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NURS 309 > CH41 Oxygenation > Flashcards

CH41 Oxygenation Flashcards

(79 cards)

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1
Q

purpose of incentive spirometer (inspirex)

A

encourages voluntary deep breathing

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2
Q

use of incentive inspirex

A
  • inhale
  • 5-10 breaths per session
  • session every hour while awake
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3
Q

T/F: chest tube drainage system must remain above patients chest

A

false; remain below patients chest

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4
Q

T/F: chest tube must be secured to the chest wall

A

True

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5
Q

watch for _____ in water-seal chamber (3)

A
  • slow, steady bibbling
  • water is filled at prescribed level
  • fluctuation of fluid level
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6
Q

T/F: vigorous bubbling is normal in water-seal chamber

A

False; vigorous bubbling indicates a leak or pneumothorax

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7
Q

Patient on chest tube should be in _____ position

A

semi-fowlers or higher

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8
Q

routinely evaluate ______ for patients with chest tube (3)

A
  • respiratory rate
  • SpO2 levels
  • insertion site
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9
Q

patients need to be medicated at least _____ minutes before removal

A

30 minutes

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10
Q

Educate patients on what it may feel like for removal of chest tube _______ (3)

A
  • burning
  • pain
  • pulling sensation
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11
Q

Monitor _______ after tube removal (2)

A
  • dressing placed over insertion site

- respiratory status

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12
Q

if tube is unexpectedly removed (connection on patient, insertion site)

A

cover insertion site with gauze and tape 3 sides

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13
Q

if tube is unexpectedly removed (drainage machine connection site, damaged tube)

A

place tube 1 inch into sterile water to maintain negative pressure

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14
Q

Cardiopulmonary diagnostic BLOOD studies (5)

A
  • CBC
  • Cardiac enzymes
  • Cardiac troponin
  • serum electrolytes
  • cholesterol
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15
Q

determines the number of type of red and white blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood

A

Complete blood count (CBC)

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16
Q

_________ count assess for presence of infection

A

White blood cell

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17
Q

_______ blood count and ______ assess for presence of anemia and ability fo the blood to carry oxygen

A

Red blood cell and hemoglobin

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18
Q

________ used with troponin to diagnose acute myocardial infarcts

A

cardiac enzymes

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19
Q

values elevates as early as 3 hours after myocardial injury

A

cardiac troponins

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20
Q

cardiac troponins remain elevated for ______ days after MI

A

10-14

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21
Q

patients on diuretic therapy are at risk for ______

A

hypokalemia

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22
Q

low potassium

A

hypokalemia

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23
Q

patients receiving ACE inhibitors are at risk for ____________

A

hyperkalemia

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24
Q

high potassium

A

hyperkalemia

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25
__________ has an effect on cardiac rhythm
potassium
26
T/F: potassium values do not have parameters
False; want to be as close to normal as possible
27
contributing factors of cholesterol
- sedentary lifestyle | - intake of saturated fatty acids
28
Bad cholesterol
LDLs
29
good cholesterol
HDLs
30
high ______ indicate risk of cardiac disease
LDLs
31
Cardiac function DIAGNOSTIC tests (7)
- Holter monitor - ECG exercise stress test - Thallium stress test - Electrophysiological study (EPS) - Transthoracic echocardiography - Scintigraphy/ radionuclide angiography - cardiac catheterization and angiography
32
portable ECG worn by patient at home; continuous ECG
Holter monitor
33
patient walks on a treadmill; evaluates cardiac response to physical stress
ECG exercise stress test
34
ECG stress test with the addition of thallium-201
Thallium stress test
35
determines coronary blood flow changes with increased activity
Thallium stress test
36
invasive measure of intracardiac electrical pathways
electrophysiological study (EPS)
37
provides specific information about difficult to read dysrhythmias
electrophysiological study (EPS)
38
noninvasive measure of heart structure and heart wall motion
transthoracic echocardiography
39
used to evaluate cardiac structure, myocardial perfusion, and contractility
scintigraphy/ radionuclide angiography
40
used to visualize cardiac chambers, valves, the great vessels, and coronary arteries
cardiac catheterization and angiography
41
ventilation and oxygenation DIAGNOSTIC studies (6)
- arterial blood gasses - pulmonary function test - peak expiratory flow rate - bronchoscopy - lunch scan - thoracentesis
42
provides important information for assessment of patient's respiratory and metabolic acid/base balance and adequacy of oxygenation
arterial blood gasses
43
what is measured in arterial blood gas test (5)
- pH - PCO2 - HCO3 - PO2 - SaO2
44
normal pH
7.35-7.45
45
normal PCO2
35-45 mm Hg
46
normal HCO3
21-28 mEq/L
47
normal PO2
80-100 mm Hg
48
normal SaO2
95-100%
49
normal SaO2 in older adults
95%
50
determines ability of the lungs to efficiently exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide
pulmonary function test
51
test to differentiate pulmonary obstructive from restrictive disease
pulmonary function test
52
reflects changes in large airway sizes
peak expiratory flow rate
53
test used for asthma
peak expiratory flow rate
54
visual examination of the tracheobronchial tree
bronchoscopy
55
test performed to obtain fluid, sputum, or biopsy samples
bronchoscopy
56
used to identify abnormal masses by size and location
lung scan
57
specimen of pleural fluid by needle withdrawl- results may indicate an infection
thoracentesis
58
specimen tests (3)
- sputum culture and sensitivty - sputum for acid-fast baccilus - sputum for cytology
59
obtained to identify a specific microorganism/ identify drug resistance and sensitivities
sputum culture and sensitivity
60
screens for presence of AFB for detection of tuberculosis
sputum for acid-fast bacillus
61
obtained to identify lung cancer
sputum for cytology
62
Rules for suctioning (3)
- only suction on the way out - suction for 10-15 seconds at a time - do not suction longer than a total of 5 minutes
63
inadequate tissue oxygenatin at the cellular level
hypoxia
64
hypoxia results from
deficiency in oxygen delivery or oxygen use
65
early signs of hypoxia (10)
-apprehension -restlessness -inability to concentrate -decreased level of consciousness -dizziness -behavioral changes -inability to lie flat -fatigued and agitated -increased pulse (tachycardia) increased rate/depth of resps -elevated BP
66
Late signs of hypoxia (2)
cyanosis | respiratory rate decline
67
Nasal cannula delivers:
1-6L/min with 24-44% oxygen
68
pros of nasal cannula (5)
- safe and simple - easily tolerated - effective for low concetrations - does not impede eating or talking - inexpensive, disposable
69
Oxygen-conserving cannula (oxymizer) delivers:
8L/min with 30-50% oxygen
70
pros of oxymizer: (2)
- indicated for long-term O2 use at home | - allows for increased O2 concentration and lower flow
71
Face mask delivers:
6-12 L/min with 35-50% oxygen
72
Pros of face mask (1)
useful for short periods such as patient transporation
73
partial/nonrebreather masks deliver:
10-15 L/min with 60-90% oxygen
74
Pros of partial/nonrebreather masks (4)
- useful for short periods - delivers increased FiO2 - easily humidifies - does not dry mucous membranes
75
High-flow nasal cannula delivers
-up to 60L/min
76
pros of high-flow nasal cannula (3)
- adjustable- FiO2 with modifiable flow - wide range of FiO2 - can use on adults, children, and infants
77
CPAP and BiPap delivers:
21-100% oxygen
78
pros of CPapa and BiPap (2)
- avoids use of an artificial airway in pts with acute respiratory distress, post-extubation respiratory failure, or neuromuscular disorders - successfully treats obstructive sleep apnea
79
Difference between CPap and BiPap
CPap: maintains a steady stream of pressure throughout a patient's breathing cycle BiPap: provides assistance during inspiration and preventing alveolar closure during expiration

NURS 309 (10 decks)

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