Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmaceutics > T1 - Exam 1 > Flashcards

T1 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Route in mouth (swallowed)

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Route under the tongue

A

Sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Route between the cheek and gums

A

Buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Route in rectum

A

Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Route in vagina

A

Vaginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Route in nasal cavity

A

Intranasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Route in mouth (inhaled)

A

Pulmonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Route on eye surface

A

Ophthalmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 routes on epidermal surface

A

Topical and Transdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Route in veins

A

Intravenous injection or infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Route in striated muscles

A

Intramuscular injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Route in subcutaneous fat

A

Subcutaneous injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Route in peritoneal cavity

A

Intraperitoneal infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Route in spinal cord

A

Intrathecal injection or infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Route outside of the dura mater of the spinal cord

A

Epidural injection or infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Route in synovial space of joints

A

Intrasynovial injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Route in bone marrow

A

Intraosseous injection or infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Route in vitreous humor of the eyeball

A

Intravitreal injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two common sites for measuring drug amount and concentration?

A

Plasma and urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative measurements?

A

Qualitative is personal accounts and description, quanitative is numerical data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give an example of quantitative measurements

A

Blood pressure and cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give an example of qualitative measurements

A

Subjective in regards to mesure of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define bioavailability

A

The proportion of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define clearance

A

The volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is half-life?

A

The time required for plasma concentration of drug to decrease by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is volume of distribution?

A

An indicator of how well a drug is distributed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the components of LADME

A
  1. Liberation: release of the drug from its dosage form
  2. Absorption: into the bloodstream
  3. Distribution: to various parts of the body
  4. Metabolism: by enzymes
    5: Excretion: through the kidneys or other routes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can be found on a USP/NF?

A

The standards of drugs including: strength, purity, quality, packaging, and labeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Schedule I drug?

A

Drugs with no accepted medical use or other substances with high potential for abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Examples of Schedule I drugs

A

LSD, Marijuana, Mescaline, Peyote, Methaqualone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a Schedule II drug?

A

Drugs with accepted medical use with high potential for abuse that may lead to severe psychologic or physical dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Examples of Schedule II drugs

A

Morphine, Cocaine, Methamphetamine, Amobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a Schedule III drug?

A

Drugs with accepted medical use with a potential for abuse that may lead to severe psychologic or physical dependence if abused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Examples of Schedule III drugs

A

Codeine, butalbital, testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a Schedule IV drug?

A

Drugs with accepted medical use with low potential for abuse that may lead to limited psychologic or physical dependence if abused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Examples of Schedule IV drugs

A

Difenoxin, Diazepam, Oxazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a Schedule V drug?

A

Drugs with accepted medical use with low potential for abuse that may lead to limited psychologic or physical dependence relative to schedule IV drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Examples of Schedule V drugs

A

Dihydrocodeine, diphenoxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the components of an NDC number?

A

1st segment: Drug’s manufacturer
2nd segment: Product
3rd segment: Packaging (size and quantity)

40
Q

What is the FDA’s stance on dietary supplements?

A

Acts 1994 and 2006, Congress addressed the regulation of supplements. The product is not intended for curing or treat any diseases. Supplements are manufactured according to quality standards and must be submitted to the FDA.

41
Q

What are the three classes of drug recalls?

A

Class I: Drug will cause serious adverse health consequences
Class II: Drugs may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences
Class III: Drug will not likely cause adverse heath consequences

42
Q

What act reduced the risks of tampered and mislabeled drugs from secondary sources?

A

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 and Prescription Drug Amendments of 1992

43
Q

What act established refills on prescriptions and created ‘Rx Only” or legend drugs and OTC products?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

44
Q

What act created an Investigational New Drug Application that must be approved before NDA can start?

A

Kefauver Harris Amendments of 1962

45
Q

What act allowed drugs intended for the treatment of rare diseases and conditions may be designated orphan drugs to help promote research on rare diseases?

A

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

46
Q

What are the FDA’s characteristics of a new drug?

A
  1. Combination products
  2. New dosage form
  3. New indication, route of administration or dosage schedule
  4. A change to the formulation of an existing dosage form
47
Q

Explain what an IND is

A

Investigational New Drug Application: where drug is to be submitted to the FDA before human trials. Company must wait 30 days to be approved for trials. FDA clinically hold on studies if it has concerns. The preliminary process.

48
Q

Explain what an NDA is

A

New Drug Application: the drug successfully demonstrate is sufficiently safe and statement of proposal shifts to the marketing of the product.

49
Q

Explain what a SNDA is

A

Supplemental New Drug Application: an application to change a drug or formulation. The new drug must add or strengthen its predecessor.

50
Q

Explain what an ANDA is

A

Abbreviated NDA: Omits clinical investigations and lab studies of drug products previously approved by the FDA except for those pertaining to the drug’s bioavailability.

51
Q

What is a Treatment IND?

A

Permits the use of an investigational drug in the treatment of patients who are enrolled in clinical trials but who have life-threatening conditions for which there is no satisfactory alternative therapy

52
Q

What is an orphan drug?

A

A treatment IND that the FDA provides grants to support and given to a patient to extend life

53
Q

What are the elements for drug labeling?

A
  1. Precautions
  2. Adverse reactions
  3. Drug abuse and dependence
  4. Overdosage
  5. Dosage and administration
  6. How it’s supplied
54
Q

Describe phase 0 of clinical trials

A

Phase 0: less than 15 patients are microdosed and screen within 7 days exposure

55
Q

Describe phase 1 of clinical trials

A

20-100 patients are tested for up to 1 year. Purpose is for safety. 70% success

56
Q

Describe phase 2 of clinical trials

A

100-500 patients tested between several months - 2 years. Purpose is for short-term safety and effectiveness. 35% success

57
Q

Describe phase 3 of clinical trials

A

1000-5000 patients tested for 1-4 years. Purpose is for safety, effectiveness and dosage. 25-30% success

58
Q

Describe phase 4 of clinical trials

A

Evaluates mechanism or scope of action indicating possible new therapeutic uses for the drug. This will finalize additional dosage, strength, dosage forms, and routes of administration. Reveals additional side effects and drug interactions.

59
Q

What is the difference between intramolecular and intermolecular forcers?

A

Intra: within a molecule
Inter: between molecules

60
Q

What is the difference between cohesive and adhesive?

A

Cohesive: between like/same molecules
Adhesive: between different molecules

61
Q

Explain the potential energy diagram

A

Molecules at a sufficient distance between one another and have no potential energy (PE) linkage will be 0. As the get closer, PE with drop as attraction grows. When they are tightly pressed, PE spikes causing a repulsive attraction. Repulsive and attraction forces can equilibrate reaching the collision diameter.

62
Q

How are van der Waal forces formed?

A

By weak forces called a dipole that involve the dispersion of charge across a molecule (partially + and -)

63
Q

How are hydrogen bonds formed?

A

An interaction between a molecule containing a H+ and an electronegative atom forming an electrostatic type of union.

64
Q

How are ion-dipoles formed?

A

The interaction between polar molecules with molecules having positive or negative charges

65
Q

How are hydrophobic interactions?

A

The interaction between nonpolar atoms in water driving them together

66
Q

List the characteristics of the solid state

A
  1. Nearly incompressible due to strong intermolecular forces
  2. Volatile enough to have a sublimation point
  3. Atoms vibrate in fixed positions
  4. Fixed shape, particle size, and melting point
67
Q

List the properties of crystalline solids

A
  1. Arranged in repetitive 3-D lattice units
  2. Have defined melting point
68
Q

What are the 7 crystalline solid substances?

A
  1. Cubic
  2. Tetragonal
  3. Orthorhombic
  4. Rhombohedral
  5. Hexagonal
  6. Monoclinic
  7. Triclinic
69
Q

Which crystalline solids has the most symmetry? The least?

A

Cubic and Triclinic

70
Q

What is the difference between homomeric and heteromeric?

A

Regarding crystalline solids
Homomeric: composed of identical molecules or atoms
Hetermeric: composed of more than one type of molecule or atom

71
Q

What is the difference between hydrates and anhydrates?

A

Anhydrates lack free water molecules, while hydrates have them.

72
Q

What is the difference between salts and co-crystals?

A

Salts are formed by opposing ions. Co-crystals interact non-ionically.

73
Q

An ion that has an opposite charge than the ion its associated with?

A

Counterion

74
Q

Define solvate.

A

When a solvent is incorporated into the lattice.

75
Q

What is the ability for a substance to crystallize into another crystalline form?

A

Polymorphism

76
Q

List the properties of amorphous

A
  1. Hard glassy to rubbery state and does not possess a definite melting point
  2. Less stable than crystalline solids due to weak intermolecular forces
  3. More soluble than crystalline materials because they require less energy
77
Q

Which has more stability amorphous or crystalline solids and why?

A

Amorphous because they have relatively high humidity and heat

78
Q

What are polymers?

A

Large molecules formed by the covalent assembly of smaller molecules into a chain or network of repeating structural units

79
Q

What are polymers typically used for on a chemical scale?

A

Stabilize amorphous drugs

80
Q

How do polymer properties change?

A

The molecular weight determines their use

81
Q

List the characteristics of the liquid state

A
  1. Occupies a definite volume
  2. Denser than gas
  3. Possess less kinetic energy than gas
  4. Less compressible than gas
  5. Possess vapor pressure and surface tension
82
Q

Define vapor pressure

A

The pressure where vapor and liquid states reach equilibrium

83
Q

What is surface tension?

A

The energy to expand the liquids surface area. When molecules at the surface are pulled downward and sideways by other molecules, but not upward away from the surface.

84
Q

What happens if liquid has high vapor pressure?

A

Weaker intermolecular forces and lower boiling point

85
Q

What happens if a liquid has a low vapor pressure

A

Harder for molecules to escape the liquid allowing stranger intermolecular forces and higher boiling point

86
Q

List the characteristics of the gaseous state

A
  1. High compressibility
  2. Very low density
  3. Rapid diffusion
  4. High speed random collision of molecules with each other and container wall
87
Q

What is the ideal gas law?

A

R = PV/T

88
Q

Explain the relationship between partial pressure and the concentration of gas

A

They are directly proportional

89
Q

What is the process where solid changes into liquid?

A

Melting

90
Q

What is the process where solid changes into gas?

A

Sublimation

91
Q

What is the process where gas changes into liquid?

A

Condensation

92
Q

What is the process where liquid changes into solid?

A

Freezing

93
Q

What is the process where liquid changes into gas?

A

Vaporization

94
Q

What is a eutectic system?

A

Homogenous mixture of substances which either melts or solidifies at a single temperature lower than the melting point of any of the constituents

95
Q

What is the lowest temperature at which eutectic mixtures melt?

A

Eutectic point

96
Q

How do polymorphs arise?

A
  1. Changes in intermolecular bonding patterns
  2. Conformational changes in the molecule
  3. Molecular orientations with neighbors

Pharmaceutics (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions