T — Cognition Flashcards
According to dual-coding theory, information is processed through:
A. Emotions and sensations
B. Verbal associations and visual images
C. Repetition and memory recall
D. Reflexes and motor skills
c
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of the information processing model?
A. Thinking requires sensation, encoding, and storage
B. Automatic response to stimuli leads to better decisions
C. Decisions in one scenario help solve new problems
D. Problem solving depends on cognition and context
b
What does early cognitive development mainly focus on?
A. Language and memory
B. Moral decision-making
C. Mastering the physical environment
D. Social learning and imitation
c
According to Piaget, children think differently than adults because:
A. They lack emotional maturity
B. Their learning is entirely observational
C. They go through qualitatively different stages
D. Their brain is not fully developed until adolescence
c
In Piaget’s view, the first stage of cognitive development is the:
A. Preoperational stage
B. Formal operational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Sensorimotor stage
d
Piaget believed that infants learn through:
A. Watching adults closely
B. Innate interactions with their environment
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Structured teaching
b
According to Piaget, new information is processed through which two processes?
A. Encoding and retrieval
B. Sensation and perception
C. Assimilation and accommodation
D. Thinking and feeling
c
What best defines a schema in cognitive development?
A. A mental disorder
B. A method of conditioning
C. A concept, behavior, or sequence of events
D. A reflex action
c
According to Piaget, new information is processed through:
A. Symbolic learning and memory retrieval
B. Assimilation and accommodation
C. Reinforcement and punishment
D. Reflexes and instincts
b
Which of the following is an example of a primary circular reaction?
A. Dropping a spoon repeatedly
B. Imitating facial expressions
C. Sucking a thumb because it’s soothing
D. Laughing at a new toy
c
Repeatedly pushing a toy to see it move is an example of:
A. Primary reflex
B. Egocentrism
C. Object permanence
D. Secondary circular reaction
d
What is the typical age range for the sensorimotor stage?
A. 2–7 years
B. 7–11 years
C. 12–18 months
D. Birth to 2 years
d
At what age does object permanence typically develop?
A. 18–24 months
B. 4–6 months
C. 8–12 months
D. 2–3 years
c
What does egocentrism mean in the preoperational stage?
A. The ability to empathize with others
B. The inability to imagine what others think or feel
C. The development of logical thought
D. The ability to engage in pretend play
b
During the concrete operational stage, children:
A. Begin to use reflexes to learn
B. Are highly egocentric
C. Understand others’ perspectives
D. Engage mostly in symbolic play
c
What is the hallmark of the formal operational stage?
A. Learning language
B. Thinking logically about abstract ideas
C. Egocentrism
D. Developing object permanence
b
What did the pendulum experiment demonstrate in children in the concrete operational stage (7–11 years)?
A. They could isolate variables accurately
B. They ignored the task altogether
C. They were unable to isolate variables
D. They focused only on abstract concepts
c
According to Vygotsky, a child’s cognitive development is most dependent on:
A. Genetics
B. Brain size
C. Culture
D. Schooling
c
Which of the following is an example of fluid intelligence?
A. Memorizing vocabulary
B. Problem-solving skills
C. Recalling a phone number
D. Naming all the U.S. states
b
What does crystallized intelligence rely on?
A. New strategies
B. Abstract thought
C. Use of learned knowledge
D. Social interactions
c
Which of the following describes vascular dementia?
A. Memory loss due to Alzheimer’s
B. Caused by high blood pressure and mini-clots
C. Linked to alcohol abuse
D. Caused by low serotonin levels
b
Which term describes sticking to a belief despite clear evidence against it?
A. Confirmation bias
B. Belief perseverance
C. Disconfirmation
D. Fluid reasoning
b
What is the base rate fallacy?
A. Judging based on stereotypes
B. Using exact statistics
C. Ignoring general statistics for one vivid case
D. Learning through patterns
c
What defines delirium?
A. Slow, irreversible mental decline
B. Inability to recognize faces
C. Fast, reversible change in cognitive function
D. Inherited memory loss
d
What cognitive ability develops in the formal operational stage (11+ years)?
A. Logical thinking about abstract ideas
B. Egocentrism
C. Symbolic play
D. Object permanence
a
Which of the following is an example of fluid intelligence?
A. Solving a new type of puzzle
B. Memorizing state capitals
C. Reciting a poem
D. Recognizing a familiar face
a
Crystallized intelligence involves:
A. Adapting to new challenges
B. Using learned knowledge and skills
C. Estimating risk using intuition
D. Emotional regulation
b
Dementia is best described as:
A. A temporary cognitive disruption
B. Increased emotional awareness
C. Intellectual decline affecting memory and judgment
D. A hallucination disorder
c
Vascular dementia is primarily caused by:
A. Excess dopamine levels
B. Lack of sleep
C. High blood pressure leading to mini-clots
D. Head trauma
c
Which of the following could cause intellectual disabilities?
A. Infections in the brain
B. Balanced diet
C. High IQ
D. Healthy childbirth
a
Delirium is characterized by:
A. Permanent memory loss
B. Gradual cognitive decline
C. Rapid and reversible cognitive fluctuation
cD. Long-term depressiona
c
A mental set refers to:
A. Flexibility in solving new problems
B. Approaching problems in the same way repeatedly
C. Emotional response to tasks
D. Instinct-based action
b
Functional fixedness is the tendency to:
A. Ignore new information
B. Use objects in new ways
C. Struggle to use objects in unfamiliar ways
D. Apply logic to every problem
d
Which best describes the availability heuristic?
A. Judging based on stereotypes
B. Estimating probability using facts
C. Estimating likelihood based on easily recalled examples
D. Using a formula for prediction
c
Representative heuristic occurs when someone:
A. Judges likelihood based on similarity to a stereotype
B. Ignores visual cues
C. Judges based on personal memory
D. Uses only logic
a
Confirmation bias refers to:
A. Ignoring all sources of data
B. Seeking out info that agrees with existing beliefs
C. Changing views after new data
D. Using patterns to decide
b
The disconfirmation principle means:
A. Rejecting all new evidence
B. Reinforcing biases
C. Changing beliefs in light of contradicting evidence
D. Relying on feelings over facts
c
The Recognition-Primed Decision Model involves:
A. Using a formula for decision-making
B. Sorting information into patterns
C. Making decisions based on past emotions
D. Ignoring new information
b
What is an example of a “rule of thumb”?
A. A highly complex algorithm
B. A strict set of rules to follow
C. A general principle used to make quick decisions
D. A mathematical formula for accuracy
c
Which of the following is a barrier to effective problem-solving?
A. Algorithmic approach
B. Confirmation bias
C. Slow, methodical thinking
D. Emotional clarity
b
What are some common approaches to problem-solving?
A. Trail & error, heuristic, algorithm
B. Only intuition
C. Complete reliance on logic
D. Emotional decision-making
a
Overconfidence refers to:
A. Believing too little in one’s abilities
B. Excessive belief in one’s skills
C. Having balanced self-assurance
D. Believing in random events
b
Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Logical-mathematical
B. Linguistic
C. Artistic
D. Bodily-kinesthetic
c
Spearman’s “g factor” suggests that:
A. General intelligence underlies all cognitive abilities
B. Intelligence is made up of separate faculties
C. Intelligence is fixed and unchangeable
D. Emotional intelligence is more important than cognitive intelligence
a
The Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is:
A. A measure of how creative a person is
B. A method of evaluating emotional barriers
C. A measure of emotional intelligence
D. A standardized measure of intelligence
d
Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence intellectual abilities?
A. Parents’ expectations
B. Socioeconomic status
C. Level of social interactions
D. Educational experience
c
The three states of consciousness are:
A. Awake, unconscious, meditative
B. Dreaming, sleep, altered state of consciousness
C. Emotional, physical, cognitive
D. Conscious, unconscious, subconscious
b
What part of the brain is primarily responsible for alertness?
A. Hippocampus
B. Occipital lobe
C. Prefrontal cortex
D. Cerebellum
c
What EEG wave is associated with being awake, alert, and focused on a mental task?
A. Alpha wave
B. Delta wave
C. Theta wave
D. Beta wave
d
Which EEG features are found in Stage 2 (NREM 2) sleep?
A. Theta waves
B. Sawtooth waves
C. Delta waves
D. Sleep spindles and K complexes
d
What is the main function of sleep spindles and K complexes?
A. Increase cortisol production
B. Memory consolidation and protection from stimuli
C. Dream generation
D. Wakefulness
b
Which sleep stage is also called slow-wave sleep (SWS)?
A. Stage 3 and 4
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 2
D. REM
a
What kind of EEG waves dominate stages 3 and 4 of sleep?
A. Alpha
B. Theta
C. Delta
D. Sawtooth
c
Which of the following is NOT true about slow-wave sleep?
A. Difficult to wake someone
B. Brain acts as if awake
C. Growth hormone is released
D. Memory consolidation occurs
b
REM sleep is often called:
A. Light sleep
B. Recovery sleep
C. Paradoxical sleep
D. Theta-phase sleep
c
Which of the following occurs during REM sleep?
A. Voluntary muscle movement
B. Theta waves
C. Body temperature increases
D. Muscle paralysis (atonia)
d
What is one function of REM sleep on the body?
A. Memory consolidation
B. Increased immunity
C. Motor recovery
D. Bone strengthening
a
Which hormone is high during nighttime to promote sleep?
A. Cortisol
B. ACTH
C. Melatonin
D. CRF
c
ACTH is released by the anterior pituitary to:
A. Inhibit REM sleep
B. Stimulate the adrenal cortex
C. Activate growth hormone
D. Promote melatonin
b
Cortisol levels are:
A. High in the evening
B. Low in the morning
C. Constant throughout the day
D. High in the morning
d
What hormone pathway promotes daytime alertness?
A. Darkness → Pineal gland → Melatonin
B. REM → Brainstem → Adrenal cortex
C. Light → Hypothalamus → CRF → ACTH → Cortisol
D. SWS → Pituitary → GH → Adrenal medulla
c
What is the correct hormone pathway during nighttime?
A. Light → hypothalamus → melatonin → sleep
B. Light → pineal gland → serotonin → REM
C. Dark → pineal gland → melatonin → sleepiness
D. Dark → adrenal cortex → cortisol → sleep
c
Most dreams occur during which sleep stage?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 4
C. NREM 1
D. REM
d
According to the activation-synthesis theory, dreams result from:
A. Unresolved emotions
B. Random brain activity during REM
C. Logical thoughts in sleep
D. Conscious willpower
b
What does the problem-solving dream theory propose?
A. Dreams help consolidate physical skills
B. Dreams are just meaningless mental static
C. Dreams help us approach problems with a different perspective
D. Dreams are mostly random emotional releases
c
Cognitive process dream theory views dreams as:
A. The sleeping part of our consciousness
B. Ways to test memory
C. Visual hallucinations only
D. Signals of mental disorders
a
Neurocognitive models of dreaming aim to:
A. Promote wakefulness
B. Classify brain diseases
C. Stimulate REM sleep
D. Combine biology and psychology to explain dreaming
d
What are dyssomnias?
A. Abnormal movements during sleep
B. Difficulty falling, staying asleep, or avoiding sleep
C. REM-related emotional disorders
D. Breathing interruptions during REM
b
What symptom is characteristic of narcolepsy?
A. Inability to dream
B. Night terrors
C. Cataplexy
D. Excess REM
c
what is sleep apnea?
A. Waking up due to breathing stoppages
B. Talking during sleep
C. Excess melatonin
D. GABA deficiency
a
What is a parasomnia?
A. Insomnia caused by alcohol
B. Abnormal behaviors during sleep
C. REM suppression
D. Muscle rigidity
b
When do night terrors typically occur?
A. REM sleep
B. NREM 1
C. Stage 4 sleep
D. During dreams
c
What is the role of GABA receptors in sleep?
A. Stimulate wakefulness
B. Limit neural excitation and promote sleep
C. Activate dopamine
D. Increase adrenaline release
b
