
During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?
Both VSI and altimeter indicate a positive rate of climb
104
As part of the Route Check the PF will:
Call "Checked" and states estimated fuel remaining
105
If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and:
Calls should be initiated to ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.
106
During the post flight procedures who annunciates "Disarm Slides and Open Doors"?
Captain
107
Preflight: Initial Emergency Briefing: The section detailing what the crew will reject the take-off for is briefed by the:
Captain
108
Whilst the aircraft is being pushed back from stand, who handles all communication with the ground crew?
Captain
109
During the taxi-in, the first officer will:
Check the hydraulic and brake pressure
110
A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:
Circle to land approaches
111
In the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off one should:
Climb straight ahead unless there is an "Emergency Turn" and inform ATC
112
Visual Approaches are
Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing.The "Ten Mile Rule" (Flaps 1) also applies.
113
During your walk around you see a missing security seal?
Contact Maintrol or get an on duty engineer to replace the seal
114
A runway covered in more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a:
‘Contaminated Runway’
115
The response the GPWS "MINIMUMS" is: Select one
CONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15
116
Standard Autobrake setting is OFF. Autobrake must be selected to a minimum of "2" when:
Crosswind in excess of 15kts
117
When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call 'FL\_\_\_ SET, THREE TIMES' checking the MCP Alt, FLT ALTand the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?
CRZ Page
118
When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for take-off on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water:
Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position
119
If you encounter Severe Turbulence during high altitude cruise flight: Select one
Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1 as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.
120
The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is done when?
Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the "Speedbrake" check. It is done by the PF
121
The After T/O checks are:
Done silently, except for "Air Conditioning & Press" which is called aloud & the "Altimeters" check, which is challenge & response
122
Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what action shall be taken after completing the engine startprocedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed andhand signals received from the ground crew?
Do not perform any action from memory and complete the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.
123
Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF? Select one
Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacleclearance height has been attained.
124
When flying in severe turbulence:
Do not use ALT HLD, use CWS
125
If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight: Select one
Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist
126
When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?
Each pilot on their first flight of the day as PF
127
The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:
Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars
128
The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?
Embarking, disembarking or on board
129
What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?
Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enterthe steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation
130
What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?
Expected SID plus 100ft
131
Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?
F/O: "Passing \_\_\_radio, flare armed"
132
A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?
F/O, first flight or crew change only
133
The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the instrument X-Check?
False
134
True or False: The engines are always started by the Captain.
FALSE
135
True or false: The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be checked as part of the after start scan?
FALSE
136
P-RNAV arrivals terminate at:
Final Approach Waypoint.
137
Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes?
Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted
138
During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the correct action after the Emergency Access Code is entered and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:
Flight deck door lock selector to DENY
139
Which statement is true regarding the Flight Director:
Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation
140
What Cost Index (CI) is to be entered in the FMC pre-flight?
Flight plan specified Cost Index
141
Which pilot handles all ATC communications whilst the aircraft is on the ground?
FO
142
Which statement is true regarding weather related missed approaches?
Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather
143
During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alter
For a CAT I approach; use Non-precision RVR / Vis and ceiling minima
144
What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates?
For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required
145
The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is:
Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data
146
The Approach Procedure (FRISC scanflow) prior to calling for the Approach Checklist, is which of the following?
Frequencies, Range Rings, Idents, SBY's and Courses
147
During the descent the “10 checks” are performed aloud as follows:
Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA "10 minutes to landing"
148
During the climb above FL100 and after the “Altimeters” call the PF will call for the “10 checks” which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:
Fuel – Lights – APU Off – Press and Air Cond (APU bleed off) – Seatbelts – Recall – 121.5 monitor
149
The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:
Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL
150
When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to:
Go around and check the effect on landing minima.
151
During low visibility operations, the crew should:
Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off
152
How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?
He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase"No 1 to the flight deck", over the PA
153
The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory).
If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD
154
According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?
If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff
155
What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights during the pre-flight procedure?
Illuminated dim (blue)
156
During the exterior inspection the PM will:
Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection
157
EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than 50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will:
initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.
158
What is meant by 'fail passive' automatic landing system?
In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude
159
Normal landing flap setting is?
Is determined after reviewing in flight landing performance calculations
160
Prior to pushback, the "Passengers Seated" signal: Select one
Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback
161
What is the last step of Isolated pack operation during engine start procedure? Select one
ISOLATION VALVE Switch .AUTO
162
The Boeing OPT is:
Is the default performance calculation application
163
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine start? Select one
It can be performed by memory at the discretion of the Captain.
164
During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder and aileron trim checked to be free and zero? Select one
It is completed for all flights.
165
If a No Engine Bleeds takeoff is planned:
It is necessary to cover this fact in the takeoff brief
166
If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned:
It need NOT be mentioned in the takeoff brief
167
During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:
Just prior to closing the L1 door
168
When conducting a Visual Approach, the landing gate is....
Land Alt plus 500 feet
169
The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?
Landing configuration only
170
On a circle to land approach, you must enter a 4.2NM ring from which runway?
Landing RWY
171
What course of action should be taken if during engine start the fuel is shutoff inadvertently (by closing engine startlever)?
Leave the engine start lever closed
172
During a GA, the correct roll mode at 400ft, providing routing is available is?
LNAV
173
An APV approach would be flown to which minima?
LNAV/VNAV
174
How must an approach using LNAV/VNAV Minima be flown?
LNAV as the lateral mode, VNAV as the vertical mode
175
Where does the Captain record the stab trim setting once calculated?
Loadsheet and FMC scratchpad
176
When performing the Flight Control checks during the Before Taxi Procedure you should?
Make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time
177
Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?
Manoeuvres Section in the QRH
178
The initial welcoming PA to passengers boarding should be done by whom and when?
Must be done by the Captain prior to pushback
179
Engine Start: The Start Levers are moved to the idle detent when?
N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25%
180
What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to during the preflight procedures?
NAV
181
When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?
Never, unless following a QRH procedure
182
Are you allowed to fly direct to the Final Approach Fix on an RNAV Approach?
No
183
What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?
No effect
184
If the autoland proceeds normally after passing 50 ft radio minimums, the F/O calls?
Nothing until the speed brake deploys
185
Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches are:
Not normally applicable to V/S NPA
186
What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after takeoffin a no engine bleed T/O configuration?
Obstacle clearance height
187
What position does the FO turn the Auto Brake selector to during the Taxi in Procedure?
OFF
188
When pushin back from a stand using a tug without a nosewheel steering bypass pin fitted, what position should the hydraulic A pumps switch position be in?
OFF
189
One of the standard callouts during engine start is?
'Oil Pressure' - PM
190
The rudder trim function is checked during?
On all through flights
191
The Flight Crew shall give the following to the CSS (Cabin Services Supervisor) prior to departure:
One copy of the SEP manual plus the CCI"s (Cabin Crew Instructions)
192
If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, is it acceptable to accelerate at?
Only accelerate once cleared to climb above 3000ft agl
193
When is the parking brake released once on stand and a wind calm day?
Only after confirmation that dual wheel chocks are in place
194
On departure, when may crews fly at more than 250kts below FL100?
Only if you're within Class A, B or C airspace, have been instructed "free speed" by ATC and are progressing on the course of your intended route.
195
Ideally, Continuous Descent Approaches will be used on:
Only ILS Approaches under Radar Vector control except for CAT II/IIIA
196
Crews may plan to fly high speed below FL100?
Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC
197
The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left:
ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure
198
The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored:
On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level
199
Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?
OPEN
200
Which statement is correct with regard to extending the airstair from the inside of the aircraft? Select one
Open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear visibility of the area outside theaeroplane to avoid injury to personnel.
201
Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?
Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8
202
Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’ in the correct order?
Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, emergency turn (if applicable) and adverse weather
203
The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when: Select one
Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing
204
Which annotation on the flight plan denotes approval for RNP approach procedures?
PBN S1 or S2
205
Night time ‘Circle to Land’ manoeuvres are
Permitted provided a visual slope indicator (PAPI/VASI) or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway
206
On the ground, prior to switching on the A system pump switches, ensure:
Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has been installed
207
During a dual channel GO Around, who will select the appropriate mode on the MCP?
PF
208
The 'Briefing' part of RIBETS must be completed by?
PF
209
Which pilot calls the Outer Marker (challenge) check first (on a ILS approach)?
PF
210
Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?
PF
211
Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?
PF
212
When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?
PF "Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX"
213
What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence? Select one
PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP, assures that the aircraft is followingthe FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the controls. Then engages the A/P and the A/T
214
Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?
PF, during Flight Deck Preparation
215
During the Descent and Approach preparation what are the tasks of the PF and PM?
PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM
216
Which statement is correct with regard to MCP altitude changes following an ATC instruction?
PF resets MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with MCP selector and calls "set"
217
What does the PF do after the PM calls 'approaching descent' during a V/S NPA?
PF sets MDA and calls 'XXX feet set' after verifying ALT HOLD.
218
When at an altitude and you are cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?
PF 'Set STD, passing FLXXX climbing FLXXX'
219
The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:
Pilot Monitoring for the next sector
220
Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?
PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown
221
Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start?
Position right for operating through a manned maintenance base
222
What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?
Pressurisation is normal
223
What is the correct FMC page selection for the PF once cleared for approach?
Prog Page 4
224
Self-manoeuvring Night Time Visual approaches below the MSA are:
Prohibited
225
Which statement is correct if you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach?
Promptly correct the flight path and continue
226
As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:
Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated
227
When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?
QNH \_\_\_, passing XXX descending XXX, (No) flags, Standby Altimeter set
228
The flight profiles of Ryanair approaches are contained in which manual?
QRH, Maneuvers section
229
Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?
QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)
230
The philosophy in which the normal checklists are used is?
READ-LOOK-LISTEN
231
In the cruise if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band immediately increase speed by:
Reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend
232
What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?
Reversers Normal
233
Which of the following RNAV procedures is Ryanair approved to conduct? RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS) RNAV RNP ARRNAV (RNP)
RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS)
234
Which statement regarding RTE 2 feature of the FMC is correct? Select one
RTE 2 shall never be loaded on the ground
235
The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:
RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS
236
What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?
Runway HDG
237
When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the APU off during the engine start procedure? Select one
See FCOM1 NP 21.53The correct answer is: Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights areilluminated.
238
When do you select the transponder to ALT OFF during engine start / push? Select one
before obtaining start clearance
239
When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the cruise, crew should Select one
Select CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page
240
On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up to?
Selecting reverse thrust
241
During descent, the PF will set and crosscheck altimeters at transition level or when cleared to an altitude. What isthe correct call that the PF makes?
SET QNH\_\_\_. PASSING\_\_\_ DESCENDING\_\_\_\_FEET. ____ FLAGS, STANDBYALTIMETER SET'
242
In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?
SET QNH\_\_\_\_, PASSING\_\_\_\_ DESCENDING \_\_\_FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBYALTIMETER SET
243
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will: Select one
Set their altimeters to STD.
244
When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision approach the crew should: Select one
Set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA
245
When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?
Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.
246
Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?
400' ???
247
If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this indicates: Select one
Some RAAS alerts may continue to function
248
Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU? Select one
STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output
249
It is policy to fly a Low Drag Approach (ILS):
Subject to ATC, where the cloud base is not less than 1,000ft. and the met. visibility is greater than 5km.
250
When performing a cross bleed start, where is the information to complete this procedure:
Supplementary procedures SP 7.5
251
You are taking off on runway 18. It is reported as “Slippery when wet” with BA 0.40 0.35 0.38. The wind is 140/20G30. Is take-off allowed and is an alternate needed?
Take-off is allowed and no take-off alternate is needed
252
During the takeoff roll, when the PF calls "Set Takeoff Thrust", the PM checks N1 against target value, checks engine instruments on the upper DU and checks for any pop-ups on the lower DU, then calls?
Takeoff thrust set, indications normal
253
If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?
TCAS
254
Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’?
The "Emergency Escape Ropes" (both) are attached to the flight deck
255
Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?
The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration
256
When the ATIS/Volmet for your destination is received, what is preselected on the PFD?
The ATIS/Volmet QNH is preselected
257
A double briefing contains (but not limited to) the following:
The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The 'Landing Gate'. Both crew's intentions on becoming visual & Both crew's intentions on reaching MDA if notvisual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up) Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected
258
The INOP NO SMOKING sign is move to the ON position. What does this indicate during the taxi out phase?
The cabin is secured for Take off
259
The First Officer will begin reading his "Before Takeoff Checklist" when:
The Captain calls for it
260
What is normal during pushback and engine-start?
The CAPT handles ground communication and the PF starts the engines all the time
261
During crosswind takeoffs:
The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level
262
The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:
The CPT asks for the"Before Takeoff checklist"
263
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the TAKEOFF BRIEFING during the Before Takeoff Procedure?
The CPT reviews the briefing and verifies PACKS and BLEEDS as required
264
During a Rejected T/O, what are the steps to follow?
The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO
265
How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?
The crewmember that first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and tells the flight crew
266
Under which conditions is a takeoff with CSFF on upper wing surfaces allowable? Select one
The CSFF on the wing tank upper surfaces is only within the lines defining the permissible CSFF area with no snow, ice or frost on the leading edges or control surfaces. AND There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility).
267
During taxi in and taxi out:
The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.
Only essential Safety PA's are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.
Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted.
268
Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?
The First Officer
269
An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing:
The Landing gate
270
Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?
The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm
271
What is the latest configuration point on a ILS in VMC conditions?
The latest point to select gear down/flaps 15 is at 3.5 nm
272
What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?
The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW
273
The aircraft may be operated safely up to: Select one
The maximum altitude indicated in the FMC
274
What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?
The MET report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima
275
During an ILS approach what is set once glideslope is captured?
The Missed Approach Altitude, as verified from the FMC
276
During a Non Precision Approach using VNAV, at what point is the missed approach altitude set?
The missed approach altitude is set at 1000ft AAL
277
Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet?
The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited weight)
278
What level will the PF select for CRZ in the FMC pre-flight page?
The optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)
279
The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:
The P-18 Panel
280
During the Final Flight Deck Preparation, the crew will use the INOP No Smoking switch in the AUTO position as a tactical reminder that:
The passengers are seated
281
Preflight, prior to first flight. Who checks the Ships Library?
The PF
282
When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?
The PF. He / She also stows it
283
Who selects the VHF NAV frequencies for the departure?
The PF as part of the Flight Deck Preparation
284
In case of an APU fire:
The PF calls for the memory items
285
Preflight: How is the instrument crosscheck performed?
The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently
286
Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?
The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation
287
Who checks the “Takeoff CONFIG” warning and when?
The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure
288
MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC instruction require the following actions and call-outs? Select one
The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls "VNAV" for all MCP ALT selections.
289
Which statement is correct regarding the sequence of actions when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling procedure?
The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call ‘CHECKED’
290
All MCP ALT changes shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.
The PF will leave their finger on the MCP ALT switch calling "set" to which the PM will respond "\*\*\*\*\* checked"
291
What do you do when hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed?
The PF will push TO/GA and call "Go-around, flap 15" etc.
292
During hours of low visibility, for the Exterior Inspection (walkaround):
The pilot completing the walkround should use a flashlight
293
Who is responsible to call FLAPS 15 when the position is indicated on the flap position indicator? Select one
The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START switches to CONT and checkingRECALL.
294
The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:
The PM
295
Who completes the Exterior Inspection?
The PM
296
Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?
The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight
297
FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the clearance and...
The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.
298
To achieve the target touchdown speed of Vref:
The PM will call "speed" whenever the speed is more than Vapp +10kts or less than Vref
299
Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure? Select one
The pushback must be complete with the parking brake set, the tug disconnected, and ATCclearance is obtained.
300
Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi and runway turnoff light: Select one
There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these lights if the aircraft must stop during
301
Which Take Off speeds should be used?
The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot
302
The ‘’Briefing’’ part of RIBETS must always include:
The Runway for departure
303
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:
The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as is possible)
304
Runway conditions permitting, autobrake will be:
The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PIsection) or using the OPT
305
Altimeter Cold temperature corrections shall be made to all MSA’s, approach altitudes, landing minima and MFRA’s whenever
The surface temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius
306
During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:
The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach
307
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start Supplementary Procedure?
This considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start. This is to improve cabin air qualitybetween starting the first and second engine.
308
As part of the Before Taxi Procedure, the PF blanks the lower display completely by pushing the MFD. Is that correct?
This is correct as the 'Pop up' feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or engine failure
309
Ryanair and CFM recommend the following cool down period for the engine hot section thermo stabilisation?
Three minutes
310
The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which of the following?
Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD"s & SBY instruments
311
What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?
TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up
312
What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during engine start procedure? Select one
To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.
313
What should be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than 5 degrees?
To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 400 m
314
Engine start should be accomplished as late as possible to have the number 1 engine stabilising just as the tow bar and the tug have cleared away from the airplane:
To minimise fuel burn and risk of ingesting FOD close to stand
315
The Autobrake performance is designed to:
To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected
316
When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew:
To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed
317
The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?
To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped
318
During the Descent and Approach preparation, the PF becomes PM whilst briefing. True or false: He selects, among other items, Vref and Autobrake setting?
TRUE
319
If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes thepreviously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows on the airspeed indication.
TRUE
320
The Crossfeed valve is checked for correct operation on the first flight of the day for each crew?
True
321
True or False: A NPA using Vertical Speed approach requires a 2nm level segment before the FAF // Nominated descent Point?
TRUE
322
When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be continued?
TRUE
323
Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose the most appropriate answer.
True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.
324
To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:
Use the tower reported wind
325
What action shall be taken after positioning the engine start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure? Select one
Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
326
During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST item to be checked in the Techlog?
Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.
327
During night time, which statement is true?
Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach
328
Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP Altitude / Flight Level changes?
VNAV
329
You are level at FL350 and cleared to climb to FL370, which mode should be initially used for climb? Select one
VNAV, only select V/S when VNAV is providing a sustained climb rate in excess of 2000ft or1000ft per minute with 1000 to level off
330
What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during climb? Select one
VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight Level, the sustained climb rate is inexcess of 3000ft, 2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be selected.
331
For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is the recommended roll mode for the final approach? Select one
VOR/LOC
332
The maximum approach speed additive is:
Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts
333
The NAV lights should be ON:
When AC power is connected to the airplane electrical busses
334
Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and the APU OFF during the engine start procedure? Select one
When both engines are stable provided there are no additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.
335
When entering the runway the Landing, Turnoff and Strobe Lights are selected ON. When is the Taxi Light turned ON?
When cleared for takeoff
336
When shall the Pilot Flying perform the FRISC scanflow?
When cleared to an altitude
337
When do both pilots set their altimeters to STD during an NADP 2 Departure? Select one
When cleared to climb to a flight level, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL.
338
When will the First Officer start the 'Taxi In Procedure' (after landing flow)?
When clear of the active runway, taxi instructions have been received, acknowleged, written in the FMC scratchpad and understood my both pilots
339
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to STD. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?
When climbing through the MSA
340
Before Takeoff during Cold Weather Operations, which of the following statements is the correct? Select one
When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, the take-off must be preceded by a static engine run-up.
341
During the Post Flight Procedures when can the Anti Collision light be switched off?
When N2 on both engines is less than 20%
342
When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach?
When Pilot incapacitation is suspected
343
What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?
When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL
344
When does a Ryanair flight declare a fuel “Mayday”?
When the calculated fuel on the arrival will be less than final reserve
345
When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?
When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)
346
Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto type shall not conduct the landing when specific weather conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate description.
When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3 limiting value, whichever is lower
347
During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is normally started
When the L1 door closes // When the load sheet arrives
348
Choose the correct statement regarding high altitude flight:
When using HDG SEL, the drag in a turn may increase to more than the available thrust
349
The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?
Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP"s
350
An assumed temperature reduced take off is not allowed:
With a crosswind exceeding 10 knots
351
The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised
With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC) (ILS approaches)
352
If published, an Emergency Turn Procedure:
Would be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on Take off
353
Electric Hydraulic pumps may be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?
Yes, when ground crew is informed, bypass pin is installed.
354
Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure? Select one
Yes
355
Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?
Yes
356
During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?
YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater
357
Is the CABIN call chime tested as part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation?
Yes, by the PF
358
In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100. Correct?
Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O
359
Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to maintain speed 280kts for separation: Select one
You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from ATC
360
Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft, what do you do?
You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane's flight path
