Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet tech 1 > Lab final > Flashcards

Lab final Flashcards

1
Q

Why should nail trims be done before every bath

A

Nails grow continually, can grow into the foot pads causing infection, abscesses, and pain, they can get caught in things and break off, long nails can alter the animals gait, and is protection for us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the types of nail trimmers

A

Rescoe, whites, miller’s forge, human nail clippers, and dremmels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should you hold the clippers when trimming nails

A

Blade away from the paw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 things that can be used to establish hemostasis if a nail is quicked

A

Styptic powder (kwik stop) and silver nitrate sticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should anal glands be expressed

A

Before the bath so we aren’t sending home a smelly animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 methods of anal sac expression

A

Internal (RVT or DVM) and external (assistants and groomers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you express anal glands internally

A

Insert a gloved and lubricated index finger to the first knuckle and use your thumb to apply pressure externally milking the fluid out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an abnormal anal gland finding

A

The fluid can become thick having the potential to cause an infection or abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When should the dog be brushed

A

Before the bath to minimize extra hair down the drain and remove mats/burrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is it important to know your grooming tools

A

They can cause damage to the skin if used improperly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be used to cut mats

A

Clippers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some cautions to watch for when grooming

A

Hot spots and clipper burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should you use to clean eyes

A

W/ a wet cotton ball and apply artificial tears to protect the eyes during a bath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should we clean ears

A

W/ cotton balls and otic solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is using otic solution prefered when cleaning ears

A

Otic cleaners may have properties against bacteria, fungus, or yeast, promote the ear drying, other products include ceruminolytics that break up the wax, and other products can get past the tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long should medicated shampoos be left on the skin before rinising

A

10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of animal should never be left in front of a cage dryer

A

Sedated animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some things to remember about giving a cat bath

A

Put the grate in the tub, make a cat “harness” out of the slip lead, go slow to avoid stressing the cat, and talk to the owner to make sure the bath is appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are dips used for

A

Treating skin conditions such as demodectic mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you use dip on a dog

A

After shampooing (medicated) plug the tub and begin to pour the dip on the coat this allows you to continue to reuse the dip for about 5 mins then use a washcloth wet w/ solution to get around the face w/o getting it into the eyes, DO NOT RINSE, then allow the animal to air dry to keep the medication on skin, use an e-collar for dogs that like to lick and cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are bed sores and where are they common

A

Decubital ulcers and they are common over the bony prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the main concerns w/ recumbent patients

A

Urine scald, fecal soiling, and decubital ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is really the only real treatment for decubital ulcers

A

Provide padding on the receptible areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are “clean jobs” for clippers

A

surgery sites and grooming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are “dirty jobs” for clippers

A

Hot spots, surgery prep of open wound or laceration, and infected skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the cleaning process for clipper blades

A

Use a toothbrush to sweep away excess debris, pour blade wash into a shallow container, immerse the tip of the blades until the level is above the moving part, turn clippers on, turn them off, remove from solution and towel dry, start clippers again and spray lubricant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How often should clipper blades be professionally sharpened

A

Annually to extend their life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When are clippers no longer usable

A

When a blade is missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference btw infection and infestation

A

Infection is inside the body and infestation is outside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the medical term for skin redness

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the medical term for being itchy

A

Pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the medical term for a skin infection caused by bacteria or fungi

A

Pyoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the medical term for a skin condition that causes the skin to thicken, develop markings, and chronic hair loss

A

Lichenification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is mange

A

Microscopic mites that burrow in the skin and live in the hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a skin scrape

A

A test that should be done w/ every derm case as a simple/cheap way to rule out parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is a skin scrape done

A

Identify a non treated site, Squeeze and scrape margins of lesions using a dull 10 blade, hold at a 45 degree angle to prevent cutting the skin, scrape until you get a small amount of blood, transfer to slide and apply a drop of mineral oil, and pluck a few hairs from the area to see if any were living in the follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Red mange in dogs

A

Demodex canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does a normal amount of mange flora live

A

In the hair follicle and sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does red mange occur

A

The animal becomes immunocompromised and can’t maintain the natural balance of the mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a common symptom of red mange

A

Pathy alopecia over the muzzle, face, and forelimbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is demodex gatoi and how is it treated

A

Red mange in cats that live more superficial than demodex canis and are teated w/ lyme sulfer dips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are treatments for demodex canis

A

Bravecto, nexgard, or noromectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is scabies in dogs

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is scabies in cats

A

Notoedres cati

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where do notoedres cati live

A

They burrow in the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do you find scabies

A

Deep skin scape in multiple locations and pinna/pedal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does scabies look like

A

Intense itching, erythematous, popular rash w/ scales, crusts and excoriations, alopecia around ears, lateral elbows, and ventral abdomen, and bright red skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is scabies contagious

A

Yes it is zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is cheyletiella

A

Walking dandruff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Cheyletiella for dogs

A

C.yasguri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Cheyletiella for cats

A

C.blakei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the Cheyletiella for rabbits

A

C.parasitovorax this is the most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where does Cheyletiella live

A

On the superficially on the skin and they are contagious thru direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you find Cheyletiella

A

W/ a scotch tape test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are treatments for Cheyletiella

A

Insecticides and dips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are dermatophytes

A

Opportunistic fungal infections such as ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the 2 types of ringworm

A

Microsporum canis/gypsem and trichophyton sapp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is ringworm contagious and what are the signs

A

Yes the signs are patchy ring shaped alopecia typically around the face that is not itchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the treatments for dermatophytes

A

lime sulphur dip, chlorhexidine spray, shampoos, and oral meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How can you test for dermatophytes

A

Blacklight/woods lamp, culture, and wet mount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are things that are looked at w/ low microscope lighting and no stain

A

Fecal, skin scrape, and urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you run a culture testing for dermatophytes

A

Pluck hairs and put onto agar, let sit in a dark place for up to 2 weeks, positive samples change the agar from yellow to red and typically have a fluffy white cloud looking growth, and must look under microscope to confirm macro/microconidia compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the cecum

A

The beginning of colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the ascending colon

A

Rises cranially along right side of abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the transverse colon

A

Crosses cranial abdomen from right to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are descending colon

A

Directed caudally along the left side of the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where is the rectum

A

From the pelvis to the exterior it is the last part of the descending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the anus

A

External opening of the intestine that is a sphincter stimulated to open when pressure felt in rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are indications for enemas

A

Constipation/obstipation, pre op for things like an endoscope, diagnostics such as biopsy or radiographs, for paralyzed patients either neurologic or if the patient has a fractured pelvis, painful rectal palpation, tenesmus (straining), anorexia, dyschezia, and hematochezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are causes of constipation/obstipation

A

Dietary such as ingesting bones or hair, dehydration, or FB, drugs such as opiods, diuretics, and iron, and anatomical issues/diseases such as tumors, strictures, and megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is true constipation

A

Straining, painful abdomen, and not eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the equipment used for enemas

A

Red rubber so gravity can be used to help funnel the material out, 60ml catheter tip syringe, KY jelly, and enema solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the types of enema solution

A

Warm water w/o soap (best choice and least irritating), mineral oil (good lubricant for constipation), warm water w/ soap (can be irritating), and salt solutions (Mg and sodium phosphate salts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the issue w/ using a salt solution for an enema

A

Acts by pulling water from the interstitial space leading to dehydration, irritation, and is extremely toxic to cats and small dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the steps of giving enemas

A

Lubricate tube, insert gently through anal sphincter into the rectum, slowly administer fluid (10ml/lb), wait at least 1 hr before repeating, and PRN repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are complications of giving an enema

A

dehydration (toxicity), vomiting from too much volume, and rough technique could injure the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are contraindications of enemas

A

Bowel perforation and recent colon surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are locations for an arterial blood draw

A

Femoral and dorsal pedal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are advantages of drawing arterial blood

A

Contains oxygen so is useful for certain tests such as blood gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are disadvantages of drawing arterial blood

A

Possible nerve damage, hematoma, and excessive bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are locations for a venous blood draw

A

Jugular vein (central), cephalic vein, lateral saphenous (dog), and medial saphenous (cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are advantages for drawing venous blood

A

It is safe and easy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How much blood can be pulled from a cephalic vein

A

3mls for dogs and 1ml for cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When should a lateral saphenous vein be used

A

When the dog is aversive to restraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the truly sterile method for collecting blood that minimizes hemolysis

A

Using a vacutainer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What blood collecting method should be used when preforming a blood culture

A

The vacutainer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the two main differences btw plasma and serum

A

Plasma has an anticoagulant and fibrinogen while serum contains neither of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When is serum centrifuged

A

After coagulation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the purpose of obtaining plasma and serum

A

Plasma is given to patients lacking blood cells and serum is used for diagnostics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the venipuncture procedure for peripherial vessels

A

After distension, line up thumb lateral to the vein while holding the leg, w/ needle bevel up insert the needle nearly parallel to the vein, advance quickly and you should see a flash of blood in the hub, aspirate desired amount, release tourniquet before removing the needle, and remove the needle and apply digital pressure to venipuncture site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What can happen if you aspirate w/ too much force

A

The vessel could collapse onto the needle stopping blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the venipuncture procedure for jugular veins

A

Distend the vessel by putting your flat thumb across the jugular furrow just about the thoracic inlet, have restrainer hold head up slightly, bevel up insert the needle into the skin almost parallel to the vein, advance quickly and aspirate blood, release thumb pressure before withdrawing needle, and apply digital pressure to the site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is serum used for

A

Chem panels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the different anticoagulation factors

A

EDTA, heparin, and citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the order of using tubes for multiple tube collections

A

Yellow, blue, orange/red, green, purple, and grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the 3 holds we can use for drawing blood from a cat’s jugular

A

Side hold, upside down kitty, and over the edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are good things to use w/ fractious cats for blood draws

A

Induction box, cup muzzle, and towel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the most important thing to remember when drawing blood

A

Go on what you see if you can see it you can stick it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the lateral and medial canthus

A

Corners where the eyelids come together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the palpebral conjunctiva

A

The portion of the conjunctiva that lines the interior surfaces of the eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the cilia of the eye

A

The eyelashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the nictitating membrane

A

The third eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the lacrimal punctum

A

A small opening in the eyelid that drains tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the cornea

A

Transparent to admit light to the interior of the eye, has an orderly arrangement of collagen fibers, and only contains receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the sclera

A

The white of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the pupil

A

The opening center of the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the iris

A

Pigmented smooth muscular diaphragm that controls the amount of light that enters the posterior part of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eye

A

Fibrous tunic (cornea, sclera, and limbus), vascular uvea (choroid, tapetum, ciliary body, suspensory ligament, and iris), and nervous (retina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Where is the anterior chamber

A

The portion of the aqueous chamber that is located in front of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where is the posterior chamber

A

Below the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the aqueous humor

A

It is produced in the posterior chamber by the ciliary body and drained in the anterior chamber by the canal of schlemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the vitreous humor

A

Contains clear gelatinous fluid that fills the whole back of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the lens

A

A soft translucent layers of fibers that are elastic and biconvex this helps focus a clear image on the retina through the accommodation process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the two sections of an eye examination

A

External looking for discharge, redness, squinting, tearing, lacerations, ulcers, and growths and internal looking for a cloudy appearance, opacities, and hemorrhaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is used for evaluating the eye

A

Ophthalmoscope

116
Q

What are signs of ophthalmic pain

A

Blepharospasm (squinting), pawing/rubbing, photophobia (fear of light/avoiding light), tearing, and withdrawn

117
Q

What are responsible for tear production

A

Lacrimal gland (primary tear gland in the dorsolateral aspect of the top eyelid) and nictitans gland

118
Q

What are the 3 components of tears

A

Mucin (mucus), aqueous, and lipid

119
Q

What are the causes for an unhealthy eye

A

Any deviation of the composition of the eye

120
Q

What is the function of tears

A

Provide oxygen and nutrients, flush debris, hydration of cornea, and inhibit bacterial growth

121
Q

What is a schirmer tear test

A

Assess tear production, you hold a strip in place for a min, normal value is >15-20 mm, value of <5 mm is indicative of dry eye, and this should be done before any other testing as results are affected by other liquids put into the eye

122
Q

What is the medical term for dry eye

A

Keratoconjuctivitis sicca

123
Q

What is fluorescein stain

A

Screening for corneal ulceration/abrasion, use black light to highlight stain uptake, water soluble so the epithelial layer of cornea wont take up stain, and stain uptakes only if disruption is deeper than the 1st corneal layer

124
Q

What is tonometry

A

Intraocular pressure measurement (IOP), desensitize cornea w/ numbing drops prior to administering test, normal IOP is 10-30 mmHg, and either the tonopen and tonovet can be used

125
Q

What is the tonopen

A

Appentation that taps the center of the cornea multiple times for an avg

126
Q

How is the tonovet

A

Rebounds off the corneal surface producing a pressure

127
Q

What is uveitis

A

Inflammation of the uvea leading to decreased IOP, clinical signs, and is treated w/ mydriatic

128
Q

What is glaucoma

A

Gradual increase in IOP that causes blindness it is very painful and is treated w/ miotic

129
Q

What are cataracts

A

Opacity/calcification in lens, seen in conjunction w/ diabetes, and can be hereditary

130
Q

What is conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjunctivia that can be bacterial or viral and symptoms are redness and inflammation

131
Q

What is cherry eye

A

Prolapse of a gland in nicitating membrane

132
Q

What are first aid eye treatments

A

Cold compresses, bandage both eyes, and do not apply pressure

133
Q

What should you do w/ a foreign body in and outside a globe

A

If it is in the globe don’t remove it and if it is outside the globe you can flush it out

134
Q

What is proptosis

A

Eye prolapses beyond eyelids you must keep the eye moist if this occurs

135
Q

What is the entropion

A

Eye lids roll towards the eye common in shar pei

136
Q

What is ectropoin

A

Eye lids drop lower than it should common in bassests

137
Q

What is epiphora

A

Over production of tears

138
Q

What is distichiasis

A

Extra eyelashes growing from an abnormal area

139
Q

What is trichiasis

A

Eyelids growing toward the eye

140
Q

What is descemetocele

A

Corneal ulcer that goes down to the descremens membrane

141
Q

What are mydriatic

A

Dialate pupil

142
Q

What is miotic

A

Constrict pupil

143
Q

Want is anisocoria

A

Different size of pupil

144
Q

What is myosis

A

Constriction of the eye

145
Q

What is mydriosis

A

Dialation of the eye

146
Q

What is active immunity

A

Long lasting immunity, acquired or natural, and the body takes an active role producing antibodies when exposed to antigen

147
Q

What is passive immunity

A

Short acting immunity and acquired by transfer of antibodies

148
Q

How long should animals have have decrease exposure to infectious microorganisms due to passive immunity

A

Until at least 12 weeks of age

149
Q

How does passive immunity interfere w/ vaccines

A

Because the passive immunity may prevent the body from mounting an immune response to a vaccine this is why we give mulitple of certain vaccines

150
Q

What vaccine info should be recorded in a patients medical history

A

Record lot number, serial number, and where the vaccine was given on the animal

151
Q

When do we decide certain vacciens should be given

A

When the animal has a realistic risk of exposure to a pathogen that has the potential for development of a serious disease

152
Q

What are the 3 main important reasons to vaccinate

A

Protect individuals against disease, prevent transmission of infection on larger scale, and decrease potential for zoonotic disease transmission

153
Q

What things can affect the protection a vaccine provides

A

Immunocompromised, concurrent disease or infection, poor nutrition, certain meds, stress, maternally derived antibodies, and poor compliance

154
Q

What are killed vaccines

A

Inactive/non infectious vaccines, stable, is not disease causing, and contains adjuvant

155
Q

What is an adjuvant

A

Added to a non infectious vaccine to enhance the immune response

156
Q

What is a MLV

A

Active/infectious vaccine, is less stable, has the potential to cause disease, attenuated, and causes a higher immune response

157
Q

What is a recombinant vaccine

A

Has a questionable strength of immune reponse and the potential to cause disease

158
Q

What by definition is a core vaccine

A

Recommended for all, the disease has a significant morbidity, the dieases has a significant mortality, widely distributed, good protection from vaccination, and low incidence of adverse reactions

159
Q

What by definition is non core vaccines

A

Optional, we consider individual animal exposure risk, self limiting, easily treated, moderate efficacy, and has +/- association w/ adverse reaction

160
Q

What are the canine core vaccines

A

Parvovirus (CPV), distemper (CDV), adenovirus (CAV2), +/- parainfluenza (CPiV), rabies, and lepto

161
Q

What are canine non core vaccines

A

Bordetella, lyme, influenza, western diamondback rattlesnake

162
Q

What are core feline vaccines

A

Herpesvirus (FHV-1), panleukopenia (FCV), calicivirus (FCV), +/- leukemia (FeLV), and rabies

163
Q

What are feline non core vaccines

A

Chlamydia and bordetella

164
Q

When does the risk of feline leukemia increase

A

Around 1 year of life

165
Q

When can a kitten be vaccinated for panleukopenia, rhinotracheitis, and calicivirus (MLV)

A

Begin as early as 6 weeks and repeat every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks of age

166
Q

When can FeLV be given to kittens

A

Begin as early as 8 weeks and give 2 doses 3-4 weeks apart

167
Q

When can rabies be given to a kitten

A

Must be at least 12 weeks old and given in a single dose

168
Q

Where is feline 3 way or 4 way given w/o feline leukemia

169
Q

Where is rabies administered on a cat

170
Q

Where is FeLV given

171
Q

When can puppies be vaccinated for parovirus, hepatitis, and distemper (MLV)

A

Begin as early as 6 weeks and repeat every 3-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks of age

172
Q

When can bordetella be given to puppies

A

Parenteral can be given at 8 weeks and 12 weeks and intranasal can be given at 3-4 weeks of age

173
Q

What are recombinant vaccines

A

Using a specific part of a germ to produce a strong immune response

174
Q

When are vaccines not recommended

A

Disease involved are of little significance, disease respond readily to treatment, vaccines only have minimal efficacy, and associated w/ adverse effect

175
Q

What are signs of dental disease

A

Persistent bad breath, gums that bleed easily, sensitivity around the tooth, pawing at the mouth, gums that are red, inflamed, hyperplastic, or receding, loss of appetite, stomach or intestinal upset, drooling, purulent exudate (pus) around the tooth, loose or missing teeth, difficulty chewing or eating, and irritability or depression

176
Q

What is the etiology of dental disease

A

Gingivitis (reversible), plaque (bacteria release endotoxins), tartar/calculus, destruction of periodontium, periodontitis, tissue becomes necrotic and feeds off bacteria (becomes systemic), loss of periodontium, tooth attachment is lost, bone loss, and tooth falls out

177
Q

What is the crown

A

Portion above the gumline

178
Q

What is the root

A

Portion below the gumline

179
Q

Where is the neck of the tooth

A

Btw the crown and root

180
Q

What is the enamel

A

Hard outer surface above the gum line

181
Q

What is dentin

A

Middle largest part of the tooth and is sensitive to heat/cold

182
Q

What is cementum

A

Outer layer below the gum line

183
Q

What is the pulp

A

Where the tooths blood vessels and nerves are located

184
Q

What is the apex

A

The bottom of the root where the blood vessels and nerves enter the tooth

185
Q

What is furcation

A

The split btw 2 roots

186
Q

What is the alveolar bone

A

Supports tooth w/ the cortical bone making the tooth socket

187
Q

What is the periodontal ligament

A

Surrounds root attaches tooth to the socket

188
Q

What is the periodontium

A

Comprised of the gingiva, periodontal ligament, cementum, and alveolar bone

189
Q

What are endodontics

A

Treatment w/in the tooth such as root canals

190
Q

What are exodontics

A

Procedures outside the tooth

191
Q

What is malocclusion

A

Bad lining of the tooth

192
Q

What is plaque

A

Bacteria/saliva film

193
Q

What is tartar/calculus

A

Hard plaque

194
Q

What is the gingival sulcus

A

Moat of gum

195
Q

What does labial mean

A

Towards lips

196
Q

What does buccal mean

A

Towards gums

197
Q

What does palatal mean

A

Towards the palate of the mouth

198
Q

What is grade 1 periodontal disease

A

Gingivitis is present but can be reversed

199
Q

What is stage 2 of periodontal disease

A

Adv gingivitis/early periodontitis this is when we recommend a dental so we can reverse the damage

200
Q

What is grade 3 periodontal disease

A

Periodontitis occurs, the tooth is mobile, extractions are needed, and possible frucation exposure

201
Q

What is grade 4 periodontal disease

A

Adv periodontitis, gum is nacrotic, frucation is present, and the tooth is absolute mobile

202
Q

What is the dental formula for an adult cat

A

2(I3/3, C1/1, P3/2, M1/1) = 30

203
Q

What is the dental formula for a kitten

A

2d(I3/3, C1/1, P3/2) = 26

204
Q

What is the dental formula for an adult dog

A

2(I3/3, C1/1, P4/4, M2/3) = 42

205
Q

What is the dental formula for a puppy

A

2d(I3/3, C1/1, P3/3) = 28

206
Q

Where do we give nerve blocks

A

Thru the mental and infraorbitial foramens

207
Q

What does COHAT mean

A

Comprehensive Oral Health Assessment and Treatment

208
Q

What is prophylaxis

A

A measure taken for the prevention of disease

209
Q

What are the steps of a prophylaxis

A

Oral examination, measure gingival sulcus depth, subgingival curettage, ultrasonic scaling, polishing, rinse, reprobe, explore, and sealant/flouride

210
Q

What are you looking for during your oral examination

A

This should have an intraoral component where you are looking for at the general health/hydration status, for mucous membrane color, ulcers, gingivitis, tumors, foreign bodies, malocclusions, gum recession, calculus buildup, glossitis, loose/fractured/missing teeth, retained deciduous teeth and an extraoral exam where you are looking for retropulsion of globes, symmetry, wounds, discharge, salivary glands, and lymph nodes

211
Q

How do you measure gingival sulcus depth

A

Use calibrated periodontal probe holding it parallel to the long axis of the tooth while working completely around each tooth normal measurements are 0-3 mm for dogs and 0-1 mm for cats

212
Q

What is the subginigival curettage phase

A

Use the curette subgingivally to remove plaque below the gum line w/o this step bacteria and toxins will continued to get released in the bloodstream

213
Q

What is the most important step of the dental prophylaxis

A

The subgingival curettage step

214
Q

What is the ultrasonic scaling step of a dental prophylaxis

A

Using a modified pen grasp to manually break the hardened tartar this can only be in contact w/ the tooth for 15 seconds to prevent excessive heat and thermal damage, this should only be done supragingivally, and the patients head position is important to prevent aspiration of fluid

215
Q

How do you set up the ultrasonic scaler

A

Turn the power off, get a stream of water, then turn the power on until it looks good

216
Q

What is a hand scale

A

Sharp scalers supragingivally if the ultrasonic machine breaks or if you need to get into small cracks that the ultrasonic scaler cannot reach

217
Q

What is the polishing step

A

Smooths the pits, scratches, and irregular surfaces you made during the dental both sub and supragingivally this makes it harder for bacteria to colonize and adhere to the tooth this can only be on the tooth for 5 secs to prevent thermal damage

218
Q

What is the rinse step of the prophylaxis

A

Rinse the mouth w/ antimicrobial dental rinse to remove excess polish paste and leave a coating on the teeth

219
Q

What is the reprobe step of a dental prophylaxis

A

Sometimes large amounts of tartar is what is keeping the tooth solid after the removal of the plaque/tarter you can uncover a pocket that you couldn’t get to when you probed the first time

220
Q

What is the explore step of the dental prophylaxis

A

Use the emplorer or shepherds hook to very slightly run over each tooth to detect surface abnormalities such as leftover tartar, caries, or feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions (FORL), this should go down the gum line but not fully subgingivally

221
Q

What is the sealant/flouride step of the dental prophylaxis

A

Strengthening the enamel and decreasing tooth sensitivity

222
Q

How often should an owner be brushing their pet’s teeth for it to be affective

223
Q

What is tooth radiology good for identifying

A

tooth/jaw fractures, root abscesses, draining fistulas, bone loss, and enlarged pulp cavity

224
Q

What are elevators used for

A

Separating the periodontal ligament

225
Q

What are kissing lessions

A

Gum biting

226
Q

What are stomotitis

A

When the immune system of a cat attacks its mouth

227
Q

What is supranumeroe

A

Extra teeth

228
Q

What is the term for an overbite

A

brachygnathism

229
Q

What is the term for underbite

A

Prognathism

230
Q

What generates the electrons used for producing x-rays

A

The x-ray tube

231
Q

How are x-rays generated

A

A series of collisions of the elctrons against matter

232
Q

What is the maximum amount of radiation and individual can be exposed to in a year

A

0.05 SV/yr dose

233
Q

What are the 3 most important things to do to increase safety in radiology

A

Decrase time of exposure, increase distance from object, and wear all protective equipment

234
Q

What are butterfly catheters typically used for

A

Single use perivascular injections typically in the cephalic and saphenous veins and are likely to leave hematomas

235
Q

How long are thru the needle central lines

A

6” to 36”

236
Q

How are central lines attached to the patients body

A

Tape or sutures

237
Q

How long can a central line be in the patient

238
Q

How do we think about choosing the method of vascular access

A

Length of treatment expected, overall health of the animal, what veins are accessible, products to be administered through the catheter, and size of vessel

239
Q

What is the general rule for placing catheters

A

The longer the catheter that is in the patient the more stable the catheter is

240
Q

What sized catheter do we use for small puppies, kittens, and ferrets

A

24-22g and 3/4”-1”

241
Q

What sized catheter do we use for small to med adult dogs

A

22-20g and 1”-2”

242
Q

What sized catheter do we use for large adult dogs

A

18g and 1.5”-2”

243
Q

What sized catheter do we use for adult cats

A

22-20g and 1”

244
Q

What do we do once blood is seen in the hub of the catheter

A

Hold the stylet in place and fed the catheter

245
Q

What is the difference btw osmosis and diffusion

A

Osmosis is the movement of water accross a concentration gradient while diffusion is solute particles moving across a concentration gradient

246
Q

What cation has the largest osmotic pull

247
Q

How does fluid move in the body

A

Intravascular, interstitial , and intracellular

248
Q

How can anesthesia affect the body resulting in fluid therapy

A

Hypotension, hypovolemia, metabolic acidosis, and general depressed circulation

249
Q

How can surgery affect the body resulting in fluid therapy

A

Blood loss, drying of tissues, and removal of effusions

250
Q

What are the 3 types of fluid loss

A

Sensible (measurable), insensible (not measurable), and comtemporary (ongoing)

251
Q

What are the signs for slight (4%) dehydration

A

Skin resiliency is pliable, w/ skin turgor the twist will disappear immediately and a tent persists up to 2 ses, eyes are bright and slightly sunken, and the mouth is moist and warm

252
Q

What are the signs for moderate (6-8%) dehydration

A

Skin resiliency is leathery, w/ skin turgor the twist disappears immediately and the tent persists for >3 secs, eyes are duller than normal and obviously sunken, and mouth is sticky to dry and warm

253
Q

What are the signs for severe (10-12%) dehydration

A

Skin resiliency has no pliability, w/ skin turgor the twist and tent persists, the eyes will have a dry cornea and are deeply sunken (2-4mm), and the mouth is dry, cyanotic, and warm to cold

254
Q

What are the 4 steps for calculating fluid rate

A

Fluid deficit, maintenance requirement, ongoing loss, and add them together

255
Q

What percentages of fluid deficit should be given to the patient

A

80% should be given on day 1 and 20% should be given on day 2

256
Q

What is the formula for calculating fluid deficit

A

Body weight (kg) * % dehydration (decimal)

257
Q

What can fluids contain

A

Electrolytes, AA, CHOs, and vitamins

258
Q

What are crystalloid fluids

A

Small particles that move freely in body and vessels examples are isotonic (0.9% NaCl), hypotonic (LRS+2.5% dextrose), and hypertonic (0.45% NaCl)

259
Q

What are colloid fluids

A

Larger particles that stays in the vessel and cant get out helping maintain blood volume examples are blood products, hetastarch, and dextran

260
Q

What are somethings that can occur due to fluid overload

A

Heart disease, renal disease, and pulmonary disease

261
Q

What should be obtained before administration of fluids or medications

A

Pretreatment blood and urine samples

262
Q

What is the most important aspect of any venipuncture technique

A

Proper restraint of the animal and proper distention and immobilization of the vessel

263
Q

Why should the cephalic veins be the last site for collecting diagnostic samples

A

Because it may be needed for IV catheter placement

264
Q

When should the jugular venipuncture should not be used in patients

A

If the patients have sustained head trauma, possible heat stroke, clotting abnormalities, and or snake bites

265
Q

What kind of blood must be used for a blood gas

A

W/ arterial blood

266
Q

What can tissue fluid cause in blood samples

A

They can initiate the clotting cascade

267
Q

What is one of the best ways to asses pulmonary function

A

Thru measurement of arterial blood gases

268
Q

What are the 3 layers of bandages

A

Primary layer that contacts the wound, secondary layer that provides structures and padding, and the tertiary layer holds and protects the other 2

269
Q

What is the scentific name for ear mites

A

Otodectes cynotis

270
Q

What is the academy of veterinary dental technicians comprised of

A

Technicians who have completed a credentials process and passed a specialty examination demonstrating their enhanced knowledge of vet dentistry

271
Q

What are the 4 paired salivary glands in dogs and cats

A

Mandibular, sublingual, zygomatic, and parotid

272
Q

What is the incisive papilla

A

Raised structure located at the midline behind the maxillary incisors in dogs and cats

273
Q

How are probe depths that are greater than normal charted as

274
Q

Why should a dental radiograph machine be inspecteed regularly

A

For leakage

275
Q

What are the common causes of upper respiratory viruses in cats

A

Feline herpesvirus type 1 and feline calicivirus

276
Q

What vaccine can provide some temporary cross protection against canine distemper in young puppies

277
Q

What is the 123 recommendation for biopsy or removal of a post vaccination mass

A

The mas is still growing after 1 month, the mass is greater than 2 cm, and the mass persists for longer than 3 months

278
Q

What is the purpose of a facilitative incision or relief hole

A

Reduces skin tension and friction aginst the catheter it is indicated in severely dehydrated patients and in patients w/ tough skin

279
Q

When should fluids be administered in the jugular vein

A

If the fluid or drug as an osmolality of greater than 600 mOsm/L

280
Q

Why would hypotonic fluids be more ideal for patients w/ heart and kidney disease

A

Because they have a lower tolerance for sodium

281
Q

Why are colloids ideal to use in resuscitation

A

Because of their tendency to remain w/in the vascular space and provide relatively efficient and prolonged volume expansion

282
Q

Why is the IV route preferred for resuscitation, intraoperative fluid therapy, use in anesthetized patients, replacement of significant dehydration, ongoing loses, and in critical patients

A

Because of its ability to rapidly titrate fluid administration

283
Q

What is done when a hospitilized patient obtains a random fever of unknown origin

A

All IV catheters should be removed and replaced in a different vein

284
Q

What will afffect the drip rate when using a drip set

A

Any major change in the position of the patient or the fluid bag

285
Q

When should a SQ route be avoided

A

In patients w/ severe compromise from dehydration, hypotension, or significant electrolyte imbalance

286
Q

What route can be used for dosage calculations that are used fro IV resuscitation and replacement

Vet tech 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions