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Vet tech 1 > Tech lab midterm > Flashcards

Tech lab midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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2
Q

What is the purpose of OSHA

A

Developing and enforcing workplace safety standards and workplace safety inspections have reduced employee injury and death rates and associated costs

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3
Q

What are the employer responsibilities for employee safety

A

Develop a safety and policy manual, provide personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, goggles, aprons, and radiology gowns, train employees w/ safety and equipment, have a hazard communication standard, and commitment to safety and health of employees

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4
Q

What are the employee responsibilities for safety

A

Comply w/ all workplace standards, read and understand all training available info, use PPE, report hazardous conditions to buisness owner, and report job related injury and/or illness to business owner

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5
Q

What are important safety guidelines w/ food

A

Eat and drink only in designated areas, keep coffeepots and utensils away from sources that would contaminate food, and store food in separate refrigerator from one used to store biological or chemical items

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5
Q

What are machinery and equipment safety guidelines

A

Ensure proper guards in place and know proper operating procedures for all equipment

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6
Q

What are electrical safety guidelines

A

Keep circuit breakers closed, dont remove outlet covers, ensure equipment properly grounded if using in wet area, extension cords are for temporary applications only, and surge suppressors not used w/ autoclaves, coffeepots, or portable heaters

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7
Q

What are the fire and evacuation safety standard guidelines

A

Never overload electrical outlets, use surge suppressors appropriately, store flammable liquids properly, flammable materials should be stored at least 3 feet from ignition source, become familiar w/ emergency exits, establish a meeting place, and know where fires extinguishers are and how to use them

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8
Q

What should be used if barking is prolonged in the kennel

A

Ear protection to avoid hearing loss

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9
Q

How are bites, scratches, and kicks avoided

A

Use proper restraint and ensure your attention is on the animal during procedures

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10
Q

How do most vet techs get exposed to zoonotic diseases

A

Bad habits such as inhalation, contact w/ broken skin, ingestion, contact w/ eyes and mucous membranes, and accidental inoculation w/ needle

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11
Q

What are the standards for protection around radiation

A

PPE, stay out of the primary beam, wear monitoring device to measure exposure, increase distance from beam, avoid retakes, must be 18 years of age to take radiographs, and must avoid radiation exposure if pregnant

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12
Q

What is waste anesthetic gases

A

Gas and vapor leaked into room during medical procedures

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13
Q

What are potential effects of exposure to waste gas

A

Nausea, dizziness, headache, fatigue, sterility, miscarriage, birth defects, liver and kidney damage, and cancer

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14
Q

What are standards for protection against waste gas

A

Scavenging of waste anesthetic gas, leak free system, fill anesthetic gas in well ventilated area, annual maintenance of anesthetic machine, use appropriately sized equipment for animals, and respirator for personnel when pregnant

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15
Q

What should a written plan for hazardous chemicals include

A

General info about chemicals in the workplace, location of the hazardous communication plan, designated personnel responsible for adherence to hazcom standard, evaluate and update hazcom standard annually, container labeling, SDS library, employee training, and inventory or hazardous chemicals

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16
Q

What info is included on the GHS label

A

Signal word, hazard statement, precautionary statements, product name or identifiers, symbols, and manufacturer info

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17
Q

What is medical waste regulated by

A

Ind states and or environmental protection agency

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18
Q

What is the protocol for infectious waste

A

Since it contains pathogens of sufficient virulence and quantity that exposure to waste to a human could result in infectious disease the material should be treated before disposal

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19
Q

What are guidelines for OSHA inspections

A

Practice owner MUST be present, no employee is authorized to allow admittance unless there is a court order, and remember violations are very costly

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20
Q

What is the USDA

A

United States Department of Agriculture

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21
Q

What does AC stand for

A

Animal Care

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22
Q

What does APHIS stand for

A

Animal Plant Health Inspection Service

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23
Q

What does AWA stand for

A

Animal Welfare Act

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24
Q

What species are not covered under the AWA

A

Cold blooded species, farm animals used for food/fiber, fish, invertebrates, horses not used for research, rats, and mice

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25
Q

What types of animals does the AWA cover

A

Exhibited to the public, sold for pets, and used for research including to education

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26
Q

What are the important standards that are regulated by the AWA

A

Sanitation, housing, nutrition, veterinary care, temperature/humidity regulation, fresh water, and environmental enrichment

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27
Q

How are AWA standards enforced

A

An inspection occurs at all USDA licensed facilities in an unannounced routine fashion looking for animal health, wellness, facility inspection, pharmaceutical use, storage, labeling, and expiration date, food storage, labeling, and expiration date, OSHA compliance, and evaluating all facility records relating to animal care and use

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28
Q

Who preforms the AWA inspections

A

Veterinary Medical Officer (VMO) and Animal Care Inspector (ACI) who is special trained but not a vet

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29
Q

What does the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) allow

A

All records are publicly available

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30
Q

Who makes up the IACUC committee

A

Minimum of 3 members consisting of chairperson, attending vet, and non scientific non affiliated w/ institution

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31
Q

What are IACUC protocols

A

Detailed description of animal use, assessment of anticipated pain and distress levels, justification of the necessity of using live animals, number of animals to be used, qualifications of instructors, and euthanasia protocol

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32
Q

What are the 3 R’s of research

A

Reduction, refinement, replacement

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33
Q

What is reduction

A

Any strategy that will result in fewer animals being used in research

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34
Q

What is refinement

A

Modifications of experimental procedures to minimize pain

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35
Q

What is replacement

A

Methods which avoid or replace the use of animals in research

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36
Q

What are the 4 F’s regarding animals fear behavior

A

Freeze, flee, fidget about, and fight

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37
Q

What does FAS stand for

A

Fear, anxiety, and stress

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38
Q

What are a couple of examples of what SDS sheets are required for

A

Injectable drugs, drugs in liquid or capsule form, laboratory chemicals form, disinfectants/cleaners, topical medications, x-ray chemicals, inhalant anesthetics, compressed gas, and sterilization chemicals

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39
Q

What info must be put on a secondary label when a chemical is removed from the original container

A

Identification of the chemical, hazardous warnings, PPE needed, and storage/disposal requirements

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40
Q

What is classical conditioning

A

Learning by association

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41
Q

What is operant conditioning

A

Learning by trial and error

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42
Q

What are aversives

A

Forms of physical positive punishments

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43
Q

What are the two keys to aversives

A

Consistent and has to be enough to stop the behavior

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44
Q

What are general differences btw cats and dogs

A

Cats are independent, not very food motivated, and our preferences are not the cats

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45
Q

What does DDx stand for

A

Differential diagnosis

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46
Q

What is a physical exam comprised of

A

History + Gross Exam + Detailed Exam

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47
Q

What is signalment

A

Age, breed, sex, and reproductive status

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48
Q

What is environmental history

A

Indoor, outdoor, and other animals

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49
Q

What should be identified about the chief complaint an owner as when bringing their pet in

A

The duration, severity, progression, and frequency of the symptom

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50
Q

What does the gross exam consistent of

A

What you can see, hear, animals attitude, awareness, general appearance, gait, and mobility

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51
Q

What does the detailed exam consistent of

A

Hands on evaluation, systematic evaluation including finding weight, BCS, PR, HR/auscultation, RR/character

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52
Q

What is the normal range for temp

A

100.5-102.5

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53
Q

What is pyrexia

A

Raise in the core body temperature

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54
Q

What does febrile mean

A

Clinical fever

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55
Q

What is hyperthermic

A

Higher/evaluated temp and needs cooled

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56
Q

What is hypothermic

A

Lower/decreased temp

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57
Q

Where can you take a PR

A

Femoral artery, plantar pedal artery, dorsal pedal artery, and palmar pedal artery

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58
Q

What is the normal PR range for an adult medium dog

A

70-150 bpm

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59
Q

What is the normal PR range for an adult toy breed

A

180 bpm

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60
Q

What is the normal PR range for puppies

A

150-220 bpm

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61
Q

What is the normal PR range for adult cats

A

150-220 bpm

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62
Q

What are the various ways pulse can be characteristized

A

Normal, weak, thread, and bounding

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63
Q

How do you auscultate a heart

A

Place a stethoscope over the 5th intercostal space and listen to both right and left side

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64
Q

What do you listen to on the left side of the heart

A

The aortic (4th intercostal), pulmonic (3rd intercostal), and mitral valves (5th intercostal)

65
Q

What do you listen to on the right side of the heart

A

Tricuspid valves (4th intercostal space)

66
Q

What is tachycardia

A

Fast heart rate

67
Q

What is bradycardia

A

Slow heart rate

68
Q

What is pluse deficit

A

Pulse and HR aren’t synchronous

69
Q

What is arrhythmia

A

Disruption in rhythm

70
Q

What is sinus arrhythmia

A

A disruption in the rhythm produced by the sinus node

71
Q

Where do you auscultate the lungs

A

9 areas on each side

72
Q

What are the abnormalities that can be seen in the respiratory rate

A

Rhythm, rate, and character such as shallow, labored, absence of sound, wheeze, and crackle/wet sounds

73
Q

What are the normal dog and cat RRs

A

20 bpm and 25 bpm

74
Q

What is dyspnea

A

Difficult/painful breathing

75
Q

What is apnea

A

Not breathing

76
Q

What is apneustic

A

Prolonged gasping inhalations followed by extremely short and inadequate exhalations

77
Q

What is tachypnea

A

Fast RR

78
Q

What is bradypnea

A

Slow RR

79
Q

What is hyperventilation

A

Breathing too quickly or too deeply

80
Q

What is hypoventilation

A

Breathing too slowly

81
Q

What are you looking for when examine the integumentary system

A

Parasites, general condition of hair coat, irritation, lesions, flakes, growths, evidence of chewing/licking, and skin turgor

82
Q

What is erythema

A

Skin redness

83
Q

What is pruritus

A

Being itchy

84
Q

What anatomical landmark can help you find the heart

A

The olecranon

85
Q

What are the different MM colors

A

Pink (normal in dogs), Pale pink (normal for cats), yellow, white, blue, and brick red

86
Q

What does prolonged CRT mean

A

Decrease in peripheral perfusion

87
Q

What is decreased/shorter CRT mean

A

Increase in peripheral perfusion

88
Q

What is the most important thing to consider when evaluating the gastrointestinal system

A

History

89
Q

What anatomical structures are evaluated to asses the GIT

A

Teeth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, rectal area, and abdominal palpation

90
Q

What is brachygnathia

A

Shorting of the mandible

91
Q

What is prognathic

A

A projection lower jaw

92
Q

What is the most important thing when evaluating the urogenital tract

A

History

93
Q

What anatomical things are evaluated when assessing the urogenital tract

A

Prepuce, penis, vulva, mammary tissue, and palpating kidneys, urinary bladder, uterus, and prostate gland

94
Q

What is the difference in anatomical position btw the left and right kidneys

A

The right kidney is more cranial

95
Q

What is pyometra

A

Uterus infection

96
Q

What is anuria

A

Failure of the kidneys to produce urine

97
Q

What is oliguria

A

Production of abnormal small amount of urine

98
Q

What is dysuria

A

Painful/difficulty urination

99
Q

What is looked for when assessing the musculoskeletal system

A

Muscles, bone, joints, symmetry, gait, pain, swelling, and atrophy

100
Q

What are we looking for in the CNS

A

Facial paralysis, blink response, stimuli response, nystagmus, aniscoria, and pupillary light response

101
Q

What is aniscoria

A

Different sized pupil

102
Q

What are the different lymph nodes

A

Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, induinal, and popliteal

103
Q

What do we look for when evaluating the ears

A

Smell, discharge, inflammation, head tilt, parasites, and infection

104
Q

What do we look for when evaluating the eyes

A

DIscharge, position of eyelid, cornea, and pupils

105
Q

What is epiphora

A

Having excess tears or watery eyes

106
Q

What does PLR stand for

A

platelet to lymphocyte ratio

107
Q

What is entropion

A

Eyelid is turned inward

108
Q

What is ectropion

A

Eyelid is turned outward

109
Q

How is the spinal cord assessed

A

Conscious proprioception, reflexes, and pain perception

110
Q

What are the methods for pilling cats

A

Manual, pill gun, pill pockets, food, and cheese whiz/butter

111
Q

What are the methods used to pill dogs

A

Manual, food, pill gun, and pill pockets

112
Q

What can happen when pills get stuck in the esophagus

A

Esophagitis and esophageal ulceration

113
Q

What are gelcaps

A

Empty capsules that you can put multiple pills and bitter pills in

114
Q

Where do you strive to put liquid medication in dogs

A

Cheek pouch

115
Q

What are topicals

A

Creams, ointments, transdermal gels, patches, and intrarectal

116
Q

How do you apply ocular medications

A

Stabilize hand on the side of an animals head, hold about an inch away, apply a drop, and make sure not to touch the tip on the eye

117
Q

What are nebulizers used for

A

Respiratory medications

118
Q

What does MDI stand for

A

Metered Dose Inhalers

119
Q

How do we encourage eating

A

Drugs to stimulate an appetite, encouragement, and force tube feeding

120
Q

What is orogastric tube feeding

A

A tube is passed from the mouth to the stomach or distal esophagus to deliver fluids and or medications

121
Q

How do you measure an orogastric tube

A

Use a speculum to place a 10fr to 22fr red rubber catheter and mark it using tape or ink to mark outside of the tube for proper positioning from the mouth to the stomach by measuring from canine tooth to 13th rib or mouth to distal esophagus measuring from canine tooth to 8th or 9th rib

122
Q

Why is orogastric tube feeding used

A

GDV, kittens/puppies, and medications

123
Q

What is a nasoesophageal/nasogastric tube

A

A short term feeding tube placed from the nasal cavity to the esophagus. It is possible for them to vomit tube up so use w/ caution in vomiting patients, measure from nares to distal esophagus 8th rib and stomach 13th rib, placed using topical anesthetic and maybe sedation, only liquid food can be used here, and must be sutured or glued in

124
Q

What is esophagostomy

A

Feeding tube placed mid cervical under anesthesia so it must be placed by a DVM, can stay in for wks to months, they can eat around the tube, it is well tolerated, and must be well maintained

125
Q

What is a gastrostomy tube

A

A tube that starts and ends in the stomach, is placed surgical, bypasses proximal GIT, and can irritate the stomach

126
Q

What is a jejunostomy

A

A feeding tube that starts and ends in the SI, bypasses the stomach, requires predigested foods, can cause cramping and diarrhea, and is only placed by a DVM under anesthesia

127
Q

What are patches

A

Impregnated w/ mediations released over a period of time

128
Q

What are MDIs used for

A

Asthma

129
Q

What is pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to a drug such as its movement into, through, and out

130
Q

What is ADME

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

131
Q

What is the bioavailability of drugs

A

Degree of drug that enters circulation which is largely determined by route of administration or absorption

132
Q

What is distribution of a drug

A

Perfusion to target tissue

133
Q

What is the metabolism of the drug

A

Done by the liver, enzymes alter the drug, and those metabolites are less biologically active

134
Q

What is the excretion of drugs

A

Eliminate drugs from the body thru the renal system, GIT, and exhalation

135
Q

What is pharmacodynamics

A

What a drug does to the body, biochemical, physiologic, molecular effects of drug on body, receptor binding, and chemical interactions

136
Q

What are the general characteristics about giving injections

A

Use an alcohol stopper, draw up contents into syringe, remove any air in syringe, change needle before injection, label syringe, verify the label on bottle the drug and concentration, the patient, route of administration, and dosage, aseptic technique using alcohol, quick stick, dont dart, aspirate for placement, and inject

137
Q

What are routes of administration influenced by

A

Form of drug, onset of action, and irritation to tissue

138
Q

What are the absorption rates are directly dependent on

A

Vasculature to the area meaning the route of administration determines onset of action

139
Q

What is the injection degree of the needle when injecting SQ

A

45 degree angle

140
Q

What is the process of injecting IM

A

Isolate muscle to avoid the sciatic nerve, wipe injection site w/ alcohol, insert needle appox 90 degrees to muscle, aspirate to observe for blood, inject medication, remove needle, and massage area

141
Q

When are IV injections given

A

When the medication irritation to tissues

142
Q

Where are IV injections given

A

Cephalic vein, lateral saphenous (dog), medial saphenous (cat), jugular vein (common in large animals)

143
Q

What is the process of giving IV injections

A

Visualize vessel w/ occlusion, wipe injection site w/ alcohol, stabilize vessel w/ non dominant hand, insert needle w/ bevel up parallel to vessel, aspirate to observe blood flow, if blood observed release tourniquet, give injection, apply digital pressure over insertion site, w/draw needle, and maintain digital pressure to prevent bleeding or hematoma formation

144
Q

What does IP stand for

A

Intraperitoneal

145
Q

What does ID stand for

A

Intradermal

146
Q

What does IN stand for

A

Intranasal

147
Q

What does IT stand for

A

Intratracheal

148
Q

What does IC stand for

A

Intracardiac

149
Q

What are the 5 Rs

A

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time/freq

150
Q

What is the rule of 3 when reading drugs

A

Read as pulling off the shelf, read when drawing up, and read when u put back on the shelf

151
Q

In emergent situations what is the most important piece of information used to stabilize the patient

A

The presenting complaint

152
Q

What does an appropriate oropharyngeal examination include

A

Both open mouth and closed mouth examinations

153
Q

What two things must be visualized to preform an appropriate ear exam

A

Vertical and hoizontal canals

154
Q

What should be done for patients in significant respiratory distress prior to performing a complete respiratory exam

A

The patient should be placed on oxygen

155
Q

What does a complete cardiac exam include

A

Assessment of perfusion status, HR, heart rhythm, and heart sounds

156
Q

What is the most important part of the exam for intact patients

A

Urogenital exam and mammary palpation

157
Q

What should be done in patients that present w/ lameness

A

All limbs should be thoroughly examined to allow comparisons to be made and to isolate the affected area

158
Q

In an emergency large animal situation what is appropriate exam form

A

Perform the PE prior to taking a history

159
Q

Where is the most convenient place to obtain a pulse in large animals

A

The point where the facial artery crosses the ventromedial aspect of the mandible

160
Q

What visualization can be important for GI disease diagnosis

A

The abdominal silhouette

161
Q

When should pleural filling be on your ddx list

A

When the patient is presenting w/ tachpnea short shallow breaths, respiratory distress, open mouth breathing, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis

Vet tech 1 (7 decks)

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