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Vet tech 1 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 primary functions of the respiratory system

A

Bring O2 from the outside air to the cells of the body and carry CO2 from the cells of the body to the outside air

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2
Q

What is external respiration

A

Occurs at the level of the lungs by taking oxygen from the air inhaled in our lungs and diffusing it into our blood

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3
Q

What is internal respiration

A

Occurs at the level of the tissues when oxygen in our blood is diffused into the tissue via capillaries

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4
Q

What are the secondary functions of the respiratory system

A

Voice production, body temperature regulation, acid-base balance regulation, and sense of smell

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5
Q

What is phonation

A

Voice production begins in the larynx and air passes over the vocal folds

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6
Q

What determines the pitch of the voice

A

The rate the vocal folds vibrate and width at which they open

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7
Q

What can happen to the vestibular fold if brachycephalic airway syndrome

A

The vestibular fold can have swelling

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8
Q

How does the respiratory system assist w/ body temperature regulation

A

Superficial blood vessels in the nasal epithelium warms air as it passes over the pseudostratified columnar epithelium, mucus, and cilia

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9
Q

What is the ideal pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

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10
Q

How does the respiratory system control the amount of CO2 in blood

A

Adjusting volume and rate of breathing

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11
Q

What is pH regulated so carefully

A

Peak metabolism

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12
Q

What is Jacobson’s organ

A

The vomeronasal organ that detects pheromones thru the Flehmen response

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13
Q

Where does the Jacobson’s organ open into

A

The roof of the mouth thru the incisive papilla

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14
Q

What is the URT

A

All structures outside the lungs such as the nostrils, nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

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15
Q

What is the LRT

A

All structures w/in the lungs such as the bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli (these all form the bronchial tree)

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16
Q

What is the medical term for nostrils

A

Nares

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17
Q

What is the nasal passage

A

Everything btw the nares and the pharynx

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18
Q

What is the nasal septum

A

The midline of the nose

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19
Q

What are turbinates

A

Nasal conchae that are scroll like bones covered in epithelium

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20
Q

What are the three main turbinates

A

The dorsal nasal conchae, middle nasal conchae, and the ventral nasal conchae

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21
Q

What anatomic features are located in the nasal passages

A

Lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium, mucus secreted by mucous glands and goblet cells, and cilia that is bent toward the pharynx

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22
Q

What are the functions of the nasal passages

A

To condition inhaled air by warming, humidifying, and filtering it

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23
Q

What happens when cilia in the nasal passages fail to do their job

A

URIs can occur causing excess secretions to build up obstructing air flow and causes coughing/sneezing

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24
Q

What are paranasal sinuses

A

Outpouchings of nasal passages that are named from the bones they are contained in such as the 2 frontal sinuses and 2 maxillary sinuses

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25
Q

How can sinuses be species specific

A

Some species have more sinuses such as the sphenoidal and ethmoidal sinuses

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26
Q

What is sinus trephination

A

Treatment for severe/chronic sinusitis to release the pressure build up and help drainage in the sinuses by creating a hole in the sinuses

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27
Q

What is the pharynx

A

The throat is the common passageway btw the respiratory and digestive systems that is controlled by reflexes

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28
Q

What is the larynx

A

The voice box that has segments of cartilage connected by muscle and is supported by the hyoid apparatus

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29
Q

What are the segments of cartilage in the larynx

A

Epiglottis, arytenoid (2), thyroid, and cricoid

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30
Q

What is the epiglottis

A

The most rostral of the larynx cartilages that covers the larynx opening when swallowing

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31
Q

What are the vocal cords

A

Vocal folds that are attached to arytenoid cartilages, they form the boundaries of the glottis, and have muscles that attach to cartilages to adjust tension

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32
Q

What are vestibular folds

A

False vocal cords in non ruminant species are a second set of CT bands near the vocal cords

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33
Q

What are lateral ventricles

A

Blind pouches btw vocal folds and vestibular folds

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34
Q

What are the functions of the larynx

A

Phonation, prevent inhalation of foreign material, and control air flow to/from the lungs

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35
Q

What are the ways the larynx controls air flow to/from the lungs

A

Coughing and valsalva maneuver

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36
Q

What is the valsalva maneuver

A

Forced expiration against a closed glottis that occurs w/ vomiting or passing stool

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37
Q

What is the trachea

A

The windpipe made of fibrous tissue, smooth muscle, and cartilage rings

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38
Q

What is the trachea’s cartilage rings

A

C shaped cartilage w/ the opening facing dorsally preventing collapse

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39
Q

Why does tracheal collapse occur

A

The pressure of breathing is larger than the cartilage can stand

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40
Q

How does the ANS control the LRT

A

Using smooth muscle to control the diameter of the airways by contracting (bronchoconstriction) or relaxing (bronchodilation) the muscle fibers

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41
Q

What are alveoli

A

Thin walled sacs surrounded by capillaries that is lined w/ fluid containing surfactant and is the site of external respiration

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42
Q

What is the purpose for the alveoli to be lined w/ fluid containing surfactant

A

To lower the surface tension allowing alveoli to stay open when breathing occurs

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43
Q

What is the base of the lungs

A

The concave lower surface that rests on the diaphragm

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44
Q

What is the apex of the lungs

A

The top most round part of the lung that extends into the neck

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45
Q

What is the convex lateral surface of the lungs

A

The costal surface of the lungs

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46
Q

What is the hilus

A

The medial aspect where air, blood, lymph, and nerves enter/leave

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47
Q

Where is the mediastinum

A

Between the lungs

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48
Q

What is the basic pattern of lungs

A

3 lobes in the left (cranial, middle, and caudal) and 4 lobes in the right (cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory)

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49
Q

How are horse’s lung pattern special

A

They are missing the middle lung lobe on both lungs

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50
Q

What binds the thorax

A

Thoracic vertebrae, ribs/intercostal muscles, and sternum

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51
Q

What all is contained in the thorax

A

Lungs, heart, large blood vessels, nerves, trachea, esophagus, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes

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52
Q

What is contained in the mediastinum

A

Heart, trachea, esophagus, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic structures

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53
Q

What is the diaphragm

A

Thin sheet of skeletal muscle that is the caudal boundary of the thorax

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54
Q

What is the function of a diaphragm

A

A respiratory muscle that forms a dome shape when relaxed and flattens when muscle contracts to enlarge the volume

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55
Q

What are the functions of the thorax

A

Negative intrathoracic pressure, inspiration/inhalation, expiration/exhalation, respiratory volumes, exchange of gases in alveoli, partial pressures of gases, and control of breathing

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56
Q

Why is negative intrathoracic pressure critical for breathing

A

When the pressure in the thorax is greater than the atmospheric pressure it allows for a partial vacuum to pull the lungs against the thoracic wall and has a small normal amount of fluid in the pleura allowing the lungs to slide past the interior structures

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57
Q

What are the 2 functions of negative pressure

A

Inspiration/expiration and return of blood to heart

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58
Q

What is a bulla

A

A bister of air in the lungs that can cause a collapse lung if it ruptures

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59
Q

What is a pneumothorax

A

Air in the chest cavity

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60
Q

What is inspiration/inhalation

A

The active process of drawing air into lungs increasing the volume of the chest

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61
Q

What are the inspiratory muscles

A

Diaphragm that flattens opening the chest cavity and external intercostal muscles that help move the ribs cranially and dorsally

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62
Q

What is expiration/exhalation

A

The passive process of pushing air out of the lungs

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63
Q

What are the expiratory muscles

A

Internal intercostal muscles that move ribs back to normal location and abdominal muscles that are used to help exhalation when there is difficulty breathing

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64
Q

What is the tidal volume

A

Volume moved in/out per breath

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65
Q

What is minute volume

A

Volume inspired/expired in 1 min (MV = TV * RR)

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66
Q

What is residual volume

A

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration

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67
Q

What exchange of gases occur in the alveoli during inhalation

A

Exchanges CO2 for O2 because blood always has a higher CO2 concentration in the blood so they run into the alveoli while O2 rush into the blood as the concentration gradient will always be higher in the alveoli

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68
Q

What is the driving force of gas exchange between the alveoli and blood

A

The concentration gradient causes diffusion of gases from areas of high to low concentration

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69
Q

What exchange of gases occurs in the alveoli during expiration

A

CO2 is removed from the alveoli allowing for more O2 to get brought in and reset the concentration gradient

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70
Q

What is Dalton’s law

A

The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures of each individual gas

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71
Q

what is partial pressure

A

The pressure of an individual gas

72
Q

What determines to partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the blood of the capillaries

A

The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the alveolar air

73
Q

What does PO2 mean

A

Partial pressure of oxygen

74
Q

What does PAO2 mean

A

Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli

75
Q

What does PaO2 mean

A

Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

76
Q

What is Bovine High Mountain Disease

A

Typically occurs when calves of 6-8 months old at 3-4 weeks after moving to an area of higher altitudes such as CO, WY, NM

77
Q

What are does BHMD cause

A

Chronic hypoxia, pulmonary artery hypertension, right sided heart failure which presents as SQ edema, ascites, and pleural effusion

78
Q

How is BHMD treated

A

Removing from altitude, thoracocentesis, and diuretics

79
Q

What is the respiratory center

A

The area of the medulla oblongata has individual control centers for inspiration, expiration, and holding breath

80
Q

What are the 2 methods of controlling breathing

A

Mechanical control and chemical control

81
Q

What is mechanical control of breathing

A

Stretch receptors in the lungs produce a normal rhythmic resting breathing pattern

82
Q

How do the mechanical control signals work to control breathing

A

When the lungs inflate a signal is sent to the brain, the respiratory center singals back to cease inspiration, lungs deflate sending another signal to the brain, and the respiratory center signals back to cease expiration

83
Q

What is chemical control of breathing

A

Fine tuning of respiration to maintain equilibrium these receptors are in the carotid and aortic bodies and in brainstem constantly monitor CO2 content, pH, and O2 content

84
Q

What is hypercapnia

A

Excessive CO2 in bloodstream

85
Q

What is hypoxia

A

Decrease oxygen in the tissue

86
Q

What is hypoxemia

A

Decrease oxygenation in the blood

87
Q

What are irritant receptors

A

Receptors that detect thing that irritate the lungs such as mucus and dust that constrict bronchioles

88
Q

What are inflation reflex

A

Baroreceptors that sense the lungs over inflating and sends a signal to the medulla causing a decrease in inspiration

89
Q

What are temporary alterations in normal respiratory pattern

A

Irritants (cough and sneeze), imbalances (yawn and sign), and idiopathic (hiccup)

90
Q

What are laryngospasm

A

Spasming/constricting of the larynx can occur due to smoke inhalation and water inhalation this is intended to be a self protective measure that can lead to respiratory stress if prolonged

91
Q

What is bronchospasm

A

Spasming/constricting of bronchioles

92
Q

What are diagnostics that can be used for respiratory issues

A

Observation, auscultation, radiographs, advance imaging (MRI, CT, bronchoscopy), bronchoalveolar lavage, pulse oximetry, capnograph, and blood gas

93
Q

What is the medical term for high RR and panting

A

Polypnea

94
Q

What is the medical term for high RR and shallow breathing

A

Tachypnea

95
Q

What is the medical term for increased RR and depth of breathing (increased minute ventilation)

A

Hyperpnea

96
Q

What are examples of dyspnea

A

Congestion, stridor, stertor, and grunting on expiration

97
Q

What are auscultation

A

Listing for internal normal sounds and abnormal sounds such as crackles, wheezes, referred upper airway sounds, lack of respiratory sounds, and harsh lung sounds

98
Q

What is bronchoalveolar lavage

A

Placing saline in a bronchiole or bronchi and withdraw the saline allowing us to collect cells/debris from the fluid which can be used for diagnostics

99
Q

What does pulse oximetry tell us

A

The percentage of hemoglobin that is oxygenated in the blood

100
Q

What is a capnography

A

Measures the concentration-time display as a waveform (capnogram) from a CO2 sample

101
Q

What is capnometry

A

Measurement and numeric display of the CO2 concentration w/o waveform measured by a capnometer

102
Q

What are commonly seen respiratory diseases in dogs

A

Pneumonia, canine infectious respiratory disease complex (CIRDC), tracheal collapse, laryngeal paralysis (lar par), brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome (BOAS), chronic bronchitis, neoplasia, and fungal disease

103
Q

What are commonly seen respiratory diseases in cats

A

Asthma, heartworms, lungworms, upper respiratory infection (URI), nasal polyps, neoplasia, or fungl disease

104
Q

What are commonly seen respiratory diseases seen in ruminants and pigs

A

Bovine/porcine respiratory diease complex (BRDC/shipping fever) and verminous pneumonia (pigs)

105
Q

What are commonly seen respiratory diseases in horses

A

Recurrent airway obstruction (heaves), inflammatory airway disease, strangles, laryngeal hemiplegia (roaring), exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage (racehorses), and guttural puch disease

106
Q

What are treatments for respiratory diseases

A

Thoracocentesis, coupage, oxygen supplementation, nebulization, medications, and salvage/emergency procedures such as tracheostomy, lung lobectomy, and tracheal stent

107
Q

What is a hydrothorax

A

Watery secretions in the thorax

108
Q

What is a pyothorax

A

Neutrophils filled fluid in the thorax

109
Q

What is a chylothorax

A

Lymph fluid found in the thorax

110
Q

What are treatments for pneumonia in dogs and cats

A

Nebulization, coupage, antimicrobials, and supportive care

111
Q

What are pulmonary origin indications for supplement oxygen

A

Pulmonary edema (CHF), pulmonary contusion (trauma), and pneumonia

112
Q

What does feline asthma look like in the lungs

A

Air is trapped in the alveoli due to tightened smooth muscle around a bronchiole that could have mucus in it

113
Q

What are treatments to manage feline asthma

A

Glucocorticoids such as fluticasone (inhaled), prednisolone (oral), depo-medrol (subcutaneous) and bronchodilators such as albuterol (inhaled) and terbutaline or theophyline (oral)

114
Q

What is inhalation therapy

A

Aerosolization of glucocorticoids, antibiotics, and bronchodilators to increase the delivery to the airway bypassing the systemic circulation

115
Q

What is expectorants

A

Liquefy and dilute mucoid secretions that indicated w/ a productive cough and may cause drowsiness and vomiting

116
Q

What are mucolytics

A

Decrease viscosity of secretions by breaking down disulfide bonds

117
Q

What are examples of mucolytics

A

N-acetylcysteine and dembrexine for horses

118
Q

What are methemoglobinemia

A

Oxidation of iron in hemoglobin presenting w/ cyanotic MM, lethargy, and dyspnea can be aused by acetominophen or nitrite toxicity

119
Q

What are treatments for methemoglobinemia

A

N-acetylcysteine w/in 2 hrs and riboflavin and methylene blue if over 2 hours

120
Q

What are antitussives

A

Centrally acting agents that suppress cough by depressing cough center in the brain examples are butorphanol (IV), hydrocodone (II), codeine (II,III, or IV), dextromethorphan, and temaril

121
Q

What are bronchodilators

A

Cholinergic blockers that is rarely used examples are antihistamines, beta 2 adrenergic agonists, and methylxanthine derivatives

122
Q

How do antihistamines work

A

They are released from mast cells and bind to H1 receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle

123
Q

What are corticosteroids used for

A

Allergy therapy and anti inflammatory these can cause PU/PD, panting, polyphagia, behavior changes, and GI ulceration

124
Q

What are respiratory stimulants

A

Doxapram that stimulates CNS for respiratory system these are not recommended for resuscitation of neonates because they increase oxygen demand for respiratory muscles and cerebrum decreasing cerebral blood flow

125
Q

What do inhalant anesthetics do

A

Respiratory depressants decreases the RR and tidal volume

126
Q

What are the causes for cell injury

A

Oxygen deprivation (hypoxia or ischemia), physical agents, chemical agents/drugs, infectious agents, immunologic reactions, genetic derangements, and nutritional imbalances

127
Q

What does increased demand do to the cell

A

Causes hypertrophy or hyperplasia

128
Q

What does chronic irritation do to a cell

A

It causes metaplasia

129
Q

What is hypertrophy

A

Increased cell size increasing the organ size this can be due to physiologic or pathologic reasons

130
Q

What is hyperplasia

A

Increased number of cells leading to an increase in organ size this can be physiologic or pathologic

131
Q

What are the causes of hypertrophy

A

Increased workload or hormone induced

132
Q

What are the causes of hyperplasia

A

Medication, hormone, compensatory, and infectious

133
Q

What is atrophy

A

Decreased cell size and number decreasing the size of the organ due to physiologic or pathologic reasons

134
Q

What is metaplasia

A

Stress or chronic irritation that leads to reversible changes often replacing one cell type w/ another

135
Q

What are reversible injuries to a cell

A

Those that are from reduced ATP or cellular swelling

136
Q

What is necrosis

A

Premature death due to pathology that leads to large areas of contiguous cells, cells and organelles swell, lost in control of the intracellular environment, and inflammation

137
Q

What are chemical mediators of inflammation

A

Short lived chemicals such as histamine that may be derived from plasma or cells (mast cells) that act on one or a few target cells, have a widespread of targets, and may have differing effects depending on cell and tissue types

138
Q

What is histamine

A

Produced by primarily mast cells (basophils and platelets) that dilates arterioles and increases permeability of venules

139
Q

What is the release mechanism of histamine

A

Binding of antigen to IgE on mast cells releases histamine containing granules they can also be released by nonimmune mechanisms such as a cold, trauma, or other chemical mediators

140
Q

When does histamine cause a wheal and flare skin reaction

A

W/ type 1 hypersensitivity reactions

141
Q

What is acute inflammation

A

Has a short duration and has 3 major components increased blood flow, edema, and leukocyte migration (neutrophils)

142
Q

What is chronic inflammation

A

Has a longer duration, lymphocytes and or macrophages are predominately present, and fibrosis/angiogenesis occurs

143
Q

What are stimuli for acute inflammation

A

Infections, trauma, physical or chemical agents, foreign bodies, and immune reactions

144
Q

What is the systemic manifestations of acute inflammation

A

Increased production of positive acute phase proteins, decreased production of albumin, increased glucocorticoids, fever, redirected blood flow away from skin, increased HR/BP, and shivering, chills, and malaise

145
Q

What are chronic inflammation macrophages

A

Monocytes that begin to emigrate into tissues early in inflammation where they transform into the larger phagocytic cell known as the macrophage they predominate for 48 hrs and their activation results in secretion of biologically active products

146
Q

What are granulomatous inflammation

A

Distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation that is predominantly activated by macrophages and contain a granuloma (acral lick granuloma) that is the focal area of the inflammation

147
Q

What are the steps of wound healing

A

Injury induces acute inflammation, parenchymal cells regenerate, both parenchymal and connective tissue cells migrate and proliferates, entracellular matrix is produced, parenchyma and connective tissue matrix remodel, and increase in wound strength due to collagen deposition

148
Q

What variables can affect wound healing

A

Infection, nutrition, anti inflammatory meds, mechanical variables, vascular disease, and tissue type

149
Q

What are the 4 definitions of shock

A

Significant compromise to capillary perfusion, inadequate cellular energy production, inability of body cell mass to metabolize nutrients normally, inability of body to supply cells and tissues w/ oxygen, nutrients, remove waste

150
Q

What are the types of shock

A

Hypovolemic (circulatory), cardiogenic, distributive, obstructive, hypoxic, and metabolic

151
Q

What is the most common type of shock

A

Hypovolemic

152
Q

What are causes of hypovolemic shock

A

Hemorrhage (ruptured splenic or hepatic mass, coagulopathy, and trauma), severe dehydration (vomiting & diarrhea), and hypoproteinemia (loss of fluid into body cavities)

153
Q

What is hypovolemic shock

A

hypoperfusion secondary to decreased intravascular volume

154
Q

What are clinical signs of hypovolemic shock

A

Pale MM, prolonged CRT, tachycardia, and poor pulse quality

155
Q

What are treatments for hypovolemic shock

A

Shock dose fluids and blood products

156
Q

What is cardiogenic shock

A

Failure of the heart pump w/ normal to increased intravascular volume and decreased cardiac output

157
Q

What are causes of cardiogenic shock

A

CHF, myocardial disease (HCM & DCM), arrhythmias

158
Q

What are clinical signs of cardiogenic shock

A

Tachypnea, dyspnea, abnormal lung sounds

159
Q

What are treatments for cardiogenic shock

A

Beta agonist for decreased myocardial contractility, diuretic for excessive preload, and nitroprusside for excessive afterload

160
Q

What is distributive shock

A

Relative hypovolemia resulting from maldistribution of blood flow despite adequate blood volume

161
Q

What are causes for distributive shock

A

Sepsis, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and anaphylaxis

162
Q

What are the treatments of distributive shock

A

IV fluid therapy, vasopressors, and inotropic therapy

163
Q

What are clinical signs of early distributive shock

A

Brick red MM, rapid <1s CRT, tachycardia, hyperdynamic femoral pulses, fever, and tachypnea

164
Q

What are clinical signs of late distributive shock

A

Pale MM, tachycardia, poor femoral pulse quality, hypothermia, and hypotension

165
Q

What is obstructive shock

A

Obstruction or maldistribution of blood flow causing decreased preload and decreased cardiac output

166
Q

What are causes of obstructive shock

A

Gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV), cabal syndrome, and pericardial effusion

167
Q

What are treatments for obstructive shock

A

Correct underlying cause and IV fluid therapy

168
Q

What is hypoxic shock

A

Normal tissue perfusion but decreased oxygen content of arterial blood

169
Q

What are the causes of the hypoxic shock

A

Anemia, decreased Hgb saturation, pulmonary disease leading to decreased PaO2

170
Q

What are clinical signs of hypoxic shock

A

Dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, and cyanotic

171
Q

What are treatments of hypoxic shock

A

Oxygen therapy, blood transfusion, and treat underlying diease

172
Q

What is metabolic shock

A

Tissues receive the appropriate perfusion, nutrients, and oxygen delivery but the cells are unable to utilize these fuel sources

173
Q

What are causes of metabolic shock

A

Cyanide toxicity, cytopathic hypoxia of sepsis, and hypoglycemia

174
Q

What are the treatments of metabolic shock

A

Dextrose supplementation and other causes difficult to treat

175
Q

What diagnostics are preformed when we are concerned the patient is in shock

A

Exam, bloodwork, blood pressure, pulse oximetry + venous blood gas, arterial blood gas, lactate, radiographs, and ultrasonography

176
Q

What are overall treatments of shock

A

IV fluids, corticosteroids, antimicrobials, oxygen, bicarbonate, and warmth

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