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NURS 309 > CH41 Oxygenation > Flashcards

CH41 Oxygenation Flashcards

1
Q

purpose of incentive spirometer (inspirex)

A

encourages voluntary deep breathing

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2
Q

use of incentive inspirex

A
  • inhale
  • 5-10 breaths per session
  • session every hour while awake
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3
Q

T/F: chest tube drainage system must remain above patients chest

A

false; remain below patients chest

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4
Q

T/F: chest tube must be secured to the chest wall

A

True

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5
Q

watch for _____ in water-seal chamber (3)

A
  • slow, steady bibbling
  • water is filled at prescribed level
  • fluctuation of fluid level
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6
Q

T/F: vigorous bubbling is normal in water-seal chamber

A

False; vigorous bubbling indicates a leak or pneumothorax

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7
Q

Patient on chest tube should be in _____ position

A

semi-fowlers or higher

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8
Q

routinely evaluate ______ for patients with chest tube (3)

A
  • respiratory rate
  • SpO2 levels
  • insertion site
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9
Q

patients need to be medicated at least _____ minutes before removal

A

30 minutes

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10
Q

Educate patients on what it may feel like for removal of chest tube _______ (3)

A
  • burning
  • pain
  • pulling sensation
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11
Q

Monitor _______ after tube removal (2)

A
  • dressing placed over insertion site

- respiratory status

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12
Q

if tube is unexpectedly removed (connection on patient, insertion site)

A

cover insertion site with gauze and tape 3 sides

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13
Q

if tube is unexpectedly removed (drainage machine connection site, damaged tube)

A

place tube 1 inch into sterile water to maintain negative pressure

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14
Q

Cardiopulmonary diagnostic BLOOD studies (5)

A
  • CBC
  • Cardiac enzymes
  • Cardiac troponin
  • serum electrolytes
  • cholesterol
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15
Q

determines the number of type of red and white blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood

A

Complete blood count (CBC)

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16
Q

_________ count assess for presence of infection

A

White blood cell

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17
Q

_______ blood count and ______ assess for presence of anemia and ability fo the blood to carry oxygen

A

Red blood cell and hemoglobin

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18
Q

________ used with troponin to diagnose acute myocardial infarcts

A

cardiac enzymes

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19
Q

values elevates as early as 3 hours after myocardial injury

A

cardiac troponins

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20
Q

cardiac troponins remain elevated for ______ days after MI

A

10-14

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21
Q

patients on diuretic therapy are at risk for ______

A

hypokalemia

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22
Q

low potassium

A

hypokalemia

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23
Q

patients receiving ACE inhibitors are at risk for ____________

A

hyperkalemia

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24
Q

high potassium

A

hyperkalemia

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25
Q

__________ has an effect on cardiac rhythm

A

potassium

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26
Q

T/F: potassium values do not have parameters

A

False; want to be as close to normal as possible

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27
Q

contributing factors of cholesterol

A
  • sedentary lifestyle

- intake of saturated fatty acids

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28
Q

Bad cholesterol

A

LDLs

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29
Q

good cholesterol

A

HDLs

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30
Q

high ______ indicate risk of cardiac disease

A

LDLs

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31
Q

Cardiac function DIAGNOSTIC tests (7)

A
  • Holter monitor
  • ECG exercise stress test
  • Thallium stress test
  • Electrophysiological study (EPS)
  • Transthoracic echocardiography
  • Scintigraphy/ radionuclide angiography
  • cardiac catheterization and angiography
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32
Q

portable ECG worn by patient at home; continuous ECG

A

Holter monitor

33
Q

patient walks on a treadmill; evaluates cardiac response to physical stress

A

ECG exercise stress test

34
Q

ECG stress test with the addition of thallium-201

A

Thallium stress test

35
Q

determines coronary blood flow changes with increased activity

A

Thallium stress test

36
Q

invasive measure of intracardiac electrical pathways

A

electrophysiological study (EPS)

37
Q

provides specific information about difficult to read dysrhythmias

A

electrophysiological study (EPS)

38
Q

noninvasive measure of heart structure and heart wall motion

A

transthoracic echocardiography

39
Q

used to evaluate cardiac structure, myocardial perfusion, and contractility

A

scintigraphy/ radionuclide angiography

40
Q

used to visualize cardiac chambers, valves, the great vessels, and coronary arteries

A

cardiac catheterization and angiography

41
Q

ventilation and oxygenation DIAGNOSTIC studies (6)

A
  • arterial blood gasses
  • pulmonary function test
  • peak expiratory flow rate
  • bronchoscopy
  • lunch scan
  • thoracentesis
42
Q

provides important information for assessment of patient’s respiratory and metabolic acid/base balance and adequacy of oxygenation

A

arterial blood gasses

43
Q

what is measured in arterial blood gas test (5)

A
  • pH
  • PCO2
  • HCO3
  • PO2
  • SaO2
44
Q

normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

45
Q

normal PCO2

A

35-45 mm Hg

46
Q

normal HCO3

A

21-28 mEq/L

47
Q

normal PO2

A

80-100 mm Hg

48
Q

normal SaO2

A

95-100%

49
Q

normal SaO2 in older adults

A

95%

50
Q

determines ability of the lungs to efficiently exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

pulmonary function test

51
Q

test to differentiate pulmonary obstructive from restrictive disease

A

pulmonary function test

52
Q

reflects changes in large airway sizes

A

peak expiratory flow rate

53
Q

test used for asthma

A

peak expiratory flow rate

54
Q

visual examination of the tracheobronchial tree

A

bronchoscopy

55
Q

test performed to obtain fluid, sputum, or biopsy samples

A

bronchoscopy

56
Q

used to identify abnormal masses by size and location

A

lung scan

57
Q

specimen of pleural fluid by needle withdrawl- results may indicate an infection

A

thoracentesis

58
Q

specimen tests (3)

A
  • sputum culture and sensitivty
  • sputum for acid-fast baccilus
  • sputum for cytology
59
Q

obtained to identify a specific microorganism/ identify drug resistance and sensitivities

A

sputum culture and sensitivity

60
Q

screens for presence of AFB for detection of tuberculosis

A

sputum for acid-fast bacillus

61
Q

obtained to identify lung cancer

A

sputum for cytology

62
Q

Rules for suctioning (3)

A
  • only suction on the way out
  • suction for 10-15 seconds at a time
  • do not suction longer than a total of 5 minutes
63
Q

inadequate tissue oxygenatin at the cellular level

A

hypoxia

64
Q

hypoxia results from

A

deficiency in oxygen delivery or oxygen use

65
Q

early signs of hypoxia (10)

A

-apprehension
-restlessness
-inability to concentrate
-decreased level of consciousness
-dizziness
-behavioral changes
-inability to lie flat
-fatigued and agitated
-increased pulse (tachycardia)
increased rate/depth of resps
-elevated BP

66
Q

Late signs of hypoxia (2)

A

cyanosis

respiratory rate decline

67
Q

Nasal cannula delivers:

A

1-6L/min with 24-44% oxygen

68
Q

pros of nasal cannula (5)

A
  • safe and simple
  • easily tolerated
  • effective for low concetrations
  • does not impede eating or talking
  • inexpensive, disposable
69
Q

Oxygen-conserving cannula (oxymizer) delivers:

A

8L/min with 30-50% oxygen

70
Q

pros of oxymizer: (2)

A
  • indicated for long-term O2 use at home

- allows for increased O2 concentration and lower flow

71
Q

Face mask delivers:

A

6-12 L/min with 35-50% oxygen

72
Q

Pros of face mask (1)

A

useful for short periods such as patient transporation

73
Q

partial/nonrebreather masks deliver:

A

10-15 L/min with 60-90% oxygen

74
Q

Pros of partial/nonrebreather masks (4)

A
  • useful for short periods
  • delivers increased FiO2
  • easily humidifies
  • does not dry mucous membranes
75
Q

High-flow nasal cannula delivers

A

-up to 60L/min

76
Q

pros of high-flow nasal cannula (3)

A
  • adjustable- FiO2 with modifiable flow
  • wide range of FiO2
  • can use on adults, children, and infants
77
Q

CPAP and BiPap delivers:

A

21-100% oxygen

78
Q

pros of CPapa and BiPap (2)

A
  • avoids use of an artificial airway in pts with acute respiratory distress, post-extubation respiratory failure, or neuromuscular disorders
  • successfully treats obstructive sleep apnea
79
Q

Difference between CPap and BiPap

A

CPap: maintains a steady stream of pressure throughout a patient’s breathing cycle
BiPap: provides assistance during inspiration and preventing alveolar closure during expiration

NURS 309 (10 decks)

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