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RC12X Study Guide > Systems Study Guide > Flashcards

Systems Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five stages of compression on the PT6A-67 engine?

A

Four axial and one centrifugal

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2
Q

What is the device that compensates for excess air flow at low N1 settings by bleeding axial compressed air to reduce back pressure in the engine compressor section?

A

Compressor Bleed Valve

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3
Q

What is the indication that the Bleed Valve has stuck in the open position?

A

Low torque with High TGT and N1.

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4
Q

True or False

The Primary Governor is part of the Accessory Gear Box?

A

False.

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5
Q

What are the components mounted on the N1 accessory section at the rear of the engine?

A 
F.R.O.S.T.
Fuel Pumps/Control
Refrigerant 
Oil Pumps
Starter/Generators
N1Tach
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6
Q

True or False

25% of compressed air is used for cooling?

A

False.

25% is used for combustion.

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7
Q

What are the components driven by the Reduction Gearbox.

A

T.O.P
Tachometer (N2)
Overspeed Governor
Primary Governor

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8
Q

Where is the chip detector is located?

A

bottom of Reduction Gearbox.

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9
Q

The _______ heat exchanger heats the fuel when it is cold or bypasses oil around the heat exchanger when the fuel is warm.

A

Oil to Fuel.

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10
Q

Fire detection is accomplished by a continuous ____ routed through strategic areas of the engine to detect ________ temperatures.

A

loop; excessive

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11
Q

What are the two functions of the Fire Pull Handles?

A

Closes the Firewall Shutoff Valve & arms fire extinguisher in the wheel well.

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12
Q

The amount of rudder boost is greatest at _____ airspeeds and progressively decreases as airspeed is _________.

A

low; increased

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13
Q

What is the blade angle when the props are at Ground Fine?

A

3 degrees

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14
Q

As the blade angle _________, rotational drag increases, and the blade speed will ________?

A

A: Increases, Decrease

As the blade angle increases, rotational drag increases, and the blade speed will
decrease.

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15
Q

State the component(s) that cause(s) the blades to seek a feathered position due to centrifugal force.

A

Counter Weights

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16
Q

What is the minimum propeller RPM to avoid the reactionless mode?

A

1000RPM

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17
Q

Are there any exceptions to be less than 1000RPM?

A

While in Feather

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18
Q

What is the governing range of the Primary Governor?

A

1450 to 1700 RPM

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19
Q

How does the primary governor slow the propeller RPM down in an overspeed condition?

A

The pilot valve raises, allowing oil to drain to case, causing the blade angle to increase (drag) and slows down the propeller.

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20
Q

When the overspeed governor test switch is placed in the test position, it provides ________ power to the N.C. solenoid and opens it allowing ________ to reset the speeder spring tension to ____ - ____ RPM?

A

Electrical / Oil pressure.

1540-1580

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21
Q

Which governor reduces fuel flow to the engine to limit propeller RPM?

A

The Fuel Topping Governor.

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22
Q

What is the governing range of the Fuel Topping Governor?

A

106% of Selected RPM

95% of Selected RPM in reverse

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23
Q

What are the two functions of a Fuel Topping Governor?

A

Limits propeller RPM during stuck/sluggish prop situations & aids during reversing operations.

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24
Q

What do the Fuel Topping Governor and the Primary Governor share with regard to components.

A

Speeder springs and fly weights.

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25
Q

What controls the Prop pitch when not in the governering range?

A

The Beta Valve in conjunction with the PLPS nuts.

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26
Q

In the event of an engine failure at what percent torque will the opposite autofeather light extinguish?

A

14-20%

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27
Q

At what percent torque does the autofeather dump valve open allowing the prop to feather?

A

7-13%

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28
Q

The propeller pitch is controlled by ____ _____ through a governor.

A

oil pressure

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29
Q

Which governor converts a variable pitch propeller into a constant speed propeller

A

Primary

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30
Q

What happens to the low pitch stop in reverse?

A

It is reset.

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31
Q

The position of the low pitch stop is controlled from the cockpit by the ______ _______.

A

power levers

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32
Q

The region between IDLE and the 3 degree blade angle is called ______ _____

A

ground fine.

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33
Q

The autoignition system is inactive when power is above the ____ torque pressure switch.

A

high

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the propeller synchrophaser system?

A

Noise reduction.

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35
Q

What are the sources of DC electrical power for the aircraft?

A

Ground Power Unit (GPU)
Battery
Generators

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36
Q

What are the sources of AC electrical power for the aircraft?

A

External AC Ground Power Unit
Two 750 volt/amp inverters (single phase)
Two 3000 volt/amp inverters (three phase)

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37
Q

Complete loss of DC power inflight will cause:

a. Loss of pressurization.
b. Loss of A.C. powered instruments.
c. Loss of auxiliary fuel transfer.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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38
Q

What is the maximum output of the generators?

A

400 amps, or 100% on the generator load meters

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39
Q

What are the starter limits?

A

40 seconds ON
15 minutes OFF,

40 seconds ON
30 minutes OFF

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40
Q

What are the functions of the generator control units?

A
  • Voltage control
  • Generator load paralleling
  • Over voltage/amperage protection
  • Output limit during cross generator starts (“Soft Start”)
  • Other functions listed in the student handout
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41
Q

Where is the Hot Battery Bus located?

A

On the inboard right wing, bottom of wing

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42
Q

Is the Hot Battery Bus active at all times?

A

Yes, provided the battery is connected

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43
Q

The landing gear system is ________ controlled and __________ actuated.

A

The landing gear system is electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

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44
Q

The landing gear is held in the up position with ____________ and are held down with ____________.

A

The landing gear are help in the position with hydraulic pressure and are held down with over-center locks.

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45
Q

Failure of the right main landing gear safety switch can prevent raising the gear handle and pressurization.
TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

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46
Q

The brakes use the same type of hydraulic fluid used by the landing gear system.
TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

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47
Q

The brakes use hydraulic fluid from the same reservoir as the landing gear system.
TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

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48
Q

The parking brake can be set from ____________.

The left seat
The right seat
Either seat
The toilet

A

Either seat

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49
Q

Under normal gear retraction operations, what switch is used to remove electrical power from the landing gear pump motor?

A

Uplock Pressure Switch

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50
Q

The time delay circuit protects the landing gear motor from overheating.
TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

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51
Q

The timer logic relay in the landing gear system will activate and the 2-amp landing gear control circuit breaker will open if voltage to the landing gear power pack has not terminated within ________.

A

14 seconds

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52
Q

The timer logic relay activates for gear retraction operations only.

TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

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53
Q

What flight controls are considered the primary flight controls?

A

Ailerons, Rudder and Elevator

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54
Q

The ailerons have two adjustable trim tabs

Describe each control surface

A

The left aileron has a trim tab controlled from the cockpit.

The right aileron has a trim tab bent into position by maintenance (not adjustable from cockpit)

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55
Q

The amount of rudder boost is greatest at low airspeed and progressively decreases as airspeed is increased. (True or False)

A

True

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56
Q

There is split flap protection between all flap panels in the RC-12X, even between the flap panels on different wings. (True or False)

A

False. Split flap protection is provided only between the flap panels (inboard and outboard) on the same wing. There is no split flap protection between the panels on different wings.

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57
Q

True or False

The Fuel Flow Meter will not operate without electrical power.

A

True, It needs 28 VDC

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58
Q

What is the fuel capacity of the Nacelle Tank?

A

57 gallons

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59
Q

How many fuel pumps are there on each side of the aircraft?

A

Engine Driven Boost Pump
Standby Boost Pump
High Pressure Pump
Jet Transfer Pump

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60
Q

Which sequence of components correctly defines the flow of the fuel from the Firewall Shutoff Valve to the Fuel Manifold?

A 
Engine Driven Boost Pump, 
Fuel Filter, 
Oil-to-Fuel Heat Exchanger - 
High Pressure Pump - 
Fuel Control Unit - 
Fuel Flow Transmitter
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61
Q

The Auxiliary fuel transfer system is ________ _________ and is only __________ by the pilot.

A

The Auxiliary fuel transfer system is fully automatic and is only monitored by the pilot.

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62
Q

The NO FUEL XFER light stays on _______ to ________ seconds after engine start.

A

30, 50

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63
Q

If fuel vents become clogged:

A

Fuel can become trapped in the system causing a flame-out.

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64
Q

The Jet Pump in the Aux Tank is:

a. Mechanical
b. Electric
c. Bleed air driven
d. Operating when fuel flows through it.
A

d. Operating when fuel flows through it.

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65
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there on the engine?

A

14

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66
Q

Which component causes the AUX Fuel Transfer PCB to open the Motive Flow Valve 30-50 seconds after the start?

A

The 9-11psi Pressure Switch

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67
Q

Which component in the fuel system shares the same drive shaft as the oil scavenge pumps?

A

Engine Driven Boost Pump

- If the Engine Boost Pump fails, the oil scavenge pump may also be affected.

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68
Q

Explain the function of the oil to fuel heat exchanger.

A

The heat exchanger allows hot oil into the unit when the fuel temperature is too cold.
- To prevent the formation of ice crystals that could potentially clog the fuel control unit.

69
Q

What pump allows this to happen automatically?

A

The Jet Transfer Pump.

70
Q

The #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS warning light is designed to tell you when:

A

The engine driven fuel boost pump has failed.

71
Q

What does the fuel aux transfer override switch do?

A

Provides electrical power directly to the motive flow valve

72
Q

What four things happen when the FUEL CROSSFEED switch is activated?

A

Fuel Crossfeed light illuminates
Crossfeed valve opens
Supply side standby boost pump turns on.
Receiving side motive flow valve closes

73
Q

How long can you operate with the red FUEL PRESS warning light illuminated?

A

10 hours.

74
Q

If the high pressure pump fails, what will happen?

A

The engine will fail.

75
Q

How many Standby Pumps are required for takeoff?

A

One STANDBY PUMP can be inoperative for takeoff.

76
Q

What limitations are placed on operations with AVGAS?

A

Limited to 150 hours.

Requires standby boost pumps to be used above 15,000 feet.

77
Q

What does the HYD FLUID LOW annunciator mean?

A

The fluid sensor in the hydraulic power pack senses a low fluid level.

78
Q

Normal landing gear extension / retraction time

A

6 - 7 seconds

79
Q

When the two red lights are illuminated in the gear handle it means:

A

The gear is in transit or unlocked

80
Q

Landing Gear Warning System Above 12,500 MSL

A

If flaps are extended beyond APPROACH, the lights will illuminate and the warning horn will sound until the landing gear is extended, and or the flaps are attracted to APPROACH or UP. This CANNOT be silenced

(Flaps beyond approach without gear and above 12,500MSL = horn and light)

81
Q

Landing Gear Warning System below 12,500 MSL

A

At airspeeds below 140KIAS with flaps in the UP/ APPROACH positions and either or both power levers below 79% N1, the gear lights and warning horn will sound. This can be silenced.

The switch is magnetically held, once actuated It will stay in the position until both power levers are advanced above 81% N1 and/or any speed increases above 153 KIAS

(Below 140KIAS and < 12,500 (low and slow) with low power and flaps not in a landing configuration = horn + lights)

82
Q

How long does it take ice vanes to attain the selected position (extended / retracted) ?

What will you see if they do not reach selected position in that time?

A

33 seconds
#1 / #2 VANE FAIL caution annunciations

83
Q

The engine fire detection system tubing consists of:

How does the fire detection system work?

A

An outer tube filled with an inert gas, and an inner hybrid core that is filled with an active gas.

As the temperature around the sensing cable increases, the gases within the tube begin to expand. When the pressure from the expanding gas reaches a preset point the contacts of the responder alarm switch closed, activating the respective fire warning system.

If the detector should develop a leak, the loss of gas pressure would allow the integrity switch to open and signal a lack of detector Integrity.

84
Q

What does pulling the T control handle do?

A

Electrically arm the extinguisher system (Squib) and close the firewall shutoff valve. Pressing the PUSH TO EXTINGUISH will fire the squib, expelling the entire agent in the cylinder at one time through a plumbing network that terminates in spray nozzles strategically located in probable fire areas.

85
Q

Maximum allowable oil consumption is one Quart per ____ hours

A

Maximum allowable oil consumption is one Quart per 5 hours

86
Q

Oil tank capacity per engine:

A

2.5 US Gallons

87
Q

Total oil system capacity for each engine (includes oil tank, oil, cooler, lines, etc…)

A

3.5 US Gallons

88
Q

When armed, the auto igniters will be energized continuously during the time when the engine is operating at a level below approximately _____ % Torque

A

20

89
Q

1 or #2 FUEL PRESS warning, annunciators indicate:

A

The engine driven boost pump has failed, and standby pump is not on.

Limited to 10 cumulative hours.

90
Q

Each electric standby fuel pump has an inertia switch that will remove electrical power from the standby fuel pumps when subjected to a ____ to ____ G shock loading as in a crash situation.

A

5 to 6 G

91
Q

An amber #1/2 NAC LOW annunciator will illuminate when there is approximately ______ minutes (approximately ______ gallons) of fuel per engine.

(on a standard day, at sea level, maximum Cruise power consumption)

A

30 minutes
58 gallons

92
Q

NOTE: if an engine driven boost pump fails, pressure can be maintained by placing the respective _____ switch to ____

A

Standby pump

On

93
Q

The engine driven high-pressure fuel pump is limited to ______ hours of operation without electric standby fuel pump or engine driven boost pump pressure

A

10 hours

94
Q

The oil to fuel heat exchanger thermostatically regulates fuel temperature to remain between ____ C and ____C

A

21 and 32

95
Q

A Yaw Dampener system is provided to aid the pilot in maintaining directional _______ and to increase ____ ____

Required above _____ ft

A

stability and increasing ride comfort

17,000 ft

96
Q

Rudder boost commences at about _____% torque differential and increases to a maximum at ____% torque differential

A

50%

100%

97
Q

The amount of rubber boost applied is _______ proportional to airspeed.

Max rudder boost is achieved at ____% TQ differential and a low airspeed of _____KIAS.

No rudder boost is available at high speeds above _____ KIAS

A

Inversely

100% and 80 KIAS

180KIAS

98
Q

The elevator and aileron trim tabs incorporate neutral, ______—______ action.

i.e. As the elevators or ailerons are displaced from the neutral position, the trim tab maintains and as adjusted position.

A

Non-servo

99
Q

The rudder trim tab incorporates __-__ action.

I.e. as the rudder is displaced from the neutral position, the trim tab moves in the same direction as the control surface.

A

Anti-servo

100
Q

Depressing the AP/YD bi-level push button to the first level, disconnect the _____ and ____ system.

The second level disconnects the ____ _____

A

AP and YD

Electric trim

101
Q

The wing flaps are _____ type flaps.

A

Slot

Slot flaps allow air to enter the underside of the wing and re-energize the boundary layer

102
Q

Full flap extension and retraction time is approximately _____ seconds

A

11 seconds

103
Q

Approach flap position (40%) is ____ degrees

Full flap position (100%) is ____degrees

A

Approach flap position is 14 degrees

Full flap position is 35 degrees

104
Q

Pulling the parking brake handle full out sets the_____ valves in the system, and any pressure being applied by the toe brakes is maintained

A

Check valves

105
Q

A mixture of bleed air from the engines as well as ambient air is available for pressurization to the cabin at a rate of approximately ____ to ____ pounds per minute

A

10 to 17 pounds per minute

106
Q

The flow control unit of each engine controls ____ air from the engine to make it usable for pressurization by mixing ambient air and ____ air, depending upon aircraft altitude and ambient temperature to make up the total air flow to the cabin for pressurization, heating, ventilation.

A

Bleed

107
Q

Landing gear safety switch actuated solenoids incorporated in the flow control unit, prevents ____ ____ on takeoff.

These solenoids stage the input of ambient air flow by allowing ambient air flow introduction through the left flow control unit first and then ____ seconds later, allowing air flow through the right flow control unit

A

Pressure bumps

4 seconds

108
Q

Pressurization Controller:

The outer scale of the display (CABIN ALT) indicates the selected cabin altitude.

The inner scale (ACFT ALT) indicates the corresponding altitude at which the max _____ would occur

A

PSID

109
Q

This valve maintains the selected cabin altitude and rate of climb, as commanded by the cabin rate of climb and altitude controller.

This valve also has a negative pressure relief diaphragm.

A

Outflow valve

110
Q

This valve provides pressure relief in the event of an outflow valve failure and is also used as a dump valve.

This valve is also opened by vacuum and also has a negative pressure relief diaphragm.

A

Safety Valve

111
Q

The autofeather system is fully armed when both power levers are advanced above ____ % N1.

The system remains inoperative as long as either power lever is retarded below approximately the ___% N1 position unless in ____, which disables the power lever limit switches.

A

89% N1

89% N1

Test

112
Q

The green #1/2 AUTOFEATHER annunciations indicate the auto feather system is _____

A

Armed

113
Q

Magnetic signal pulses occur once per revolution of the prop blade when the magnetic pickups cross the target, and send the signal to a _____ _____. This receives the signal and compares the L and R side prop RPM and relative position.

This control box _____ the prop rpm of one side to match the other by a max of ____ RPM.

A

Control box

Increases (NEVER decreases)

20RPM

114
Q

If the synchroscope is rotating clockwise is means the _____ side has a higher prop RPM

If the synchroscope is rotating COUNTERclockwise is means the _____ side has a higher prop RPM

A

Right

Left

115
Q

As the prop lever is moved aft, passing through the propeller governing range and stopping at the feather detent, prop RPM will be at approximately ____

A

1390 RPM

116
Q

For most effective antennae deicing operation, allow at least ___ “ to ___” of ice to form before attempting removal

A

1/8” to 1/4”

117
Q

For most effective surface deicing operation, allow at least ____” of ice to form before attempting removal

A

1/2”

118
Q

T or F

The propeller deice ammeter will indicate a load while the propeller deice system is being utilized in the manual mode

A

FALSE

The propeller deice ammeter will not indicate a load while the propeller deice system is being utilized in the manual mode

(However, each load meter will indicate apx 10% increase in load)

119
Q

Maintain a safe airspeed margin above the indicated stall speed when operating above _______’ PA.

Failure to maintain a safe airspeed may cause an unanticipated stall with little or no warning from the warning horn or aerodynamic buffeting.

A

20,000’ PA

120
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking, windshield heat should be placed in the NORMAL position for at least ____ minutes prior to the HIGH position.

A

15 minutes

121
Q

The cockpit is provided with a quick-donning ____/_____ type mask

A

Diluter/demand

122
Q

To receive a diluted oxygen supply, place the diluter lever on the oxygen mask to the ____ position.

To receive an undiluted oxygen supply, place the diluter lever on the oxygen mask to the ____ position.

To receive 100% oxygen at positive pressure, regardless of the position of the diluter lever, rotate the emergency control knob on the bottom of the mask to the _____ position

A

N (normal)

100%

Emergency

123
Q

Approximately ____ seconds per bleed air bypass valve in the air to air heat exchanger is required to drive the bypass valve to the fully open or closed position.

Only ____ valve moves at a time

A

30

1 valve

124
Q

A/C COLD OPN advisory annunciator advises crew that:

A

If Air-conditioning is required, the cabin temperature mode switch must be placed to the A/C COLD OPN position. This causes the AC compressor to run continuously

125
Q

T or F

You will turn off all external power while connecting the power cable to, or removing it from the external power supply receptacle.

A

True

126
Q

Note: if the altimeter does not read within ____ ft. of field elevation with the correct local barometric setting being used, the altimeter is nullified for IFR flight

A

70 ft.

127
Q

The Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) indicates the speed at which the aircraft ascends or descends based on changes in ______ ______

A

Atmospheric pressure

128
Q

T or F

Inaccurate indications on the standby magnetic compass will occur while windshield heat, radome anti-ice, or air conditioning is being used OR the sun visors are in the front position

A

True

129
Q

Meaning of #1/2 DC GEN annunciator

A

No.1/2 engine generator is off line

130
Q

Meaning of #1/2 Inverter annunciator

A

No. 1/2 inverter inoperative

131
Q

Meaning of #1/2 NO FUEL XFR annunciator

A

The auxiliary fuel tank on side 1 or 2 is not transferring fuel into nacelle tank.

(The aux tank is not empty but the motive flow valve is closed)

132
Q

Meaning of #1/2 EXTGH DISCH annunciator

A

NO. 1/2 engine fire extinguisher has discharged

133
Q

Meaning of #1/2 NAC LOW annunciator

A

No 1/2 engine has 30 minutes of fuel remaining at sea level, maximum cruise power consumption rate

134
Q

Meaning of CABIN DOOR annunciator

A

Cabin/ cargo door open or not secure

135
Q

Meaning of ELEC TRIM OFF annunciator

A

Electric trim switch had been turned off, or electric trim monitor has detected a trim fault and turned trim off

136
Q

Meaning of #1/2 VANE FAIL annunciator

A

NO 1/2 engine ice vane malfunction. Ice vane has not attained proper position

(Incorrect correlation between switch position and vane position)

137
Q

Meaning of amber #1/2 LIP HEAT annunciator

A

Failure of no. 1/2 lip heat valve to conform to selected position OR valve is in transit

(Different than green NO 1/2 LIP HEAT ON annunciator which means the No. 1/2 engine air scoop heat is on)

138
Q

Meaning of REV NOT READY annunciator

A

Propeller levers are not in the HIGH RPM, low pitch position, with the landing gear extended

139
Q

Meaning of DUCT OVERTEMP annunciator

A

Excessive bleed air temperature in environmental heat ducts

140
Q

Meaning of HYD FLUID LOW annunciator

A

The fluid level in the power pack is low

141
Q

Meaning of INS annunciator

A

Inertial navigation system’s cooling fan is off OR an INS malfunction that annunciator INS FAIL on MFD

142
Q

Meaning of IFF annunciator

A

Transponder fails to reply to a valid mode 5 interrogation

143
Q

Meaning of BATTERY CHARGE annunciator

When will the light extinguish

A

Charge rate on battery exceeds 7 amps for 6 seconds

within 2-5 minutes indicating the battery is approaching a full charge. If the caution illuminates during steady state cruise, this means conditions exist that may cause a thermal runaway.

144
Q

Meaning of BAT FEED FAULT annunciator

A

Ground fault detected in battery external power line

145
Q

Meaning of PROP SYNC ON annunciator

A

Synchrophaser turned on with landing gear extended

146
Q

Meaning of FUEL CROSSFEED annunciator

A

The crossfeed valve is open

147
Q

Meaning of green #1/2 LIP HEAT ON annunciator

A

No. 1/2 engine air scoop heat is on

(different than amber #1/2 LIP HEAT annunciator, which means a failure of the valve to conform to selected position or it’s in transit)

148
Q

Meaning of #1/2 PROP PITCH annunciator

A

No. 1/2 propeller is below the flight idle stop

149
Q

Meaning of green #1/2 VANE EXT annunciator

A

No. 1/2 ice vane extended

150
Q

Meaning of #1/2 IGN ON annunciator

A

No. 1/2 engine ignition/start switch is on

OR

No. 1/2 engine auto ignition switch is armed and engine torque is below 20%

151
Q

Meaning of L or R BL AIR OFF annunciator

A

Left/ Right environmental bleed air valve is closed

(Different than #1/2 BL AIR FAIL annunciator which means the poly flow tubing has melted)

152
Q

Meaning of #1/2 AUTOFEATHER annunciator

A

No. 1/2 autofeather is armed

153
Q

Meaning of AIR COND N1 LOW annunciator

A

No. 2 engine RPM is too low for air conditioning load

154
Q

Meaning of #1/2 FUEL PRESS warning annunciator

A

Fuel pressure failure on L/R side.

(Engine driven boost pump has failed)

155
Q

Meaning of L or R BL AIR FAIL warning annunciator

A

L/R bleed air warning line has melted or failed, indicating possible leak of No. 1/2 engine bleed air

(Different than L/R BL AIR OFF annunciator which means the Left/ Right environmental bleed air valve is closed)

156
Q

Meaning of ALT WARN warning annunciator

A

Cabin altitude exceeds 12,500 ft.

157
Q

Meaning of INST AC warning annunciator

A

No 26 VAC

158
Q

Meaning of #1/2 CHIP DETR warning annunciator

A

Contamination of no. 1/2 engine oil detected

159
Q

Meaning of #1/2 OIL PRESS warning annunciator

A

Oil pressure failure on L or R side

160
Q

Meaning of AP DISC warning annunciator

A

Autopilot has disengaged

161
Q

The lightning sensor system (LSS) is used to detect and locate areas of lightning activity within a ____ NM radius around the aircraft

A

100 NM

162
Q

WARNING: do not operate the weather radar set while personnel or combustible material are within _____ degrees of the radome or ______ ft. of the antenna reflector

A

+ or - 60 degrees

8 ft.

163
Q

Single Engine Service Ceiling: the maximum pressure altitude at which the aircraft is capable of climbing at _____ ft./min with one propeller feathered

Service Ceiling: the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb of ____ft/min can be obtained for the existing aircraft weight

A

50 feet per minute

100 feet per minute

164
Q

4 signs to leave icing conditions

1)

2)

3)

4)

A

1) a 30% increase in torque to maintain airspeed

2) a 15 knot decrease in airspeed with the same cruise power set

3) 2” of total ice accumulation

4) pilot- copilot airspeed indicators disagree

(2 x 15 = 30)

165
Q

The system’s that require vacuum are:

1

2

3

4

A

1) cabin controller

2) rate controller

3) safety / outflow valve

4) surface deice boots

166
Q

How is vacuum source derived?

A

Pneumatic air traveling through a bleed air ejector. The ejector uses a Venturi to produce negative pressure (vacuum)

167
Q

Maximum allowable oil consumption is one quart per _____ hours of engine operation

Normal oil consumption is as little as one quart per _____ hours of operation

A

5 hours

50 hours

168
Q

When is the propeller considered feathered on an inoperative engine?

A

A propeller is confirmed feathered on an inoperative engine if the rotation rate is no greater than two blades per second across a known point, or 30 rpm.

169
Q

What type of approach and landing shall be accomplished if the AFT ANT STOW annunciator is extinguished?

A

A shallow approach to flat landing shall be accomplished to avoid striking the lower aft boom dipole antenna

RC12X Study Guide (16 decks)

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