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Vet tech 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is total blood volume

A

Peripheral blood plus sequestered blood

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2
Q

What is the function of peripheral blood

A

Accomplishes perfusion of tissues carrying O2, nutrients, and taking away wastes

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3
Q

What are the 2 types of transfusion therapy

A

Replace whole blood or blood components such as packed RBCs, fresh frozen plasma, or platelet rich plasma

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4
Q

What are indications of needing transfusion therapy

A

Rapid blood loss, severe anemia, coagulation factor deficiency, hypoproteinemia, and thrombocytopenia

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5
Q

What are common locations of venipuncture

A

Cephalic, jugular, saphenous, arterial, and ericular

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6
Q

What color tube is used for a CBC

A

Purple top due to the EDTA anticoagulant

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7
Q

What tubes are used for chem panels

A

Red or green tops

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8
Q

What electrolyte is often found in purple tops

A

Potassium (K)

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9
Q

What stains are used for blood smears

A

Polychromatophilic hematology stains specifically Wright’s containing a fixative solution, methylene blue, and eosin

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10
Q

What color tube do we use to hold blood for blood smears

A

Purple tops

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11
Q

What are the cellular components of blood

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs), thrombocytes (platelets), leukocytes (WBCs)

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12
Q

What are the 2 types of WBCs

A

Granular and agranular

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13
Q

What are the granular WBCs

A

Basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils

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14
Q

What are the agranular WBCs

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

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15
Q

What are the functions of blood

A

Transportation of O2, nutrients, waste products, hormones, and platelets, regulation of body temperature, tissue fluid content, blood pH, and ion balance, and defense system using WBCs and platelets

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16
Q

What is hematopoiesis

A

Production of blood cells continuously done in the red bone marrow

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17
Q

Where is red bone marrow found

A

Ribs, skull, sternum, vertebrae, pelvis, and proximal femurs

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18
Q

What are pluripotent stem cells

A

Cells that have the potential to become one of many cells

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19
Q

What is erythropoiesis

A

Production of RBCs made from precursor cells under hormonal influence of erthropoietin released from the kidney in response to decreased O2 levels

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20
Q

What is hypoxia

A

Low O2 in the tissue

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21
Q

What is hypoxemia

A

Low O2 in the blood

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22
Q

What is a polychromasia

A

RBC that has a nucleus

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23
Q

What is thrombopoiesis

A

Production of thrombocytes made from megakaryocytes, takes 7 days, pieces of the megakarocytes cytoplasm are released into peripheral blood forming platelets, occurs in the bone marrow under hormonal influence of thrombopoietin released from the liver based on removal of senescent platelets

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24
Q

What is leukopoiesis

A

Production of WBCs there are 3 types granulopoiesis, lymphopoiesis, and monopoiesis

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25
Q

What do mature RBCs lack

A

Nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes

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26
Q

What is the central zone of pallor in RBCs

A

Where there is no hemoglobin so it appears colorless

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27
Q

Why are RBCs biconcave

A

So the cells are flexible

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28
Q

What do RBCs use for energy

A

Glucose

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29
Q

What is hemoglobin

A

A molecule containing 4 total heme groups and iron in the center is able to carry 4 oxygen molecules

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30
Q

What is oxyhemoglobin

A

Term for hemoglobin when oxygen is bound

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31
Q

What is deoxyhemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin molecule when oxygen unbinds to it

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32
Q

What influences hemoglobins ability to bind to oxygen

A

Blood pH, body temp, and blood levels of oxygen, and CO2

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33
Q

What is the turnover for erythrocytes

A

Constant but low rate turnover 1%/day

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34
Q

What is extravascular hemolysis

A

Macrophages primarily in the spleen (liver and bone marrow) remove RBC’s from circulation, cell membrane ruptured, hemoglobin released, hemoglobin degrades to AA, iron, and heme, the AA return to the liver where new proteins are built, iron is transported to bone marrow for recycling, and heme is further broken down into bilirubin, attaches to albumin and goes to the liver, bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid, conjugated bilirubin is excreted into intestines, bacteria converts it to urobilinogen, some urobilinogen is reabsorbed but most is excreted w/ feces as stercobilin and urine as urobilin

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35
Q

What is intravascular hemolysis

A

RBC membrane ruptures w/in a vessel, hemoglobin released directly into bloodstream, hemoglobin binds to haptoglobin, and macrophages in liver further break it down

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36
Q

Where is excess hemoglobin carried to

A

The kidneys leading to hemoglobunuria

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37
Q

How is the volume of packed RBCs

A

Measured and expressed as a percent of total volume of blood

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38
Q

How is anemia created

A

Can be indicated by any one or a combination of concentrated Hgb (concentration of hemoglobin), RBC (# RBCs/volume blood), and Hct (% of RBCs in blood by volume)

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39
Q

What is the reticulocyte count

A

RETIC is the number of immature forms of the RBCs per a specific total number of RBCs

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40
Q

What is leukocyte count

A

Total number of WBC per volume of blood and is inclusive of all WBC types

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41
Q

What is platelet count

A

PLT is the total number of platelets per volume of blood

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42
Q

What is the total plasma protein

A

TP amount of protein in plasma portion of a specific volume of blood

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43
Q

What is anisocytosis

A

When RBCs are not the same size

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44
Q

What are characteristics of thrombocytes on a blood smear

A

Non nucleated, round to oval in shape, and clear cytoplasm

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45
Q

What are thrombocytes role in hemostasis

A

Plugging holes in the blood stream to prevent blood loss

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46
Q

What can absence in thrombocytes result in

A

Bleeding disorders

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47
Q

What is petechiae

A

Pinpoint hemorrhages on skin/mucosa

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48
Q

What organ produces thrombopoietin

A

The liver

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49
Q

What is coagulation cascade

A

A series of reactions, generates a large quantity of fibrin, and endothelium produces substances for fibrinolysis

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50
Q

What are the steps of coagulation cascade

A

Fibrin attaches on aggregated platelets surface, prevents further escape of blood, and acts as scaffolding for repair of damaged vessel

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51
Q

What is fibrin

A

Makes the blood clot and provides framework for platelets to prevent blood loss

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52
Q

What is the function of leukocytes

A

Defend against foreign invaders via phagocytosis and developing immunity

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53
Q

What are neutrophils

A

An early immune response that forms 40-75% of circulating WBC, in their mature form they are considered polymorphonuclear leukocytes containing 3-5 nuclear segments, and they spend about 10 hrs in the bloodstream then enters tissue

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54
Q

What type of WBC is most prominant in dogs and cats

A

Neutrophils

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55
Q

What are the 2 types of neutrophils

A

Marginal and circulating

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56
Q

What are marginal neutrophils

A

Non circulating that just wait in the blood stream to be told where to go

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57
Q

How often are circulating neutrophils replaced

A

About 2.5x/day

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58
Q

What are bands

A

Partially mature neutrophils that arent segmented

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59
Q

What is chemotaxis

A

Process that attracts neutrophils to inflammatory chemicals at site of infection

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60
Q

What is diapedesis

A

Process usued by neutrophils to go from circulation into tissue spaces

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61
Q

What is the marginal:circulating pool in dogs, cattle, and horses

A

50:50

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62
Q

What is the marginal:circulating pool in cats

A

30:70

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63
Q

What can lead to increasing the amount of circulating neutrophils

A

Stress from trauma, fear, exercise, and splenic contraction

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64
Q

What are opsonins

A

Proteins typically antibodies that bind/coat the microorgansim, guides things to what they are suppose to be eating, and neutrophils can engulf the microorganism

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65
Q

What is opsonization

A

The coating process

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66
Q

How does phagocytosis occur

A

Microorganism stays in the phagosome and cytoplasmic granules in the neutrophil fuse w/ phagosome

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67
Q

What is neutrophilia

A

Increase in neutrophils in the blood

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68
Q

What are the 3 ways something can have neutrophilia

A

More mature neutrophils, left shift indicating more neutrophils that are not mature, and degenerative left shift which is there are more immature neutrophils in the bloodstream

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69
Q

What are the causes of neutrophilia

A

Stress and infection (bacteria, fungal, and protozoal)

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70
Q

What is neutropenia

A

Decrease in neutrophils in the blood

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71
Q

What causes neutropenia

A

Acute infection, sepsis, and viral infection

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72
Q

What are eosinophils

A

Phagocytic cells named for red staining granules, 1-6% of WBC, usually 2 lobed nucleus, last 3-8 hrs in circulation attracted to allergic reactions, and then migrate to tissues

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73
Q

What are the functons of eosinophils

A

Defense against parasitic infection and intracellular bacteria, anti inflammatory effects, and phagocytosis

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74
Q

Eosinophilia

A

Increase in eosinophils in the blood caused by parasites and allergies

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75
Q

What are eosinopenia

A

Decrease in eosinophils in the blood due to stress and steroids such as hyperadrenocorticism aka cushings

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76
Q

What are basophils

A

Blue staining granules, contain histamine and heparin, <1% of WBC, multi lobed nuclei, least phagocytic of granulocytes, and are water soluble

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77
Q

What is basophilia

A

Increase in basophils in the blood caused by parasitic infections and allergies

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78
Q

What is basopenia

A

Decrease in basophils in the blood however this isnt likely

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79
Q

Why is basophilia and basopenia difficult to quantify

A

Because basophilia can be increased and still normal while basopenia may not be present at all and cant go below 0

80
Q

What are lymphocytes

A

Smaller than neutrophils, round or oval nucleus w/ small amount of clear cytoplasm, most live in lymphoid tissue and circulate btw these tissues and blood

81
Q

What is lymphocytosis

A

Increase in lymphocytes in the blood and caused by epinephrine effect, chronic bacterial infection, leukemia, lymphoma, and hypoadrenocorticism (addisions)

82
Q

What is lymphocytopenia/lymphopenia

A

Decrease in lymphocytes in the blood caused by stress leukogram, acute infection (bacterial and viral), and glucocorticoids (hyperadrenocorticism aka cushings)

83
Q

What are the 4 different types of leukocytes

A

T lymphocytes (T cells), B lymphocytes (B cells), plasma cells, and natural killer (NK) cells

84
Q

What are antigens

A

Stimulates the immune system

85
Q

What are antibodies

A

What the body produces based on the antigen

86
Q

What are T cells

A

Majority of lymphocytes in blood, processed in thymus before going to peripheral lymphoid tissue, and cell mediated immunity and activating B cells

87
Q

What are B lymphocytes

A

Travel through lymph nodes, spleen, and other lymphoid tissue, rarely in peripheral blood, and each B cell produces one type of Ab to one specific Ag sense is based on epitope

88
Q

What is humoral immunity

A

Ag binds to a B cell, B cells get excited undergo blastic transformation into plasma cells, the plasma cells live in tissue making immunoglobulin this is the same antibody produced by the B cell but in significantly higher quantity, and all B cells are unaffected

89
Q

What are NK cells

A

Found in blood and lymph and induce apoptosis or lysis of the organism’s cells

90
Q

How are NK cells inhibited

A

A cell w/ inhibitory signs are not killed by the NK cells

91
Q

How are NK cells activated

A

Activating signs trigger the NK cell to kill the cell it is attached to

92
Q

What are memory cells

A

Both T cells and B cells can become memory cells, wait in lymphoid tissue for repeat exposure to Ag this results in faster response and greater magnitude, this is not a lymphocyte, and this is the goal when we vaccinate pets

93
Q

What are monocytes

A

5-6% of circulating WBC, largest WBC in circulation, nuclei can be round to pseudo lobulated, and abundant cytoplasm that strains slightly blue

94
Q

What is the constitute mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)

A

Monocytes + macrophages

95
Q

How does MPS occur

A

When monocytes move into tissues and can live up to 100 days in tissues

96
Q

What is the function of monocytes

A

Clean up cellular debris after infection/inflammation resolves and ingest antigens and present them to lymphocytes

97
Q

What is monocytosis

A

Increase in monocytes in the blood that is caused by stress leukogram and chronic inflammation typically related to infection, immune mediated, and neoplasia

98
Q

What is monocytopenia

A

Decrease in monocytes in the blood typically caused by bone marrow disease

99
Q

What is the first part of the lymphatic system

A

System of ducts and lymph fluid

100
Q

What is the second part of the lymphatic system

A

System of lymphoid organs and tissues such as the lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, tonsils, and gut associated lymph tissue

101
Q

What are the functions of lymphatic system

A

Removal of excess tissue fluid (inadequate drainage leads to edema), waste material transport, filtration of lymph, and protein transport

102
Q

What is lymph formation

A

Starts as excess tissue fluid w/ little reabsorbed by venules which is entirely returned to circulation via lymphatic flow

103
Q

What is lymphatic system circulation

A

Interstitial fluid moves to lymph capillaries, which moves to progressively larger vessels, relies on one way valves and body movements, lymph passes thru at least one lymph node picks up lymphocytes and macrophages remove microorganisms, exits thru the thoracic duct, and empties into vena cava

104
Q

Where is lymph located and whats its qualities

A

Located in the thoracic duct lymph is transparent/translucent and contains varying numbers of lymphocytes

105
Q

What is the difference between plasma and lymph

A

Plasma has more water, sugar, and electrolytes and fewer large proteins

106
Q

What is chyle

A

Lymph from the digestive system

107
Q

What are the primary lymphatic system organs

A

Regulate lymphocyte maturation in developing animals, leukopoiesis occurs in bone marrow, thymus produces T cells, bursa of fabricius produces B cells in birds, and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) produces B cells in rabbits, ruminants, and pigs

108
Q

What are the secondary lymphatic system organs

A

Develop later in fetal development and persist into adulthood, spleen, lymph nodes, and mucosa associated lymphatic tissue such as tonsils (MALT)

109
Q

What cell development occurs in the bone marrow

A

Leukopoiesis which commonly produces myeloid and lymphoid cells

110
Q

What is the thymus

A

Cranial thorax, present in young animals that degrades w/ age, and precursors from the bone marrow develops thymocytes which turn into T cells

111
Q

What are T cells programed to do

A

Fight specific Ag then leave the thymus for secondary lymphoid tissue

112
Q

What is the Bursa of Fabricius

A

Only found in birds above the cloaca where B cells mature

113
Q

What is a peyer’s patches

A

Wall of SI, it is one type of GALT, the structure and function vary amoung species, and activate B cells to produce antibodies

114
Q

Why do tonsils get enlarged

A

In response to antigenic stimulation they trap and process antigens and mature lymphocytes that mediate immune response

115
Q

What are the important parts of lymph node

A

Cortex (B cells, follicular dendritic cells, and subscapular macrophages), paracortex (T cells and dendritic cells), and medulla (macrophages and plasma cell)

116
Q

What is the spleen

A

Tongue shaped organ that is on the left side of abdomen, stores RBCs filters blood/lymph, surrounded by a capsule, and interiorly contains white and red pulp

117
Q

What does the outer capsule of the spleen contain

A

Fibrous CT, smooth muscle, and the trabeculae shoots off the capsule

118
Q

What is the difference between red and white pulp

A

White contains lymphocytes red contains blood vessels, macrophages, and sinuses

119
Q

Where else are MALT located in the body

A

In all mucosal linings

120
Q

What are the differences btw MALT (tonsils) and lymph nodes

A

MALT are found close to moist epithelial surfaces, found at beginning of lymph drainage system and have no capsule

121
Q

What are the immune system components of the skin

A

Resident microorganisms and acidic pH and FAs are found in sweat

122
Q

What is the immune system found in mucous membranes

A

Mucus and cilia in the respiratory tract, stomach acidity, and fluids such as tears, salvia, and urine

123
Q

What is the innate immune system

A

Targets non self, is non specific, 1st line of defense is a physical barriers such as the skin, 2nd line of defense are cellular and chemical coponents such as macrophages and neutrophils, and everyone should have this

124
Q

What is the adaptive immune system

A

Individually developed based on exposure and these are trained to target specific antigens as a 3rd line of defense

125
Q

What is a hemogram

A

A CBC

126
Q

What is a erythrogram

A

Measures/monitors the RBCs in a small portion of blood

127
Q

What is a leukogram

A

Measures/monitors all WBCs in a small portion of the blood

128
Q

Thrombogram

A

Measure/monitor number of platelets in a small portion of the blood

129
Q

What is erythropenia/erythrocytopenia

A

Decrease of RBCs in the blood

130
Q

What is erythrocytosis

A

Increase of RBCs in the blood

131
Q

What is reticulocytosis

A

Increase in reticulocytes/immature RBCs being produced in the red bone marrow

132
Q

What is polychromasia

A

Increase in immature RBCs present in the blood stream

133
Q

What is thrombocytopenia

A

Decrease in platelets in the blood

134
Q

What is thrombocytosis

A

Increase in the amount of platelets in the blood

135
Q

What is leukopenia

A

Decrease in the amount of WBCs in the blood stream

136
Q

What is leukocytosis

A

Increase in the amount of WBCs in the blood stream

137
Q

What is hypoglycemia

A

Low blood sugar

138
Q

What is euglycemia

A

Normal glucose in the blood

139
Q

What is hyperglycemia

A

High blood sugar

140
Q

What is hypercapnia

A

High CO2 levels in the blood

141
Q

What is hypocapnia

A

Low CO2 levels in the blood stream

142
Q

What is hypoproteinemia

A

Low protein in the blood stream

143
Q

What is hyperproteinemia

A

High protein levels in the blood stream

144
Q

What is hemoglobinemia

A

Excess hemoglobin present in the blood plasma

145
Q

What is hemoglobinuria

A

Excess of hemoglobin present in the urine

146
Q

What is coagulopathy

A

A blood condition in which the cloating factor is affected

147
Q

What is lipemia

A

Increase in fats/lipids in the blood stream

148
Q

What are the characteristics of the innate immune system

A

Rapid/non specific, present at birth, destroys “non self” invaders, uses physical, chemical, cellular components, and contains the first and second lines of defense

149
Q

What are the characteristics of the adaptive immune system

A

Slower to respond, not present at birth, specific targets, develops/adapts as animal exposed to Ag, uses Ab, memory cells, plasma cells, B cells, and T cells (all lymphocytes), and is the 3rd line of defense

150
Q

WHat are the anatomical barriers that make up the 1st line of defense

A

Keratinized epithelium, hair/fur, cilia, mucous membranes, and body fluids such as tears, saliva, nasal discharge, and gastric acid

151
Q

What are the components of the second line of defense

A

Inflammation, cells such as phagocytes and NK cells, and chemicals that complement previous methods, cytokines, pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) and pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

152
Q

What is the goal of inflammation in the innate immune system

A

Influences recruitment of more WBC by increasing blood flow to the area and increasing permeability of the vasculature so WBC can go into tissue more easily, releases histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and cytokines

153
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs and loss of function of inflammation

A

Pain, redness, heat, and swelling

154
Q

What does pyrexia mean

A

Fever

155
Q

What does the fever do for the innate immune system

A

It is a systematic inflammatory response that inhibits pathogen growth and accelerates phagocytosis, lymphocyte, and Ab production

156
Q

What occurs w/ an excessively high fever (>104)

A

Proteins denature

157
Q

What cells preform phagocytosis in the innate immune system

A

Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages that respond to receptors to identify non selfs that need to be eliminated using PAMP receptors and complement receptors

158
Q

What are the 5 steps of phagocytosis

A

Activation/chemotaxis, attachment, ingestion/endocytosis, destruction, and exocytosis

159
Q

What is the activation/chemotaxis phase of phagocytosis

A

Attracted by PG, cytokines, complement pr, and bacterial components

160
Q

What is the attachment phase of phagocytosis

A

Receptors recognize non specific molecules on the pathogen cell membrane and bind

161
Q

What is the ingestion phase of phagocytosis

A

Pseudopods engluf the microorganism into the phagosome

162
Q

What is the destruction phase of phagocytosis

A

Lysosome fuses w/ phagosome to become a phagolysosome and digestive enzymes break it down

163
Q

What is the exocytosis of phagocytosis

A

Indigestible material is released from the phagocyte

164
Q

What complements the innate immunity

A

A large group of plasma proteins that are mostly proteolytic enzymes, these are produced by the liver and are floating around in the blood until activated in the presence of Ag or Ag-Ab complex

165
Q

What are the functions of the complement of the innate immune system

A

Trigger inflammation, alter microbial cell membranes, and chemotaxis

166
Q

What is the complement cascade

A

Series of activation of complement that leads to complement fixation, results in Ag cell lysis or apoptosis, the complement proteins attach to the cell wall forming rings, the rings develop pores allowing water to enter the cell, leading to the cell expanding and bursting

167
Q

What do cytokines do for cell immunity

A

Helps the cell move, communicates/signals WBC, inhibition, enhance the immune response, and role in hematopoiesis

168
Q

WHat are examples of cytokines in the innate immune system

A

Autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine

169
Q

What are the types of cytokines

A

Interleukins, interferons, and chemokines

170
Q

What are interleukins

A

Regulate leukocyte growth especially T and B cells

171
Q

What are interferons

A

Proteins produced by the host immune cells in response to infection and cancer and is paracrine

172
Q

What are chemokines

A

Chemical signaling cells that signal where injury has occured

173
Q

What do NK cells do in the innate immune system

A

Natural killer cells in lymph and blood that binds to virus infected, stress, or cancerous cell to preform apoptosis or lysis the cells

174
Q
A
175
Q

What are naive cells

A

B&T cells that havent been taught yet

176
Q

Where do B cells undergo humoral immunity

A

Lymph nodes and spleen

177
Q

How can we distinguish B cells from other cells

A

B cells have huge a golgi apparatus

178
Q

What do B cells fight

A

EC pathogens

179
Q

What type of pathogens do T cells fight

A

Intracellular pathogens

180
Q

What is cell mediated immunity

A

Fights IC pathogens and T cells attach Ag markers on phagocytes that have processed the pathogen uses memory cells, helper cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells

181
Q

What are the 5 types of immunoglobulins

A

IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, and IgD

182
Q

What is IgM

A

Largest immunoglobulins temporary first exposure to Ag and is developed from the mucosa

183
Q

What is IgG

A

Smallest and most common immunoglobulins such as plasma cells, developed from chronic infection, passive immunity to fetus and neonates, and can bind to 2 of the same antigen

184
Q

What is IgA

A

Associated w/ mucosal surfaces

185
Q

What is IgE

A

Binds allergens, triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils, works w/ eosinophils, and protects against parasitic helminth infections

186
Q

What is IgD

A

Also activates mast cells and basophils

187
Q

What are helper cells

A

T cells that secrete cytokines

188
Q

What are cytotoxic cells

A

Aka effector cells, killer cells, and killer T cells they attach to Ag markers on cells and destroy them

189
Q

What are regulatory T cells

A

Inhibit helper and cytotoxic T cells, prevent B cells from becoming plasma cells, and keep things in check

190
Q

What are the factors that affect the likelihood of disease

A

Exposure, mode of infection/transmission, virulence/degree of pathogenicity, immune system strength, and resistance acquired and species

191
Q

What is passive immunity

A

Ab received from an external source such as maternal Ab placenta and colostrum and maternal derived antibody, they provide protection but no activation in the immune system, and Ab eventually clear, leaving no protection immunity

192
Q

What is passive transfer

A

Transfer of antibodies from dam to baby

193
Q

What is failure of passive transfer

A

When passive transfer fails to occur, this is huge in horses, and if this occurs they are more likely to get infection

194
Q

What immunoglobulins are in colostrum

A

IgG, IgA, and IgM

195
Q

What are barriers to antibody protection

A

Environmental, lifestyle, health status, immune system, age, and vaccine history

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