Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 309 > T4: Exercise and Mobility > Flashcards

T4: Exercise and Mobility Flashcards

1
Q

lightweight, easily moveable devices approximately waist high, made of wood or metal

A

canes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient keeps crane on their _____ side

A

strong side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

wooden or metal staff

A

crutches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

crutch pads should be _____ under axilla with the elbow slightly flexed

A

2-3 fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

safest gait

A

three-point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

alternately bearing weight on one or both legs and on the crutches

A

crutch gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

extremely light, moveable devices, approximately waist high and made of mental tubing

A

walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

maximum amount of movement available at a joint in one of the three planes of the body

A

range of motion (ROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into a left and right side

A

sagital plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

passes through the body from side to side and divides it into front and back

A

frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

horizontal line that divides the body into upper and lower portions

A

transvers plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

movements of sagittal pane (5)

A
  • extension and flexion
  • dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
  • extension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

movements of frontal plane (4)

A
  • abduction and adduction

- eversion and inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

movements of transverse plane (4)

A
  • pronation and supination

- internal and external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

type of joint: neck

A

pivotal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

type of joint: shoulder

A

ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

type of joint: elbow

A

hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

type of joint: forearm

A

pivotal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

type of joint: wrist

A

condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

type of joint: fingers

A

condyloid hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

type of joint: thumb

A

saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

type of joint: hip

A

ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

type of joint: knee

A

hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type of joint: ankle

A

hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

type of joint: foot

A

gliding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

type of joint: toes

A

condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

you move a part of your body by using your muscles

A

active range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

you move a part of your body by using your muscles with slight support

A

active assisted ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

part of your body can move when someone or something is creating the movement

A

passive ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

steps of applying antiembolic elastic stockings (4)

A

f- Turn elastic stocking inside out

  • Place patients toes into foot of elastic stocking up the heel
  • Slide remaining portion of stocking over patient’s foot, making sure that toes are covered
  • Slide stocking up over patient’s calf until sock is completely extended
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Most important thing whoever is putting on antiembolic elastic stockings needs to do

A

make sure there are no wrinkles, needs to be pulled tight and completely smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

instructions for patients who are wearing anti embolic elastic stockings (4)

A
  • do not roll stockings down
  • avoid wrinkles
  • avoid crossing legs
  • elevate legs while sitting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

use mechanical lifts and lift teams when:

A

patient is unable to help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

principles of safe transferring (7)

A
  • wide base
  • lower center of gravity
  • maintain equilibrium through base of support
  • face direction of movement
  • divide balanced activity between arms and legs
  • use leverage
  • reduce friction as much as possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous system

A

body mechanics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

reduces strain on musculoskeletal structures, aids in maintaining adequate muscle tone, promotes comfort, and contributes to balance and conservation of energy

A

body alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement

A

friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the greater the __________, the greater the friction

A

surface area of the object that is being moved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

force exerted against the skin while the skin remains stationary and the bony structures move

A

shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

fit closely together and are fixed permitting little if any movement

A

fibrous joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

have little movement, but are elastic and use cartilage to unite separate bony surfaces

A

cartilaginous joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

freely moveable and the most mobile, numerous, and anatomically complex body joint

A

synovial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

body has a negative feedback response when it detects the increased stretch caused by a load

A

stretch reflex

44
Q

mobilizing, causing the body to move

A

isotonic contractions

45
Q

isotonic contractions include _______ & ________ tension

A

concentric tension and eccentric tension

46
Q

increased muscle contraction causes muscle shortening, resulting in movement

A

concentric tension

47
Q

causes muscle lengthening to control the speed and direction of movement

A

eccentric tension

48
Q

stabilizing, causing the body to hold a stable position

A

isometric contraction

49
Q

muscle that directly performs a specific movement

A

prime mover

50
Q

muscle that, directly when contracting, opposes prime mover or agonist; relaxes while prime mover contracts

A

antagonist

51
Q

muscle that contracts at same time as prime mover; Facilitates prime mover actions to produce more effective movement

A

synergists

52
Q

muscles that stabilize joints, act as type of synergist; serves to maintain posture and balance

53
Q

muscle sense that makes us aware of the position of the body and its parts, including body movement, orientation in space, and muscle stretch

A

proprioception

54
Q

prevents external rotation of the hip s when a patient is in a supine position

A

trochanter roll

55
Q

how to create trochanter roll

A
  • Fold cotton bath blanket lengthwise to a width that extends from the greater trochanter of the femur to the lower border of the popliteal space
  • Place under the buttocks and roll it counterclockwise until the thigh is in neutral position or inward rotation
56
Q

triangular device that hangs down from a securely fastened overhead bar that is attached to the bedframe; allows a patient to pull with the upper extremities to raise the trunk off of the bed

A

trapeze bar

57
Q

head of the bed is elevated to 45-60 degrees and the patient’s knees are slightly elevated without pressure to restrict circulation in the lower legs

A

supported fowler position

58
Q

position of rest on their back

A

supine position

59
Q

position when patient lies face or chest down

A

prone position

60
Q

patient rest so the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder

A

side-lying position

61
Q

patient lies on a side with the same hip and lower extremity straight and the opposite hip and knee bent

A

lateral recumbent position

62
Q

recommended for patients at risk for pressure injuries

A

30 degree lateral position

63
Q

exaggeration of anterior convex curve of lumbar spine

64
Q

lordosis cause

A

congenital condition or temporary condition (pregnancy)

65
Q

increased convexity in curvature of thoracic spine

66
Q

kyphosis cause

A

congenital condition; rickets, osteoporosis; tuberculosis of spine

67
Q

lateral S- or C- shaped spinal column with vertebral rotation, unequal heights of hips and shoulders

68
Q

cause of scoliosis

A

sometimes a consequence of numerous congenital idiopathic, and neuromuscular disorders

69
Q

upper extremities flexed at the elbows and held close to the body; lower extremities externally rotated and extended

A

Decorticate posture (hemiplegic posture)

70
Q

increased tone in extensor muscles and trunk muscles, with active tonic neck reflexes

A

Decerebrate posture

71
Q

maintenance of an abnormal posture through muscular contractions may last several seconds to weeks; long term, can cause permanent, fixed contractures

72
Q

stooped, hyperflexed posture with a narrow-based, short-stepped gait; due to loss of natural postural reflexes

A

basal ganglion posture

73
Q

decreased muscle tone with little or no resistance during passive muscle movement

74
Q

loss of muscle tone and joint stiffness

A

muscle atrophy

75
Q

hypotonia ic common with:

A

cerebellar damage

76
Q

Prolonged bed rest is associated with sensorimotor dysfunction that commonly manifests as:

A

postural instability and a dysregulated sense of balance

77
Q

Damage to cerebellum causes problems with _____ and motor impairment is directly related to the amount of destruction of the __________

A
  • balance

- motor strip

78
Q

direct trauma to the musculoskeletal system includes: (5)

A

Bruises, contusions, tears, sprains, and fractures

79
Q

is one of the most common causes of chronic disability in adults due to pain and altered joint function

A

osteoarthritis

80
Q

Arthritis is expected to increase _____ by year 2040

81
Q

osteoarthritis typically effects

A

knees and hips

82
Q

chronic, systemic, inflammatory autoimmune disease

A

rheumatoid arthritis

83
Q

pathological reduction in the normal size of muscle fibers after prolonged inactivity resulting from bed rest, trauma, casting or a body part, or local nerve damage

A

disuse atrophy

84
Q

metabolic changes due to immobility (4)

A
  • Endocrine metabolism
  • calcium resorption
  • functioning of the gastrointestinal system
  • negative nitrogen balance
85
Q

the body excreting more nitrogen that it ingests in proteins

A

negative nitrogen balance

86
Q

respiratory changes due to immobility (2)

A

atelectasis and hypostatic pneumonia

87
Q

collapse of alveoli

A

atelectasis

88
Q

inflammation of the lung from stasis or pooling of secretions

A

hypostatic pneumonia

89
Q

cardiovascular changes due to immobility (2)

A
  • orthostatic hypotension

- thrombus

90
Q

drop in systolic pressure by at least 20mmHg or a drop in diastolic pressure by at least 10mmHg within 3 minutes of rising to an upright position

A

orthostatic hypertension

91
Q

symptoms of orthostatic hypertension (6)

A

Dizziness, light-headedness, nauseas, tachycardia, pallor, or fainting when changing from the supine to standing position

92
Q

accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and the cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, which sometimes occludes the lumen of the vessel

93
Q

3 factors that contribute to thrombus is known as

A

virchow triad

94
Q

virchow triad includes:

A
  • damage to the vessel wall
  • alterations of blood flow
  • alterations in blood constituents
95
Q

bone tissue is less dense or atrophied

A

disuse osteoporosis

96
Q

abnormal and possibly permanent condition characterized by fixation of a joint

A

joint contracture

97
Q

common type of joint contracture

98
Q

foot is permanently fixed in plantar flexion

99
Q

musculoskeletal changes due to immobility (2)

A
  • disuse osteoporosis

- joint contracture

100
Q

urinary elimination changes due to immobility (2)

A
  • urinary stasis

- renal calculi

101
Q

renal pelvis fills before urine enters the ureters

A

urinary stasis

102
Q

calcium stones that lodge in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters

A

renal calculi

103
Q

integumentary change due to immobility

A

pressure injury

104
Q

localized damage to the skin and underlying soft tissue, usually over a bony prominence or related to a medical device or other device

A

pressure injury

105
Q

physiological effects of immobility

A
  • social isolation
  • loneliness
  • depression
106
Q

major musculoskeletal changes expected during assessment of a patient who is immobilized (3)

A
  • decreased muscle strength
  • loss of muscle tone and mass
  • contractures

NURS 309 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions