Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet tech 1 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the functional unit of the nervous unit of the nervous system

A

The neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the parts of the neuron

A

The perikaryon (soma/body), dendrites, axon, and the axon terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of the dendrites

A

The afferent process that receives signals from other neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the axon

A

The efferent process that synapses w/ another neuron or effector cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is synapse

A

The small gap btw 2 neuron cells where electrical or chemical reaction occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the pre synaptic cell

A

The cell prior to the synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the post synaptic cell

A

Cell after the synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are characteristics of neurons

A

High O requirement, only uses glucose for energy, lack repro ability, can regenerate if the cell body is intact, and supported by glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are astrocytes

A

Glial cells that maintain the blood brain barrier, levels of neurotransmitter around synapses, regulates ions, and provides metabolic support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are ependymal cells

A

Glial cells that line spinal cord and ventricles of the brain and produce CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are oligodendrocytes

A

Glial cells that myelinate CNS axons and provide structural framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are microglia

A

Glial cells that form the brains immune cells removing dead cells and pathogens via phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are satellite cells

A

Glial cells that surround neuron cell bodies in ganglia of PNS regulating neurotransmitter levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are schwann cells

A

Glial cells that myelinate neurons in PNS, maintain, and regenerate neurons after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is white brain matter

A

Lots of myelinated fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is grey brain matter

A

Lots of neuron cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are nodes of ranvier

A

Gaps in myeline sheath that is vital for accomplishing action potentials by enhancing conduction of nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are afferent nerve fibers

A

Sensory nerves fibers that send impulses from periphery to CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are efferent nerve fibers

A

Motor nerve fibers that send impulses from CNS to periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are mixed nerves

A

Nerves that have both sensory and motor functions primarily found in PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system

A

Automatic control of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands allowing afferent activity in terms of autonomic sensory function and efferent activity in terms of autonomic motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the somatic nervous system

A

Conscious control of skeletal muscle w/ afferent activities such as somatic sensory function such as muscles, skin, eyes, and ears and efferent w/ somatic motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 3 states of a neuron

A

Resting, depolarization, and repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the resting state

A

The cell membrane working to maintain electrical polarization using the sodium potassium pump and concentration gradients making it more negatively charged inside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is depolarization

A

When an action potential causes a sudden influx of Na where the stimulus occurs causing loss of membrane potential this occurs via passive diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is repolarization

A

When the Na channels shut, K channels open, passive diffusion occurs, the membrane potential shifs back toward the negative polarized state, and the sodium potassium pump takes over placing the K and Na back on the right side of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the depolarization threshold

A

The membrane potential that must be reached in order for an action potential to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an action potential

A

Wave of depolarization down the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the all or nothing principle

A

Neuron completely depolarizes or not at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the refractory period

A

Insensitive to new stimuli and can be absolute or relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the absolute refractory period

A

Period of sodium influx and early potassium outflux keeping the cell cannot respond at all no matter how strong the stimulus is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is relative refractory period

A

A strong stimulus at the end of repolarization may result in a new action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do myelin sheaths cause conduction

A

The myelin sheath prevents sodium from crossing the cell membrane allowing the rapid conduction of the action potential to leap down the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the flow of the synapse down a pre synaptic neuron action potential

A

Axon, telodendron, and synaptic knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens once the action potential hits the synaptic knob

A

Ca influxes, a neurotransmitter releases, they bind to receptors on the post synaptic neuron, and the synaptic transmission occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are excitatory neurotransmitters

A

They open Na channels to depolarize the post-synaptic membrane causing an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Open Cl or K channels that hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane preventing an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is acetylcholine

A

Excitatory by stimulating skeletal and smooth muscle contraction and inhibitory by inhibiting cardiac muscle via parasympathetic nerves slowing HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is epinephrine

A

Excitatory causing the fight or flight response in the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is epinephrine a hormone and neurotransmitter

A

Because it is also produced by the adrenal medulla as adrenaline along w/ the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is norepinephrine

A

Excitatory as it is an arousal fight or flight response in the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is dopamine

A

Excitatory as it stimulates the secretion of GH and inhibitory as it inhibits unnecessary movements and certain hormone secretion from the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What disease is associated w/ a decrease in dopamine neurons

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)

A

Inhibitory as it reduces neuronal excitability such as seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is glycine

A

Inhibitory by reducing neuronal excitability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What stops the acetylcholine signal

A

Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine the products are reabsorbed by synaptic knob are reassembled and wait for next action potential in vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What happens if acetylcholinesterase is inhibited

A

There will be a persistent stimulation of receptors causing salivation, diarrhea, vomiting, dyspnea, miosis, muscle fasciculations, and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is the norepinephrine signal stopped

A

At a slower process than stopping acetylcholine and occurs after the release into synaptic cleft and is reabsorbed by synaptic knob broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) if any is not reabsorbed in the synaptic knob it is broken down by catchol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is contained in the CNS

A

Neuron cell bodies, myelinated, unmyelinated nerve fibers, and glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the parts of the brain

A

Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, brainstem, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, blood brain barrier, and cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the cerebrum

A

The largest part of the brain in domestic animals, area of learning and intelligence, the gyri is separated by fissues and sulci, where sensory info is received and interpreted, voluntary motor control is initiated here, and integration of neuron info such as emotional response, learning, memory, and recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What divides the cerebrum into 2 hemipheres

A

The longitudinal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the function of the corpus callosum in the cerebrum

A

Allows for communication btw the left and right hemipheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does the sulci do

A

Divides the hemispheres into lobes superficially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the different lobes of the brain

A

Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the cerebellum

A

Second largest part, contains grey matter cortex w/ white matter underneath, coordinates movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes, and results in hypermetria if damage/disease which is exaggerated movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the diencephalon

A

Passageway btw cerebrum and brainstem and contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the function of the thalmus

A

Regulates the sensory input to the cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus

A

Nervous system-endocrine system interface w/ temperature control, thirst, hunger, and anger response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the pituitary

A

Master gland of the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the brainstem

A

The connection btw the spinal cord and the rest of the brain, it is the most primitive part for autonomic control of the cardiovascular system, respiration, swallowing, and vomiting, and contains the medulla oblongota, pons, and midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the meninges

A

Connective tissue layers surrounding the brain/spinal cord supplying nutrient, oxygen, and cushioning, the layers are the dura mater, arachnod, and pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is dura mater

A

Tough and fibrous superficial layer of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the arachnoid

A

Delicate spider web looking layer that contains CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the pia mater

A

Thin layer that lies on the brain/spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the cerebrospinal fluid

A

Fluid btw layers of meninges, in canals/ventricles of the brain, and spinal cord that influences autonomic functions

67
Q

What is the blood brain barrier

A

Tightly constructed capillary wall w/ no fenestrations, astrocytes add additional support, and prevents drugs, proteins, and ions from passing from the blood to the brain

68
Q

How many cranial nerves are there

A

12 pairs in the pNS that originate directly from the brain

69
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the cranial nerves

A

On (olfactory) old (optic), Olympus’ (oculomotor) towering (trochlear) tops (trigeminal) a (abducent) friendly (facial) viking (vestibulocochlear) grows (glossopharyngeal) vines (vagus) and (accessory) hops (hypoglossal)

70
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the type of axon each cranial nerve has

A

Some (sensory) say (sensory) marry (motor) money (motor) but (both) my (motor) brother (both) says (sensory) big (both) brains (both) matter (motor) more (motor)

71
Q

What is the function of the olfactory nerve

A

Sense of smell

72
Q

What is the function of the optic nerve

A

Sences of vision

73
Q

What is the spinal cord

A

Caudal continuation of the brainstem outside of the skull conducting sensory and motor info, contains neuron cell bodies and synapses, and nerve roots emerge btw adjacent vertebrae dorsal nerve roots being sensory afferent and ventral nerve roots being motor efferent

74
Q

What does the left hemisphere do signal wise

A

Receives sensory info from the right side of the body and provides motor control to the right side of the body

75
Q

What does the right hemisphere do signal wise

A

Recieves sensory info from the left side of the body and provides motor control to the left side of the body

76
Q

What are the 2 parts of the ANS

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

77
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system

A

The thoracolumbar system that develops the fight or flight response and the body’s way of coping in emergency situations

78
Q

What are is the parasympathetic nervous system

A

The cranial sacral system, that rest and restores the body to bring it back to a resting state replacing the resources used during an emergency

79
Q

What is an efferent motor nerve composed of

A

2 neurons and a ganglion

80
Q

What are preganglionic neuron

A

Cell body in brain or spinal cord that sends a signal

81
Q

What is a ganglion

A

Cluster of neuron cell bodies such as a collection of synapses outside the CNS

82
Q

What is the postganglionic neuron

A

Carries the impulse to the target organ

83
Q

What is the description of sympathetic nervous system motor nerve

A

The postganglionic neuron is much longer than its preganglionic neuron

84
Q

What is the impulse flow of a neuron w/ the sympathetic nervous system

A

The signal exits the thoracolumbar spine and terminates near the spinal cord and may synapse w/ a neuron w/in the ganglion chain or pass thru the ganglionic chain and synapse w/ neuron located beyond the sympthetic chain

85
Q

How many postganglionic neurons are there for one preganglionic neurons in the SNS

A

Multiple

86
Q

Where is the sympathetic ganglion chain

A

Connected by the sympathetic trunk

87
Q

What is the description of parasympathetic nervous system motor neuron

A

The postganglionic neuron is much shorter than its preganglionic neuron

88
Q

What is the impulse flow of a neuron in parasympathetic nervous system

A

Preganglionic neuron originates from the nuclei or from the sacral spine and travels to its target organ

89
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter in the SNS

A

Norepinephrine which is released by adrenergic neurons

90
Q

What are the adrenergic receptors for norepinephrine in the SNS

A

Alpha 1-adrenergic receptors, beta 1-adrenergic receptors, and beta 2 adrenergic receptors

91
Q

What do alpha 1 adrenergic receptors do in the SNS

A

Vasoconstrictions of skin, GIT, and kidney

92
Q

What do beta 1-adrenergic receptors in the SNS

A

Increases HR and force of cardiac contraction

93
Q

What does beta 2-adrenergic receptors do in the SNS

A

Bronchodilation

94
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

95
Q

What type of neurons release acetylcholine

A

Cholinergic in the pre and post ganglions in the parasympathetic and preganglion in sympathetic

96
Q

What are the cholinergic receptors for acetylcholine

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic

97
Q

Where are the nicotinic receptors

A

Found on the postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system btw motor neurons and muscle

98
Q

Where are the muscarinic receptors

A

Found on target organs and tissues supplied by postganglionic neuron of the PNS

99
Q

What are reflexes

A

Rapid autonomic responses to stimuli that protects the body and maintain homeostasis

100
Q

What are the two types of autonomic reflexes

A

Contralateral and ipsilateral

101
Q

What are contralateral reflexes

A

Reflexes on the other half of the body from the stimuli

102
Q

What are ipsilateral

A

Reflexes on the same side of the body from the stimuli

103
Q

What is the reflex arc

A

The sensory receptor detects a change, the sensory receptor fires an action potential along the sensory neuron to gray matter of the spinal cord or brain stem, sensory neuron synapses w/ interneurons, the integrated response of the reflex is sent out from the spinal cord or brainstem by the motor neuron leading to contraction inhibition of muscle or gland

104
Q

What is the stretch reflex

A

Ipsilateral reflex occurs w/ a simple monosynaptic arc the muscle spindle senses a stretch sending an impulse to the sensory neuron of the spinal cord, synapse occurs w/ the motor neuron to the same muscle, contraction of the same muscle occurs inhibiting the opposing muscle, and sends a sensory signal to the brain

105
Q

What does the stretch reflex maintain and prevent in muscles

A

Maintains tension and muscle tone and prevents overstretching

106
Q

What is the withdrawal reflex

A

Ipsilateral reflex of several interneuron synapses that results in muscle contraction/flexion while relaxing opposing muscle this reflex occurs before the brain is aware of the painful stimulus

107
Q

What is crossed extensor reflex

A

A contralateral reflex where sensory neuron synapses w/ interneurons, the flexor muscles in ipsilateral limb contract while opposing muscle groups are inhibited and the extensor muscle in contralateral limb contract so that limb can support your full weight

108
Q

Where is the inhibitory effect on the reflex arc

A

The CNS cranial to the site where the sensory neuron enters the spinal cord/brain stem

109
Q

What is a hyperreflexive

A

Lack of inhibition to reflexes causing them to be more exaggerated than normal

110
Q

What is a hyporeflexive

A

Lack of reflex present

111
Q

What causes a hyperreflexive

A

If an injury occurs in the cranial aspect of the CNS and reflex arcs are intact caudal to the trauma

112
Q

What causes hyporeflexive

A

If injury occurs where the reflex arc enters or leaves the spinal cord

113
Q

What is the palpebral reflex

A

Sensory receptors on skin of the eyes send a signal to cranial nerve 5 in the pons and sends a signal to cranial nerve 7 to stimulate a blink

114
Q

What happens to the interneurons in the pons while under anesthesia

A

They are depressed resulting in a loss of palpebral reflex

115
Q

What is the pupillary light reflex

A

Retina senses the light, a signal to cranial nerve 2 that is transmitted to the optic chiasm then to the diencephalon which sends a response signal to cranial nerve 3 resulting in an ipsilateral pupil constricts in a strong and a weak contralateral pupil constriction

116
Q

What does a neurologic exam include

A

Testing reflexes both for withdrawal and patellar, palpate along the spine looking for signs of pains, movement of neck, cranial nerve exam, and evaluate gait

117
Q

What are the 3 types of ataxia

A

Proprioceptive, cerebellar, and vestibular

118
Q

What is proprioceptive ataxia and what are common tests for it

A

Unawareness of limbs and the space around them this can be identified by listening for shuffling of the dogs feet and placing their foot dorsal side down

119
Q

What is cerebellar ataxia

A

Lack of fine motor control and can be diagnosed w/ a hypermetric gait

120
Q

What is vestibular ataxia

A

Inner ear issue that causes uncordination typically the animal stumbles or tilts its head in the direction of the issue

121
Q

What are diagnostics for neurologic issues

A

PE, neurolocalization via neuro exam, minimum databases such as CBC, chem, and UA, rads of spine or skull, MRI, CT, myelograms, CSF tap/analysis, electromyograph, and electroencephalograph

122
Q

What is the downfall to using a radiograph as a diagnostic for neuro issues

A

The radiograph does not show any soft tissue such as the spinal cord itself

123
Q

What diagnostic shows soft tissue

A

MRI

124
Q

Where do we tap for CSF fluid

A

At the base of the skull or right behind the lumbar vertebrae

125
Q

How do we handle large animals and small animals differently w/ CSF taps

A

Large animals we sedate while small animals are anesthetize

126
Q

What is an electromyograph

A

An EMG asses the electrical activity of the muscle to identify nerve disease

127
Q

What is an electroencephalograph

A

An EEG assess the electrical activity of the brain

128
Q

What is the BAER hearing test

A

The brainstem auditory evoked response test establishes if the animal or not by administering auditory stimuli to watch for a reaction

129
Q

Why do dogs w/ brain tumors have different neurologic symptoms

A

Tumors in different locations will cause different symptoms

130
Q

What is wobblers caused by

A

Compression of the cervical vertebrae typically appears in younger large dogs such as great danes

131
Q

What is intervertebral disc disease

A

When the soft tissue disk becomes compressed by the vertebral bone

132
Q

What part of the nervous system does tetanus affect

A

The PNS

133
Q

What are common symptoms of distemper

A

Twitches in the neck and face, respiratory symptoms, diarrhea, vomiting, teeth abnormalities, and hyperkeratosis

134
Q

What is DAMN IT-V

A

Reasons why different neurological issues occur such as degenerative or developmental, anomalous or autoimmune, metabolic, nutritional or neoplastic, infectious, inflammatory, immune mediated, or idiopathic, trauma or toxic, and vascular

135
Q

What are the 2 categories of IVDD

A

Degenerative or traumatic

136
Q

What is type 1 degenerative IVDD

A

The nucleus pulposus degeneration and extrusion from the surrounding annulus fibrosis

137
Q

What is type 2 degenerative IVDD

A

Annulus fibrosis degenerates and protrudes

138
Q

What is traumatic IVDD

A

Acute non compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion

139
Q

What are the treatments for IVDD

A

Drug therapy w/ anti-inflammatories (NSAID vs corticosteroid), analgesias (NSAID, gaba, and or opioids), muscle relaxers (alprazolam and methocarbamol), and cage rest or surgery

140
Q

What is tick paralysis

A

Rapidly progressive motor paralysis due to a toxin in the tick’s saliva that attacks the nervous system

141
Q

What are symptoms of tick paralysis

A

Presenting 3-9 days after tick attaches the dog may have a loss/change in voice, ataxia, abnormal respirations/rate, gagging, coughing, vomiting, and mydriasis

142
Q

What is the difference btw vomiting and regurgitation

A

Vomiting takes abdominal effort to force food up and out of the stomach while regurgitation is a random blah of food that was likely stuck in the esophagus

143
Q

What is mysthenia gravis

A

A rare autoimmune disorder where Ab form against nicotinic acetylcholine post synaptic receptors at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles and can causes megaesophagus this can be tested w/ a blood test to check for Ab, tensilon test, and fatigue test

144
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibition, immunosuppressant therapy, and a bailey chair

145
Q

What is the process of the rabies virus

A

Enters tissue thru saliva of infected animal, virus replicates in muscle near bite, moves up PNS to CNS, ascends to spinal cord, reaches brain and causes fatel encephalitis, and enters salivary glands and other organs of victim

146
Q

What are the types of seizures

A

Generalized/grand mal, focal, psychomotor, and cluster

147
Q

What is a psychomotor seizure

A

Odd behavior such as chasing tail or appearing to see things that arent there

148
Q

What are cluster seizures

A

A group of seizures w/in a shorter than normal interval clinically defined as 2 or more seizures w/in a 24 hr period

149
Q

What are the stages of seizures

A

Prodromal, aural, ictal, and postictal

150
Q

What is the prodromal phase of a seizure

A

The animal experiences an indication of forthcoming seizure hrs to days before

151
Q

What is the aural phase of a seizure

A

This is the very start of the seizure where behavior changes may be apparent

152
Q

What is the ictal phase of a seizure

A

The seizure itself

153
Q

What is the postictal phase

A

Consists of transient neurological and behaviour changes which lasts from hrs to days

154
Q

What are at home treatment options for seizures

A

Phenobarbital, potassium bromide, levetiracetam (keppra), and zonisamide

155
Q

What is automatisms

A

Repetitive motor activity that resembles movement under voluntary control such as lip smacking, licking, or chewing

156
Q

What is an atonic seizure

A

Sudden loss of muscle tone lasting several seconds or more not following a tonic or myoclonic event

157
Q

What is a generalized seizure

A

Seizures originating from both hemispheres of the brain

158
Q

What is idiopathic epilepsy

A

Epilepsy w/o an identifiable structural cause typically assumed to be genetic

159
Q

What is interictal period

A

The time btw seizures

160
Q

What is myoclonic seizure

A

Sudden brief contractions of a muscle or group of muscles

161
Q

What is the refractory epilepsy

A

Seizures that occur even during treatment w/ therapeutic doses of antiepileptic medication and medication stops being effective

162
Q

What is status epilepticus

A

A serious condition where seizures follow closely on one another w/o a break or where a single seizure lasts more than 5 mins

163
Q

What is a tonic seizure

A

A sustained increase in muscle tone lasting up to several mins

164
Q

What is a tonic clonic seizure

A

A seizure where the tonic phase is followed by shorter clonic movements

Vet tech 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions